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F1 QUESTION

Total questions: 132

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

'An organisation is a social arrangement which pursues collective........................................, which controls its own performance and which has a boundary separating it from its environment.'

Which of the following words best completes this sentence?

a)
  1. Profits

b)
  1. Stakeholders

c)
  1.  Goals

d)
  1.  Tactics

2.

What is the term given to the idea that the combined output of a number of individuals working together will exceed that of the same individuals working separately?

a)
  1. Sympathy

b)
  1.  Specialisation

c)
  1. Synergy

d)
  1. Systems thinking

3.

Which

one of the following statements is true?

a)
  1. Limited company status means that a company is only allowed to trade up to a predetermined turnover level in any one year.

b)
  1. For organisations that have limited company status, ownership and control are legally separate.

c)
  1. The benefit of being a sole trader is that you have no personal liability for the debts of your business.

d)
  1. Ordinary partnerships offer the same benefits as limited companies but are usually formed by professionals such as doctors and solicitors.

4.
  1. An organisation is owned and run by central government agencies. The organisation is best described as which of the following statements?

a)
  1. A voluntary sector organisation

b)
  1. A private sector organisation

c)
  1. A public sector organisation

5.
  1. Which of the following groups may be considered to be stakeholders in the activities of a nuclear power station?

  2. (i)  The government

  3. (ii)  Environmental pressure groups

  4. (iii)  Employees

  5. (iv)  Local residents

a)
  1. (i), (iii) and (iv)

b)
  1.  (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

c)
  1. (iii) only

d)
  1.  (i) and (iii) only

6.

The term secondary stakeholders describes which group of stakeholders?

a)
  1. Stakeholders who conduct transactions with the organisation

b)
  1.  Stakeholders who have a contractual relationship with the organisation

c)
  1. Stakeholders who do not have a contractual relationship with the organisation

7.
  1. Which of the following organisations would rely most heavily on value for money indicators and efficiency rather than information on performance and profitability?

a)
  1. A private accountancy college

b)
  1.  A local authority

c)
  1.  A small retailer

8.
  1. ADB is a business which is owned by its workers. The workers share the profits and they each have a vote on how the business is run.

  2. Which of the following best describes ADB?

a)
  1. Public sector

b)
  1. Private sector

c)
  1.  Not-for-profit

d)

Co-operative

9.
  1. What is an acronym used to describe the key elements of an organisation's external environment?

a)
  1. SWOT

b)
  1. SMART

c)
  1. PEST

10.
  1. Which of the following is not a legitimate method of influencing government policy in the interests of a business?

a)
  1. Employing lobbyists to put the organisation's case to ministers or civil servants

b)
  1. Giving lawmakers non-executive directorships

c)
  1. Offering financial incentives to public officials to use their influence on the organisation's behalf

d)
  1.  Attempting to influence public opinion, to put pressure on the legislative agenda

11.
  1. ................. is an analysis of statistics on birth and death rates, age structures of people and ethnic groups within a community.

  2. Which word correctly completes the sentence?

a)

Ergonomics

b)


Economics

c)

Psychographics

d)

Demographics

12.

A recent trend in organisation and management is the rise in 'virtual organisation' and 'virtual teamworking'. To which of the following environmental (PEST) factors is this most directly attributed?

a)
  1. Economic

b)
  1. Socio-cultural

c)
  1. Technological

d)
  1. Political

13.
  1. The stationery and printing company S Co, has recently upgraded its computers and printers so that more production has become automated. Many middle managers will now be made redundant. This is known as:

a)
  1. Downsizing

b)
  1. Delayering

c)
  1. Outsourcing

14.
  1. In the context of 'best practice' employment protection law, in which of the following circumstances is dismissal of an employee automatically considered unfair?

a)
  1. Selection for redundancy on the basis of age

b)
  1. Misconduct

c)
  1. Marriage to an employee of a key competitor

d)
  1. Incompetence

15.

Which

of the following socio-cultural trends will have a direct impact on most business organisations?

  1. (i)  Increasing ethnic and religious diversity in populations

  2. (ii)  Falling birthrates

  3. (iii)  Focus on 'green' issues

  4. (iv)  Increase in single-member households

a)
  1. (iii) only

b)
  1.  (i) and (iii) only

c)
  1. (i), (ii) and (iii) only

d)
  1. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

16.
  1. Porter's five forces model identifies factors which determine the nature and strength of competition in an industry. Which of the following is not one of the five forces identified in Porter's model?

a)
  1. Substitute products or services

b)
  1. New entrants to the industry

c)
  1. Bargaining power of customers

d)
  1. Government regulation of the industry

17.
  1. For what function in an organisation would demographic information about social class be most relevant?

a)
  1. Human Resources

b)
  1. Marketing

c)
  1. Purchasing

18.

Which

of the following is a support activity in Porter's value chain model?

a)
  1. Procurement

b)
  1. Operations

c)
  1. Marketing and sales

d)
  1. Inbound logistics

19.

