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Semester Exam Review 8th Grade

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 3hrs 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Air moves in circular patterns called _______ cells.

a)

convection

b)

prison

c)

solar

2.

What are the 2 conditions for hurricanes to form?

a)

cold water and low pressure

b)

warm water and low pressure

c)

warm air and high pressure

d)

cold air and high pressure

3.

What is an explanation for consistent temperatures of the Earth?

a)

Wind and ocean currents help distribute the sun's energy.

b)

Rotation causes even distribution.

c)

The different season's distribute the temperatures evenly.

d)

Winds moving from West to East distribute temperatures evenly.

4.

Which area of the world do most hurricanes form?

a)

The North Pole

b)

The Equator

c)

The South Pole

d)

The Tropic of Cancer

5.

What conditions will decrease the strength of a hurricane?

a)

High pressure

b)

Land

c)

Cold water

d)

All of the above

6.

High pressure systems have what type of weather?

a)

Cloudy skies

b)

Rainy

c)

Clear and Sunny skies

d)

thunderstorms

7.

Low pressure systems typically have what type of weather?

a)

Clear and sunny skies.

b)

Cloudy with a chance of meatballs.

c)

Cloudy rainy skies with very humid air.

d)

low humidity.

8.

More dense air, sunny clear skies and clockwise direction

a)

Low Pressure

b)

Warm Front

c)

High Pressure

d)

Cold Front

9.

Less dense air, cloudy rainy skies, counter-clockwise direction

a)

Low pressure

b)

Warm Front

c)

High Pressure

d)

Cold Front

10.

Ocean currents affect weather patterns by -

a)

regulating when tides occur in coastal areas

b)

trapping heat at the equator to regulate the global climate

c)

distributing heat from the uneven absorption of solar energy

d)

increasing the rate of evaporation to transport water to areas experiencing droughts

11.
A high pressure system is located north of New York City. What type of weather will be experienced there?
a)
clear, sunny skies
b)
cloudy and rainy
12.

Why would St. Louis have the possibility of having thunderstorms in the next 24 hours?

a)

It is in a high-pressure area

b)

A cold front and low pressure are approaching

c)

It is not located near an ocean

d)

It recently experienced a warm front

13.

What would be true if the rabbit population increased?

a)

The bacteria population will decrease

b)

The hawk population would increase

c)

There may be increases in wolves, hawks, and snakes.

d)

Grasshopper populations would increase

14.

What could be changed about the food web to make it more accurate?

a)

Remove bacteria because they are not in the forest

b)

Change arrows to go in opposite direction

c)

Show arrows going from all organisms to fungi and bacteria

d)

Draw arrows from the Sun to all organisms

15.

Prairie dogs live in complex tunnels underground and compete with other herbivores in the ecosystem. Which is the abiotic factor in this situation?

a)

Prairie dogs

b)

Underground habitat

c)

Other herbivores

d)

Grasses

16.

Which abiotic factor(s) do plants compete for in order to make their own food?

a)

water ONLY

b)

sunlight ONLY

c)

wind ONLY

d)

water AND sunlight

17.

Which is NOT an example of an abiotic factor?

a)

Sunlight

b)

Wind

c)

Fungi

d)

Water from a stream

18.

Which is a true statement?

a)

Biotic factors only rely on abiotic factors to survive.

b)

Abiotic factors include all living things in the ecosystem.

c)

Abiotic factors include sun, water, and plants.

d)

Biotic and abiotic factors are both necessary for a sustainable ecosystem.

19.

Which is the most likely outcome to the organisms in an ecosystem near the site of a nuclear disaster?

a)

Organisms could develop mutations in their DNA

b)

Animals will move to another location

c)

All animals will become extinct

d)

Animals will be impacted but plants will not

20.

What is the most likely adaptation for a rabbit population which once lived in the snow but now lives in shrubs and rocks due to increased global temperatures?

a)

They will see an increase in fur production

b)

They will become better swimmers

c)

They will grow longer ears

d)

Their coats will be darker

21.