Which

  1. of the following statements about the impact of technological developments is not true?

a)
  1.  Technology developments have supported corporate delayering

b)
  1. Technology developments tend to adversely affect employee relations

c)
  1. Technology developments creates risk for long-range product/market planning

d)
  1. Technology developments offer significant advantages for corporate communications

20.

BCD Co is a large trading company. Steve is the administration manager and is also responsible for legal and compliance functions. Sheila is responsible for after sales service and has responsibility for ensuring that customers who have purchased goods from BCD Co are fully satisfied. Sunny deals with suppliers and negotiates on the price and quality of inventory. He is also responsible for identifying the most appropriate suppliers of plant and machinery for the factory. Sam is the information technology manager and is responsible for all information systems within the company. According to Porter's value chain, which of the managers is involved in a primary activity as opposed to a support activity?

a)
  1. Steve

b)
  1. Sheila

c)

Sunny

d)

Sam

21.
  1. What is the latest stage at which a new recruit to a company should first be issued with a copy of the company's health and safety policy statement?

a)
  1. On accepting the position with the company

b)
  1. As early as possible after employment

c)
  1. After the first few weeks of employment

d)
  1. During the final selection interview

22.
  1. In Porter's five forces model, which of the following would not constitute a 'barrier to entry'?

a)
  1. Scale economies available to existing competitors

b)
  1. High capital investment requirements

c)
  1. Low switching costs in the market

23.
  1. Three of the following strategies are closely related. Which is the exception?

a)

Downsizing

b)
  1. Delegating

c)

Delayering

d)

Outsourcing

24.
  1. Which of the following would be identified as a cultural trend?

a)
  1. Health and safety legislation

b)
  1. Concern with health and diet

c)
  1. Increasing age of the population

25.

For demographic purposes, which of the following is not a variable in the identification of social class?

a)

income level

b)

lifestyle

c)

occupation

d)

education

26.

BZ Ness Ltd is an organisation with a strongly traditional outlook. It is structured and managed according to classical principles: specialisation, the scalar chain of command, unity of command and direction. Personnel tend to focus on their own distinct tasks, which are strictly defined and directed. Communication is vertical, rather than lateral. Discipline is much prized and enshrined in the rule book of the company.

From the scenario, what sort of culture does BZ Ness Ltd have, using Harrison's classifications?

a)
  1. Role culture

b)
  1. Task culture

c)
  1. Existential culture

d)
  1. Power culture

27.

Which

of the following statements is true?

a)
  1. Strong values improve corporate performance

b)
  1. B  Strong values can replace rules and controls in an organisation

c)
  1. Strong values minimise conflict within an organisation

d)
  1.  Strong values are dangerous if they filter out 'uncomfortable' environmental information

28.

Culture is the collective programming of the mind which distinguishes the members of one ........................................ from another.

Which word or phrase most accurately completes the definition?

a)

nation

b)

category of people

c)

social class

29.

Which

of the following is not one of the terms used by Hofstede to describe a key dimension of culture?

a)
  1. Power-distance

b)
  1. Acquisitive/giving

c)
  1. Individualism/collectivism

d)
  1. Uncertainty avoidance

30.

Which

is the 'deepest' set of underlying factors which determine culture, and the hardest to manage?

a)

values

b)

rituals

c)

assumptions

31.
  1. Who defined organisational culture as 'the set of shared, taken-for-granted implicit assumptions that a group holds and that determines how it perceives, thinks about and reacts to its environment'?

a)

maslow

b)

schein

c)

porter

d)

mintzberg

32.
  1. Research has indicated that workers in country A display characteristics such as toughness and the desire for material wealth and possessions, while workers in country B value personal relationships, belonging and the quality of life.

    According to Hofstede's theory, these distinctions relate to which of the following cultural dimensions?

a)
  1. Masculinity – femininity

b)
  1.  Power – distance

c)
  1. Individualism – collectivism

d)
  1. Uncertainty avoidance

33.

The research and development (R & D) function of a business:

  1. (i)  Is primarily concerned with market research

  2. (ii)  Can improve existing products as well as developing completely new products

(2 marks)

(iii) Has been less important for firms manufacturing computers to meet an industry standard than for those firms developing the next generation of computers

(iv) Is always undertaken under contract by specialist external consultancies Which of the above statements are correct?

a)
  1. (i) and (ii) only

b)
  1.  (ii) and (iii) only

c)
  1. (i), (iii) and (iv) only

d)
  1. (ii) and (iv) only

34.

Services have certain qualities which distinguish them from products. Because of their ........................................ , physical elements such as vouchers, tickets, confirmations and merchandise are an important part of service provision.

Which of the following words most accurately completes the sentence?

a)

Intangibility

b)

Inseparability

c)

Variability

d)

Perishability

35.

U Ltd produces a portfolio of products and focuses its efforts and resources on persuading customers to buy them.

This is an example of which type of 'orientation'?

a)

production

b)

sales

c)

marketing

36.

Which of the following is/are objectives of human resource management?

(1 mark)

  1. 1  To meet the organisation's social and legal responsibilities relating to the human resource

  2. 2  To manage an organisation's relationship with its customers

  3. 3  To develop human resources that will respond effectively to change

a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 3

c)

1

d)

1,2,3

37.
  1. Jeff, Jane and Jaitinder work in different departments in the firm XYZ Co. They are members of the permanent 'staff committee' which meets on a monthly basis to discuss staff issues such as pensions and benefits. Their purpose is to listen to communication from staff within their department and raise issues on behalf of their department at committee meetings. What is the name given to this type of committee?

a)

joint committee

b)

task force

c)

standing committee

38.
  1. Josh, Joanne, Ed, and Sue all work for D Co. Josh works in the finance department. Joanne works in the human resources department. Ed is Sue's line manager in the purchasing department. Which one of the staff members would be involved with payroll administration?

a)

josh

b)

joanne

c)

ed

d)

sue

39.

Managers Jill and Paul are talking about how to resolve a business problem. Jill suggests that a committee should be formed to discuss the issues. Paul argues that committees are:

  1. (i)  Time-consuming and expensive

  2. (ii)  They invite a compromise instead of a clear-cut decision

Which of these statements is true?

a)
  1. Both (i) and (ii)

b)
  1. (i) only

c)
  1. (ii) only

d)
  1. Neither statement is true

40.

Diane carries out routine processing of invoices in the purchasing department of L Co. Joanne is Diane's supervisor. Lesley is trying to decide how many staff will be needed if some proposed new technology is implemented. Tracey is considering the new work that L Co will be able to offer and the new markets it could enter, once the new technology is well established.

Which member of L Co carries out tactical activities?

a)

diane

b)

joanne

c)

lesley

d)

tracey

41.
  1.  Mr Q is manager of a division which is undergoing a business downturn. He tries to shelter the workforce from the effects of downsizing: taking time for consultation, organising counselling and refusing to institute compulsory redundancies.

    Which one of the following cultural types identified in the Hofstede model is this manager most likely to represent?

a)
  1. Low power-distance

b)
  1. Low masculinity

c)
  1. Low uncertainty avoidance

d)
  1. High individuality

42.
  1. Which of the following would not be an objective of stakeholder management in relation to major suppliers?

a)
  1. Continuity of supply

b)
  1. Mutual dependency

c)
  1. Information sharing

43.
  1. Janet works for a toy company called K Co. She telephones Mary at P Co on a daily basis to order parts. Janet has no contact with customers but does deal with complaint letters from D Group, an organisation against slave labour. D Group believe that K Co use slave labour in the toy manufacturing factories.

Which of the following are internal stakeholders of K Co?

a)
  1. Janet only

b)
  1.  Janet and Mary at P Co

c)
  1. Janet and D Group

d)
  1. Janet, Mary and D Group

44.
  1. Josina has been appointed Chair of a remuneration committee. She is responsible for which one of the following duties?

a)
  1. Fixing the date and time of the next meeting

b)
  1. Giving a ruling on matters in dispute

c)
  1. Taking notes during the meeting

45.
  1. Ali is responsible for preparing and issuing documents prior to a meeting, then acting on and communicating decisions following the meeting. What is his role?

a)
  1. Committee secretary

b)
  1. Committee member

c)
  1.  Committee Chair

46.

Which

of the following statements about corporate social responsibility is true?

  1. (i)  CSR guarantees increased profit levels

  2. (ii)  CSR adds cost to organisational activities and reduces profit levels

  3. (iii)  Social responsibility may have commercial benefits

  4. (iv)  Social responsibility is a concern confined to business organisations

a)
  1. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

b)
  1.  (i) and (iii)

c)
  1. (ii) and (iv)

d)
  1. (iii) only

47.
  1. Calum, Heidi and Jonas are managers for Zip Co. They have been told that their salary will be based on company performance and that a bonus scheme will also be introduced. The bonus will also be related to company performance. Which of the following best describes the approach to governance that Zip Co is using?

a)
  1. Stewardship theory

b)
  1. Agency theory

c)
  1. Stakeholder theory

48.
  1. Michael has been asked to prepare a presentation for the company directors on good corporate governance. Which one of the following is he likely to exclude from his presentation?

a)
  1. Risk management

b)
  1. Internal controls

c)
  1. Maximising shareholder wealth

d)
  1.  Accountability to stakeholders

49.

Corporate governance is essentially of what significance?

a)
  1. Control system

b)
  1. Strategic importance

c)
  1. Risk management

50.

Which

of the following is a feature of poor corporate governance?

a)
  1. Domination of the board by a single individual

b)
  1. Critical questioning of senior managers by external auditors

c)
  1. Supervision of staff in key roles

d)
  1. Lack of focus on short-term profitability

51.