Controlled forest fires are often used to clean up the underbrush of an ecosystem to promote a healthier ecosystem. How would they impact the organisms in the ecosystem?

a)

Organisms may have to temporarily move

b)

All organisms will die in the fire

c)

Only plants and trees will be impacted

d)

All organisms will increase in population in the first month after the fire

22.

How are phytoplankton similar to small trees?

a)

Both grow in soil

b)

Both conduct photosynthesis

c)

Both are about the same size

d)

Both are at the top of the food chain

23.

Which is MOST likely to happen if a large number of phytoplankton are killed from runoff entering the ocean?

a)

The number of zooplankton would increase

b)

The number of salmon would probably decrease

c)

The number of porpoises would probably stay the same

d)

The Sun would probably not emit as much energy

24.

Which is MOST likely to happen if a large number of phytoplankton are killed from runoff entering the ocean?

a)

The number of zooplankton would increase

b)

The number of salmon would probably decrease

c)

The number of porpoises would probably stay the same

d)

The Sun would probably not emit as much energy

25.

What conclusion could you make based on the graph?

a)

Nitrogen is NOT a problem in the Gulf of Mexico

b)

Corn and soybeans are the only sources of Nitrogen pollution

c)

Most nitrogen pollution found in the Gulf comes from farming crops.

d)

Nitrogen that comes from the atmosphere is most harmful.

26.

Which relationship is true according to the food web?

a)

Phytoplankton prey on crayfish

b)

Flamingos are predators of crayfish

c)

Shrimp get nutrients from zooplankton

d)

Shrimp have three predators.

27.

Trees grow taller to compete for -

a)

soil

b)

air

c)

sunlight

d)

good temperature range

28.

The diagram shows Earth in its orbit around the sun when very little light is visible at Earth's South Pole. Which statement is true when Earth is in the position shown?

a)

It is August in the northern hemisphere. It is April in the southern hemisphere.

b)

It is summer in the northern hemisphere. It is winter in the southern hemisphere.

c)

The number of hours of daylight is greater in the Southern Hemisphere than in the Northern Hemisphere.

d)

Spring begins earlier in the year in the Southern hemisphere than it does in the Northern hemisphere.

29.

Students make a model using a globe and a flashlight. Which answer choice best explains the change from daytime to nighttime on Earth?

a)

The Sun stops sending light to Earth at night.

b)

Earth moves farther away from the Sun at night.

c)

The tilt of the Earth causes less light to reach the Earth at night.

d)

Earth rotates and causes different parts of the Earth to experience night.

30.

Which diagram models a hypothetical situation in which every location on Earth would have 12 hours of daylight and 12 hours of darkness per day?

a)
b)
c)
d)
31.

The beginning of autumn in North American is in September, but the beginning of autumn in South America is in March. The diagram shows a picture of the Earth, the sun, and the moon on one day in September and another in March. Why does autumn start in different months of the year in North America and South America?

a)

Earth's orbit around the sun is not a perfect circle.

b)

North America has a larger landmass than South America.

c)

The moon has a greater pull on South America than North America.

d)

Earth's axis has a 23.5 degree tilt.

32.

Students in a science class in Marfa, Texas, made a poster with a diagram to represent seasonal change in the Northern hemisphere. Which statement best describes conditions for Earth at position 1 in the diagram?

a)

There are an equal number of hours of daylight and nighttime in the Northern hemisphere, and the north pole is tilted away from the Sun.

b)

The Northern hemisphere has the fewest hours of daylight, and the Earth's axis does not tilt at this position.

c)

There are an equal number of daylight and nighttime hours in this position because the Earth is not tilted in this position.

d)

The Northern hemisphere has the fewest hours of daylight, and the north pole is tilted away from the Sun.

33.

Which of these changes would likely occur if the rate of Earth's rotation on its axis increased?

a)

The length of the seasons would be longer.

b)

The length of the seasons would be shorter.

c)

The length of a day would be shorter.

d)

The length of a day would be longer.

34.

The model shows Earth is several positions relative to the sun. In which position is it winter in North America?

a)

Position 1, because North America receives the most sun.

b)

Position 2, because North America is tilted toward the sun.

c)

Position 3, because North America is parallel to the sun.

d)

Position 4, because North America is tilted away from the sun.

35.

A student wants to use a spinning basketball to model the day-and-night cycle on Earth. What should the student do in order to best model the cause of the day-and-night cycle?

a)

Spin the ball in different directions

b)

Tilt the ball while it is spinning

c)

Paint one half of the ball black and the other half white

d)

Shine a bright light on the side of the ball

36.

In the summer many people enjoy going to the beach. The photograph shows a beach in Argentina, which is located in the Southern Hemisphere. Which diagram shows the position of Earth when it is summer in Argentina?

a)
b)
c)
d)
37.

A student draws the model shown below. Which of these best compares the conditions at Location X and Location Y?

a)

It is day at Location X and night at Location Y

b)

It is winter at Location X and summer at Location Y

c)

There are more hours of daylight at Location X than at Location Y

d)

The moon is brighter when viewed from Location X than when viewed from Location Y

38.

The diagram below shows four positions in Earth's orbit around the sun. The Northern hemisphere experiences the beginning of spring when Earth is in-

a)

Position 1

b)

Position 2

c)

Position 3

d)

Position 4

39.

Which of these locations on Earth experiences the least change in the number of daylight hours throughout the year?

a)

Equator

b)

North Pole

c)

Tropic of Cancer

d)

Tropic of Capricorn

40.

Earth would not have seasons if it-

a)

no longer tilted on its axis

b)

stopped rotating on its axis

c)

took an additional month to orbit the sun

d)

revolved around the sun in the opposite direction

41.

What moon phase will be observed after the waning crescent?

a)
b)
c)
d)
42.
What is it called when more than half of the moon is lit on the right side and light is increasing?
a)
Waxing cresent
b)
Waxing gibbous
c)
Waning gibbous
d)
Waning cresent
43.
Does this picture represent a waxing or waning moon?
a)
waxing
b)
waning
44.
What is this phase?
a)
Waxing Crescent
b)
Waxing Gibbous
c)
Waning Crescent
d)
First Quarter
45.
What will be the moon phase 7 nights later?
a)
F
b)
G
c)
H
d)
J
46.
If there is a full moon on March 2, when would you expect the Third Quarter?
a)
March 5
b)
March 9
c)
March 16
d)
March 23
47.
If a New Moon occurred on April 1st, when would the moon be at position seven?
a)
in one week
b)
in two weeks
c)
in three weeks
d)
in four weeks
48.
If today was a full moon, what would be the moon phase in one week?
a)
New Moon
b)
First Quarter
c)
Third Quarter
d)
Full Moon
49.
If the current moon phase is at position 2, where would it be in two weeks?
a)
full moon
b)
waning gibbous
c)
third quarter
d)
back to position 2
50.
If we are in a full moon phase right now, what phase can we expect to be in a week from now?
a)
Waxing Crescent
b)
3rd Quarter
c)
New Moon
d)
Waning Crescent 
51.
What are most likely the dates of the full moons? (Hint:  2 weeks from new moon to full moon.)
a)
February 5, March 7, April 5, May 4
b)
February 15, March 17, April 15, May 14
c)
February 25, March 27, April 25, May 24
d)
February 29, March 31, April 29, May 28
52.
What moon phase is shown in position 8
a)
waxing crescent
b)
waxing gibbous
c)
waning gibbous
d)
waning crescent
53.

Where would the Sun need to be in this diagram to cause these phases of the moon?

a)

At the Bottom

b)

At the Left

c)

At the Top

d)

At The Right

54.