The tasks of which body include: monitoring the chief executive officer; formulating strategy; and ensuring that there is effective communication of the strategic plan?

a)
  1. The audit committee

b)
  1. The Public Oversight Board

c)
  1. The board of directors

d)
  1.  The nomination committee

52.

Which of the following would be included in the principles of Corporate Social Responsibility?

  1. (i)  Human rights

  2. (ii)  Employee welfare

  3. (iii)  Professional ethics

  4. (iv)  Support for local suppliers

a)
  1. (ii) and (iii) only

b)
  1.  (i) only

c)
  1. (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

d)
  1. (i), (ii) and (iv) only

53.

Which of the following is subject to the least direct regulation?

a)
  1. Employment protection

b)
  1. Corporate social responsibility

c)
  1. Corporate governance

54.
  1. In most countries, what is the usual purpose of codes of practice on corporate governance?

a)
  1. To establish legally binding requirements to which all companies must adhere

b)
  1.  To set down detailed rules to regulate the ways in which companies must operate

c)
  1. To provide guidance on the standards of the best practice that companies should adopt

d)
  1. To provide a comprehensive framework for management and administration

55.
  1. Who should set directors' reward and incentive packages, according to corporate governance provisions?

a)
  1. The board of directors

b)
  1. The nomination committee

c)
  1. A remuneration committee made up of independent non-executive directors

56.
  1. What is the purpose of an Operating and Financial Review (OFR)?

a)
  1. To provide the board of directors with a narrative statement by the audit committee of its findings on the efficacy of internal operational and financial controls.

b)
  1. To set out the directors' analysis of the business, in order to provide investors with a historical and prospective view through the eyes of management.

c)
  1. To provide a statement that the company is a going concern.

57.
  1. Which of the following are advantages of having non-executive directors on the company board?

    1. 1  They can provide a wider perspective than executive directors.

    2. 2  They provide reassurance to shareholders.

    3. 3  They may have external experience and knowledge which executive directors do not possess.

    4. 4  They have more time to devote to the role.

a)

1 and 3

b)

1,2 and 3

c)

1,3 and 4

d)

2 and 4

58.

Joseph has just started his first job in an accountancy department. A qualified senior member of staff explains to him what the main aim of accounting is. Which of the following options is the correct aim of accounting?

a)
  1. To maintain ledger accounts for every asset and liability

b)
  1. To provide financial information to users of such information

c)
  1. To produce a trial balance

d)
  1.  To record every financial transaction individually

59.

Which of the following statements about accounting information is incorrect?

a)
  1. Some companies voluntarily provide specially-prepared financial information to employees.

b)
  1. Accounting information should be relevant, reliable, complete, objective and timely.

c)
  1. Accountants have a strong obligation to ensure that company accounts conform to accounting standards

d)
  1. Charities and professional bodies do not have to produce financial statements in the same way as businesses.

60.
  1. In a typical finance function, preparation of budgets and budgetary control would usually be the responsibility of which of the following roles?

a)
  1. The Financial Controller

b)
  1. The Management Accountant

c)
  1. The Treasurer

61.
  1. Three of the following are outputs of a payroll system, and one is an input to the system. Which is the input?

a)
  1. Credit transfer forms

b)
  1. Time sheets

c)
  1. Payroll analysis

d)
  1. Pay slips

62.
  1. Which of the following is an aim of the control system relating to accounts payable and purchases?

a)
  1. To ensure that all credit notes received are recorded in the general and payables ledger

b)
  1. To ensure that goods and services are only supplied to customers with good credit ratings

c)
  1. To ensure that all credit notes that have been issued are recorded in the general and receivables ledgers

d)
  1.  To ensure that potentially doubtful debts are identified

63.

Which

of the following does company law require a statement of financial position to give?

a)
  1. A true and fair view of the profit or loss of the company for the financial year

b)
  1.  An unqualified (or 'clean') report on the statement of affairs of the company as at the end of the

    financial year

c)
  1. A true and fair view of the statement of affairs of the company as at the end of the financial year

64.
  1. The following, with one exception, are areas in which an integrated accounting software package has advantages compared to a series of separate (stand-alone) dedicated programs. Which is the exception?

a)
  1. Efficiency in updating data

b)
  1. Flexibility in preparing reports

c)
  1. Data integrity

d)
  1. Specialised capabilities

65.
  1. A ........................................ is a program which deals with one particular part of a computerised business accounting system. Which of the following terms correctly completes this definition?

a)

suite

b)

module

c)

spreadsheet

d)

database

66.
  1. All the following, with one exception, are examples of advantages of a computer-based accounting system over a manual system. Which statement is the exception?

a)
  1. Financial calculations can be performed more quickly and accurately

b)
  1. Financial information can be presented to other business departments in a variety of forms

c)
  1. There is much stronger provision for data security

d)
  1. The system is easier to update as new information becomes available

67.
  1. A spreadsheet software application may perform all of the following business tasks except one. Which one of the following is the exception?

a)
  1. The presentation of numerical data in the form of graphs and charts

b)
  1. The application of logical tests to data

c)
  1. The application of 'What if?' scenarios

d)
  1. Automatic correction of all data entered by the operator into the spreadsheet

68.
  1. The preparation and filing of accounts by limited companies each year is required by which of the following?

a)
  1. Codes of corporate governance

b)
  1.  National legislation

c)
  1. International Accounting Standards

d)
  1. Local Accounting Standards

69.
  1. All the following statements except one are examples of the advantages that a computer-based accounting system used by a management accountant has over a manual system.

    Which statement is the exception?

a)
  1. A computer-based accounting system is easier to update as new information becomes available

b)
  1. A computer-based accounting system will always reject inaccurate financial information input to the system's database

c)
  1. Financial calculations can be performed more quickly and accurately

d)
  1. The management accountant can more readily present financial information to other business

    departments in a variety of forms

70.
  1. Gordon works in the accounts department of a retail business. He and his colleagues are looking at the sales figures for various types of clothing. The director asks them to use exception reporting to summarise their findings. Which of the following correctly defines the concept of 'exception reporting' within a business context?

a)
  1. The reporting of unusual events, outside the normal course of events

b)
  1. The analysis of those items where performance differs significantly from standard or budget

c)
  1. The preparation of reports on routine matters on an 'ad hoc' basis

d)
  1. The scrutiny of all data as a matter of course, save in exceptional circumstances

71.
  1. A small company's computer system comprises five desktop personal computers located in separate offices linked together in an intranet within the same building. The computers are not connected to the Internet and employees are not allowed to take storage media into or out of the building. Information which the business' owner wishes to keep confidential to herself is stored in one of the computers.

    Which one of the following statements can be concluded from this information?

a)
  1. This company's computer system does not need a back-up storage system

b)
  1. This company's computer system does not need a password access system

c)
  1. This company's computer system does not receive email from customers or suppliers

72.
  1. ............................... Systems pool data from internal and external sources and make information available to senior managers, for strategic, unstructured decision-making.

    Which word or phrase correctly completes this sentence?

a)
  1. Expert

b)
  1. Decision Support

c)
  1. Executive Support

d)
  1. Management Support

73.

All the following statements except one describe the relationship between data and information. Which

one is the exception?

a)
  1. Information is data which has been processed in such a way as to be meaningful to the person

    who receives it.

b)
  1. The relationship between data and information is one of inputs and outputs.

c)
  1. Data is always in numerical form whereas information is always in text form.

74.

INPUT DATA- ? -DATABASE

APPLICATION PROGRAMS

SALES APPLICATIONS STATISTICS ETC

BRANCH AND PERSONNEL STATISTICS ETC

What element of a database system is represented by the question mark in the above diagram?

a)
  1. Database administrator

b)
  1.  Electronic point of sale system

c)
  1. Data storage

d)
  1.  Database management system

75.

Which

of the following statements about data security is not true?

a)
  1. Loss or corruption of data is almost always non-deliberate.

b)
  1.  New staff in particular pose a threat.

c)
  1. It is impossible to prevent all threats cost-effectively.

d)
  1. Smoke detectors are a form of data protection.

76.
  1. Office Automation Systems are designed mainly to increase the ........................................ of data and information workers.

    Which word correctly completes this sentence.

a)
  1. Productivity

b)
  1. Flexibility

c)
  1. Decision-making capability

77.
  1. Which of the following user groups of financial and accounting information are likely to need, and have access to, this information most?

a)
  1. Managers of the company

b)
  1. Shareholders of the company

c)
  1. Financial analysis advisers

78.

To whom should the internal audit department of an organisation report?

a)
  1. The Finance Director

b)
  1. The audit committee of the board of directors

c)
  1. The shareholders

79.
  1. Which of the following statements, in the context of computerised accounting systems, is not true?

a)
  1. A database is a structured, centralised pool of data which can be accessed by a number of

    applications.

b)
  1.  A spreadsheet is particularly useful for creating financial models.

c)
  1. Computerised systems reduce the risk of errors in financial calculations.

d)
  1. Information and Communication Technology (ICT) systems are more efficient than manual systems for any task an accountant may have to perform.

80.
  1. Which function in an organisation is responsible for ensuring that only properly authorised purchases which are necessary for the business are made?

a)
  1. Goods inwards

b)
  1. Finance/accounts

c)
  1. Purchasing/procurement

d)
  1. Production/operations

81.
  1. There is a need for co-ordinated information flow between sections and departments in accounting management. To which of the following should the receivables ledger section give information about overdue debts?

a)
  1. Cost accounting staff

b)
  1. The credit control department

c)
  1. The payables ledger section

82.