What phase occurs on the designated part of the graph?

a)

Waxing Crescent

b)

Waxing Gibbous

c)

Waning Crescent

d)

Waning Gibbous

55.

What phase occurs on the 28th of the month?

a)

Waxing Gibbous

b)

1st Quarter

c)

3rd Quarter

d)

Waning Gibbous

56.

Name the phase that the selected images represent.

a)

Waxing Gibbous

b)

Waxing Crescent

c)

1st Quarter

d)

3rd Quarter

57.

What phase would come 2 weeks after this one?

a)

Third Quarter

b)

Full Moon

c)

New Moon

d)

First Quarter

58.

What phase occurs on the designated part of this graph?

a)

New Moon

b)

Full Moon

c)

Waning Crescent

d)

Waxing Crescent

59.
Which lunar phase is occurring at Q
a)
Waning gibbous
b)
Waxing gibbous
c)
New moon
d)
Full moon
60.
Which lunar phase will complete the pattern?
a)
Last quarter
b)
New moon
c)
Full moon
d)
Waxing gibbous
61.
What phase is this?
a)
Waning Gibbous Moon
b)
Waxing Gibbous Moon
c)
Waning Crescent Moon
d)
Waxing Crescent Moon
62.

What will the phase of the moon be in the diagram?

a)

new moon

b)

waning gibbous

c)

first quarter

d)

full moon

63.

What phase of the moon is shown in the picture?

a)

first quarter

b)

new moon

c)

full moon

d)

last quarter

64.

Use the calendar to predict the moon phase on March 30th.

a)

New Moon

b)

Full Moon

c)

Third Quarter

d)

First Quarter

65.

Use the calendar to predict the moon phase on March 9th.

a)

New Moon

b)

Full Moon

c)

Third Quarter

d)

First Quarter

66.
How many low tides and high tides happen in a day?
a)
1 low tide, 1 high tide
b)
4 low tides, 4 high tides
c)
3 low tides, 3 high tides
d)
2 low tides, 2 high tides
67.
You visited the beach at 12 pm (noon) and it is high tide. If you return 6 hours later what tide will you see? 
a)
high 
b)
low 
c)
none
d)
spring 
68.
A[n] ______________ tide occurs when the sun is at right angles to the line between Earth and the moon. 
a)
high
b)
neap
c)
low
d)
spring
69.
Differences in the moon's and sun's pull on different sides of the Earth cause _________.
a)
gravity
b)
lunar phases
c)
tides
d)
dabbing
70.
A[n] ___________ tide occurs when the sun, Earth, and the moon are nearly in a line. 
a)
spring
b)
high
c)
low
d)
neap
71.
The bulge of water on the side of the Earth closest to the moon produces ___________.
a)
high tide
b)
low tide
c)
neap tide
d)
spring tide
72.
A neap tide is a tide with the greatest difference between low and high tides
a)
true
b)
false
73.
Neap tides occur once a month. 
a)
True
b)
False
74.
The diagram below shows the alignment of the sun, the moon, and Earth. In which locations are neap tides taking place?
a)
1 and 2
b)
1 and 3
c)
2 and 4
d)
3 and 4
75.
If the Sun, Earth, and Moon are in perfect alignment, the Earth would have a _______ tide.
a)
Spring
b)
Neap
c)
Normal
76.
If the Sun, Earth, and Moon create a 90 degree angle, the Earth would have __________.
a)
Spring tides
b)
Neap tides
c)
Normal tides
77.
The bulge of water on the side of the Earth closest to the moon produces ___________.
a)
high tide
b)
low tide
c)
neap tide
d)
spring tide
78.
Which body has the greater effect on Earth's tides?
a)
Sun
b)
Saturn
c)
Moon 
d)
Venus
79.