Which

one of the following is not part of the regulatory system?

a)
  1. GAAP

b)
  1.  International financial reporting standards

c)
  1. IFAC

d)
  1. The European Union

83.

International Financial Reporting Standards are issued by which one of the following organisations?

a)

IASB

b)

ASB

c)
  1. The European Union

84.

Which of the following is not an element of fiscal policy?

a)
  1. Government spending

b)
  1.  Government borrowing

c)
  1. Taxation

d)
  1. Exchange rates

85.
  1. Which of the following is associated with a negative Public Sector Net Cash Requirement?

a)
  1. The government is running a budget deficit.

b)
  1. The government's expenditure exceeds its income.

c)
  1. The government is running a budget surplus.

d)
  1. Public Sector Debt Repayment (PSDR) is high.

86.
  1. ............... taxes are collected by the Revenue authority from a business, which attempts to pass on the tax to consumers in the price of goods.

    Which word correctly completes this statement?

a)

progressive

b)

direct

c)

indirect

87.
  1. If a government has a macro-economic policy objective of expanding the overall level of economic activity, which of the following measures would not be consistent with such an objective?

a)
  1. Increasing public expenditure

b)
  1. Lowering interest rates

c)
  1.  Increasing taxation

88.
  1. The currency in country X is the Krone while country Y uses the Euro. Country Y has recently experienced an increase in its exchange rate with Country X. Which of the following effects is likely to result in Country Y?

a)
  1. A stimulus to exports in Country Y

b)
  1.  An increase in the costs of imports from Country X

c)
  1. Reducing demand for imports from Country X

d)
  1.  A reduction in the rate of cost push inflation

89.
  1. The following, with one exception, are 'protectionist measures' in international trade. Which is the exception?

a)
  1. Import quotas

  2. B  Subsidies for exporters

b)
  1. Subsidies for exporters

c)
  1. Customs procedures

d)
  1.  Tariffs

90.
  1.  Are the following statements true or false?

    (2 marks)

    1. 1  Frictional unemployment will be short term

    2. 2  Governments can encourage labour mobility if they want to reduce unemployment

a)
  1. Both statements are true.

b)
  1. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.

c)
  1. Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.

d)
  1. Both statements are false.

91.

Monetary policy is a government economic policy relating to:

  1. 1  Interest rates

  2. 2  Taxation

  3. 3  Public borrowing and spending

  4. 4  Exchange rates

Which of the above are correct?

a)

1 and 4

b)

2 and 3

c)

2 and 4

d)

3 and 4

92.

Which of the following organisations might benefit from a period of high price inflation?

a)
  1. An organisation which has a large number of long-term payables

b)
  1.  An exporter of goods to a country with relatively low inflation

c)
  1. A large retailer with a high level of inventory on display and low rate of inventory turnover

93.

Which

of the following are the goals of macroeconomic policy

  1. 1  Encouraging economic growth

  2. 2  Low unemployment

  3. 3  Achievement of a balance between exports and imports

  4. 4  Achieving zero inflation

a)

1 and 2

b)

2 and 3

c)

2,3 and 4

d)

1,2 and 3

94.

Which

of the following is an example of cyclical unemployment?

a)
  1. The entry of school leavers into the labour pool each year

b)
  1. Lay-offs among agricultural labourers in winter

c)
  1. Automation of ticketing services in tourism

d)
  1. Recession in the building industry

95.

A surplus on the balance of payments usually refers to a surplus or deficit on the ........................................ account.

Which word correctly complete this statement?

a)

current

b)

capital

c)

financial

96.

Northland, Southland, Eastland and Westland are four countries of Asia. The following economic statistics have been produced for the year 2007.

Country
Change in GDP (%)
Balance of payments current account ($m) Change in consumer prices (%)
Change in working population employed (%)

Northland

–0.30 +5550.83 +27.50 –4.76

Southland

+2.51 –350.47 +15.37 +3.78

Eastland

–0.55 –150.90 +2.25 +1.76

Westland

+2.12 +220.39 +2.15 –8.76

(2 marks)

Which country experienced stagflation in the relevant period?

a)

Northland

b)

Southland

c)

Eastland

d)

Westland

97.

............ economic growth is determined by supply-side rather than by demand side factors.

Which word correctly completes this statement?

a)

actual

b)

potential

c)

national

98.
  1. In a free market economy, the price mechanism:

a)
  1. Aids government control

b)
  1.  Allocates resources

c)
  1. Measures national wealth

99.
  1. The supply curve of a firm operating in a competitive market is its

a)
  1. Marginal cost curve above the average variable cost curve

b)
  1. Marginal cost curve above the average total cost curve

c)
  1. Average total cost curve beyond the point where the marginal cost curve cuts it from below

d)
  1.  Average variable cost curve below the average revenue curve

100.

A

legal minimum price is set which is below the equilibrium price. What will be the impact of this?

a)
  1. Excess of demand over supply

b)
  1. Excess of supply over demand

c)

Nothing

101.

Which one of the following would cause the supply curve for a good to shift to the right (outwards from the origin)?

a)
  1. A fall in the price of the good

b)
  1. An increase in the demand for the good

c)
  1. A fall in production costs of the good

d)
  1.  The imposition of a minimum price

102.

When the price of a good is held above the equilibrium price, the result will be

a)
  1. Excess demand

b)
  1. A shortage of the good

c)
  1. A surplus of the good

103.

Which one of the following would not lead directly to a shift in the demand curve for overseas holida

a)
  1. An advertising campaign by holiday tour operators

b)
  1. A fall in the disposable incomes of consumers

c)
  1. A rise in the price of domestic holidays

d)
  1. A rise in the price of overseas holidays

104.
  1. Which of the following is likely to lead to a fall in the price of good Q which is a normal good?

a)
  1. A rise in the price of good P, a substitute for good Q

b)
  1. A fall in the level of household incomes generally

c)
  1. A fall in the price of good T, a complement to good Q

d)
  1. A belief that the price of good Q is likely to double in the next 3 months

105.
  1. According to the theory of the firm, which of the following statements describes an oligopoly?

a)
  1. There are no barriers to entry into or exit from the market

b)
  1. There is only one producer in the market

c)
  1. There are four producers exerting considerable influence in the market

d)
  1. There are many producers but they each use product differentiation to distinguish themselves

    from each other

106.
  1. Which of the following is not a substitute for carpets?

a)

ceramic floor tiles

b)

wooden floorboard

c)

carpet underlay

107.
  1. Which of the following is not a complement to cars?

a)

petrol

b)

tyres

c)

holidays

108.
  1. The demand for fashion goods is not influenced by:

a)

price

b)

Allocative inefficiency among producers

c)

The distribution of income among households

d)

Expectation of future price changes

109.

if the price of coffee falls, which one of the following outcomes would be expected to occur?

a)

A fall in the quantity of coffee demanded

b)

A rise in the price of tea

c)

A fall in the demand for drinking cups

d)

A fall in the demand for tea

110.

What is an inferior good?

a)
  1. A good of such poor quality that demand for it is very weak

b)
  1. A good for which the cross elasticity of demand with a substitute product is greater than 1

c)
  1. A good for which demand will fall as household income rises

111.
  1. Consider the price and demand for flower vases. The price of cut flowers goes up sharply. Which of the following would you expect to happen?

a)
  1. The demand curve for flower vases will shift to the left and their price will rise

b)
  1. The demand curve for flower vases will shift to the right and their price will rise

c)
  1. There will be a movement along the demand curve for flower vases and their price will go down

d)
  1. The demand curve for flower vases will shift to the left and their price will go down

112.
  1. Consider the price and demand for tickets to travel by sea ferry. The price of travelling by hovercraft (a substitute form of travel) goes up. Which of the following would you expect to happen?

a)
  1. The demand curve for sea ferry tickets will shift to the left, and their price will go down. More sea ferry tickets will be sold.

b)
  1. The demand curve for sea ferry tickets will shift to the right, and their price will go up. More ferry tickets will be sold.

c)
  1. The demand curve for sea ferry tickets will shift to the right and their price will go down. More sea ferry tickets will be sold.

d)
  1. The demand curve for sea ferry tickets will shift to the right and their price will go up. Fewer sea ferry tickets will be sold.

113.

The summer demand for hotel accommodation in London comes mainly from foreign tourists. Demand for hotel rooms in London in summer could be reduced by a fall in the price or value of which of the following?

  1. 1  US dollars

  2. 2  Aeroplane tickets

  3. 3  Sterling

a)

1 only

b)

1 and 2

c)

2 and 3

d)

3 only

114.
  1. ABC produces a variety of soft drink. It has two competitors but all three producers use product differentiation to distinguish themselves from each other. What type of market is this?

a)
  1. Perfect competition

b)
  1. Monopoly

c)
  1. Monopolistic competition

d)
  1.  Oligopoly

115.
  1. Suppose that, in a certain advanced industrialised country, the government has applied price controls over rents of both public and private rented accommodation for a number of years, and a serious problem of widespread homelessness has built up. Just recently, the rent price controls have been eased. Which of the following consequences should now occur?

  1. 1  An increase in homelessness

  2. 2  In the longer term, an increase in new building work

  3. 3  The provision of more rented accommodation

  4. 4  Fewer owner-occupied dwellings

a)
  1. Consequences 1 and 2

b)
  1.  Consequences 2 and 3

c)
  1. Consequences 3 and 4

d)
  1. Consequences 1 and 4

116.

The demand curve for a resource may shift because of

a)
  1. A change in the demand for a good whose production is dependent on the resource

b)
  1. Concerns about potential harmful pollution from the resource

c)
  1. A change in the price of a substitute resource

d)

all of the above

117.