Wha type of tide would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?

a)

full moon tide

b)

new moon tide

c)

neap tide

d)

spring tide

80.
What type of tides would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?
a)
neap tide
b)
spring tide
c)
new moon tide
d)
full moon tide
81.
A new moon results in a ____ Tide
a)
Neap
b)
Spring
c)
Neither
82.
A full moon results in a ____ Tide
a)
Neap
b)
Spring
c)
Neither
83.
a)

Area M

b)

Area X

c)

Area P

d)

Area Z

84.

The universe has many different components. Which list places four components of the universe in the most likely order from smallest to largest?

a)

Planets, Stars, Galaxies, Nebulae

b)

Nebulae, Stars, Planets, Galaxies

c)

Galaxies, stars, planets, nebulae

d)

Planets, stars, nebulae, galaxies

85.

The Milky way galaxy is described as a disk of stars orbiting a central point on the disk. Which of these best explains why people on Earth cannot see the entire shape of the Milky way?

a)

Earth is a part of this galaxy

b)

Many more stars exist outside of the galaxy

c)

The stars in the center of the galaxy are extremely small

d)

The center of the galaxy consists of a dense cluster of stars

86.
a)

Barnard's star is less bright than the sun, has a surface temperature below 3,800 K , and is red.

b)

Barnard's star is less bright than the sun, has a surface temperature above 3,800 K and is red.

c)

Barnard's Star is brighter than the sun, has a surface temperature below 5,300 K and is yellow.

d)

Barnard's Star is brighter than the sun, has a surface temperature above 5,300 K, and is yellow.

87.
a)

Deneb is a supergiant star

b)

Deneb is a giant star

c)

Deneb is a white dwarf

d)

Deneb is located in the main sequence.

88.
a)

Betelgeuse is hotter than Spica

b)

Betelgeuse is cooler than Spica

c)

Spica and Betelgeuse is the same temperature

89.
a)

Polaris is dimmer than the sun

b)

Polaris is brighter than the sun

c)

Polaris and the sun have the same luminosity

90.

What kind of galaxy is the Milky Way?

a)

Spiral

b)

Irregular

c)

Elliptical

91.
a)

It is a low-mass red dwarf.

b)

It is a low-mass supergiant.

c)

It is a high-mass giant star

d)

It is a high-mass white dwarf

92.
a)

Main-Sequence Stars

b)

Giants

c)

White dwarfs

d)

Supergiants

93.
a)

microwaves

b)

visible light

c)

x-rays

d)

gamma rays

94.
a)

a main-sequence star in spectral class B

b)

a supergiant in spectral class K

c)

a main-sequence star in spectral class K or M

d)

a White dwarf in spectral class B

95.

There are four groups of stars on the HR Diagram. About 90% of all stars are in the ________.

a)

Supergiants

b)

Giants

c)

White dwarfs

d)

Main sequence

96.

Based on the data, which star would you presume would have the greatest mass? Hint: The larger the apparent brightness, the brighter the star appears.

a)

Star X

b)

Star Y

c)

Star Z

97.

How can you rearrange the words to match the diagram correctly in terms of sizes in space?

a)

Solar systems in the largest circle, then galaxies, followed by the universe in the smallest circle.

b)

Universe in the largest circle, then galaxies, followed by the solar systems in the smallest circle.

c)

Galaxies in the largest circle, then universe, followed by the solar systems in the smallest circle.

d)

The diagram is already correct.

98.

Analyze this HR Diagram. Which group of stars is considered to have a lower than average luminosity as well as a higher than average temperature?

a)

Giants

b)

Main Sequence

c)

White Dwarfs

d)

Supergiants

99.

Analyze this HR Diagram. Which group of stars is considered to have a higher than average luminosity as well as a lower than average temperature?

a)

Giants

b)

Main Sequence

c)

White Dwarfs

d)

Supergiants

100.

A collection of dust and gas where stars can form is called a...

a)

universe

b)

nebula

c)

black hole

d)

supernova

101.