The income elasticity of demand for a product is high. This means that:

a)
  1. Sales will fall only slightly when incomes of households fall

b)
  1. Sales will rise sharply when incomes of households rise

c)
  1. The good is an inferior good

118.

Using the point method, what is the price elasticity of demand of product X as price falls from its current price of $20 to $15?

Price Quantity

Old

price 20 quantity 10

New

price 15 quantity 15

a)

0,5

b)

1

c)

1,5

d)

2

119.
  1. Consumer surplus is:

a)
  1. The excess between what consumers are prepared to pay for a good or service, and the prevailing market price

b)
  1. The indirect tax producers pay on a good or service

c)
  1. The marginal utility gained by consuming one more unit of a good or service

d)
  1. The indirect tax consumers pay on a good or service

120.
  1. Which combination of demand and supply curves would be appropriate for a firm attempting to increase its profits by increasing its market share?

a)
  1. Inelastic demand, inelastic supply

b)
  1. Elastic demand, elastic supply

c)
  1. Inelastic demand, elastic supply

d)
  1. Elastic demand, inelastic supply

121.
  1. If the absolute value of the price elasticity of demand for dry white wine is greater than one, a decrease in the price of all wine would result in:

a)
  1. A more than proportional decrease in the quantity of dry white wine purchased

b)
  1. A less than proportional decrease in the quantity of dry white wine purchased

c)
  1. A less than proportional increase in the quantity of dry white wine purchased

d)
  1. A more than proportional increase in the quantity of dry white wine purchased

122.
  1. Mr Smith has a limited income which restricts the number of different goods he can buy. Which one of the following best describes the position at which Mr Smith's utility from purchasing different goods is maximised?

a)
  1. Marginal utility from each good is equal

b)
  1. Marginal utility from each good is 0

c)
  1. Ratio of marginal utility to price is equal for each good

123.

Which

of the following statements about an organisation chart is not true?

a)
  1. An organisation chart provides a summary of the structure of a business.

b)
  1. An organisation chart can improve internal communications within a business.

c)
  1. An organisation chart can improve employees' understanding of their role in a business.

d)
  1. An organisation chart can indicate functional authority but not line authority within a business

124.

Which

of the following is a correct definition of 'span of control'?

a)
  1. The number of employees subordinate in the hierarchy to a given manager

b)
  1. The number of levels in the hierarchy 'below' a given manager's

c)
  1. The number of employees directly responsible to a manager

125.

Which

of the following terms is not used by Mintzberg in his description of organisational structure?

a)
  1. Strategic apex

b)
  1. Support base

c)
  1. Technostructure

d)
  1. Operating core

126.

Y plc is a growing organisation which has recently diversified into a number of significant new product markets. It has also recently acquired another company in one of its overseas markets.

What would be the most appropriate form of organisation for Y plc?

a)
  1. Geographical departmentation

b)
  1. Divisionalisation

c)
  1.  Functional departmentation

127.

Which

of the following principles of classical management is challenged by matrix management?

a)
  1. Structuring the organisation on functional lines

b)
  1. Structuring the organisation on geographical lines

c)
  1. Unity of command

d)
  1. Decentralisation of decision-making

128.

Which

of the following statements about the informal organisation is not true?

a)
  1. The influence of the informal organisation was highlighted by the Hawthorne Studies, in the way group norms and dynamics affected productivity.

b)
  1. Informal organisation can pose a threat to employee health and safety.

c)
  1. Informal organisation can stimulate innovation.

d)
  1. Managers in positions of authority generally cannot be part of the informal organisation.

129.

Which

one of the following is an advantage of centralisation?

a)
  1. It helps to develop the skills of junior managers

b)
  1. It avoids overburdening top managers in terms of workload and stress

c)
  1.  Senior managers can take a wider view of problems and consequences

130.
  1. Which of the following statements is/are true?

    (i) An informal organisation exists within every formal organisation
    (ii) The objectives of the informal organisation are broadly the same as those of the formal

    organisation
    (iii) A strong, close-knit informal organisation is desirable within the formal organisation

a)
  1. Statement (i) only

b)
  1. Statements (i) and (iii) only

c)
  1. Statements (ii) and (iii) only

d)
  1. Statement (iii) only

131.
  1. What is an organisation which has removed the internal barriers which separate hierarchy levels and functions and also between the organisation and its suppliers, customers and competitors known as?

a)
  1. Modular organisation

b)
  1. Hollow organisation

c)
  1.  Jobless structure

d)
  1. Boundaryless organisation

132.
  1. Which

    of the following statements are true?

  2. i)  With a shared service centre services are likely to be less tailored

  3. (ii)  The IT function is commonly provided using shared service approach

  4. (iii)  A shared service centre is not part of the organisation

a)
  1. Statement (i) and (iii) only

b)
  1.  Statements (i) and (ii) only

c)
  1. Statements (ii) and (iii) only