Our sun is located near the edge of a ______ galaxy, named the _______.

a)

Spiral shaped; Milky Way

b)

Spiral shaped; Solar System

c)

Elliptical shaped; Milky Way

d)

Elliptical shaped; Solar System

102.

Stars are classified on the HR Diagram by...

a)

luminosity and brightness.

b)

temperature and absolute magnitude (or luminosity).

c)

temperature and apparent magnitude.

d)

temperature and distance.

103.

Stars radiate thermal energy through space by a process called _____ where the element _____ is converted into helium.

a)

nuclear fusion; hydrogen

b)

nuclear fusion; lithium

c)

nuclear transfer; hydrogen

d)

nuclear transfer; boron

104.

Which of the following best describes the sun's position in the Milky Way galaxy?

a)

The sun is a giant yellow star located close to the galactic core.

b)

The sun is a medium yellow star located approximately 2/3 of the way down one of the galaxy's spiral arms.

c)

The sun is a dwarf star located at the end of one of the spiral arms.

d)

The sun is a medium yellow star located one light year from the galactic core.

105.
a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

106.
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
107.
a)
F
b)
G
c)
H
d)
J
108.
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
109.
a)
F
b)
G
c)
H
d)
J
110.
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
111.
Which of these best describes what is happening at Location 6?
F Oceanic plate is being created.
G Continent is being destroyed.
H Island is forming.
J Oceanic crust is being destroyed.
a)
F
b)
G
c)
H
d)
J
112.
The diagram shows a lab setup designed to model convection currents in Earth’s mantle. The Earth process modeled in this investigation is most likely to cause —
A beach erosion
B island arcs
C formation of new ocean floor
D small mountains with frequent earthquakes
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
113.
The asthenosphere has the property of plasticity, which allows the solid mantle to move like a liquid.Which of the following explains how the crust moves in different directions?
F Radiation
G Convection currents
H Geothermal
J Conduction
a)
F
b)
G
c)
H
d)
J
114.
The diagram shows how the ocean floor is spreading. The new ocean floor made of molten rock is being formed at a mid-ocean ridge. Which best describes where the molten rock comes from?
A The crust
B Volcanoes under the ocean floor
C Masses of land to either side of the ocean
D The mantle just beneath Earth’s crust
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
115.
Many scientists believe that convection currents in the asthenosphere between South America and Africa caused the separation of the two continents and the formation of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge. Which diagram best represents the convection currents in the plate tectonic theory?
a)
F
b)
G
c)
H
d)
J
116.
The lithosphere is Earth’s crust plus the rigid upper part of Earth’s mantle. The map shows plates of the lithosphere. What does the map tell you about the plates?
A The plates are all moving in the same direction.
B The plates are all the same size.
C Plates and continents are different.
D Where two plates meet, they always move apart.
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
117.
What land feature is likely to occur between the South American Plate and the African Plate?
F Mountain
G Trench
H Subduction zone
J Mid-ocean ridge
a)
F
b)
G
c)
H
d)
J
118.
What type of boundary is located between the Nazca Plate and the South American Plate?
A Convergent
B Divergent
C Transform
D Emergent
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
119.
Newton’s laws of motion apply to everyday life in a variety of ways. Which one of the followingstatements does not demonstrate Newton’s laws of motion as they relate to plate tectonics?
F Plates resist change as in Newton’s law of inertia.
G The greater the force, the greater rate of acceleration as in Newton’s law of acceleration.
H Volcanoes form from cooled magma as in Newton’s law of acceleration.
J Plates exert a force on each other in opposite directions as in Newton’s law of action-reaction.
a)
F
b)
G
c)
H
d)
J
120.

The theory that continents were once connected but have drifted apart.

a)

Continental Drift

b)

Plate Tectonics

c)

Pangaea

d)

wingardium leviosa

121.

Who was the German scientist that used fossil evidence and the shape of continents to support his hypothesis for Continental Drift?

a)

Alfred Wegener

b)

Harry Hess

122.

Which of the following was NOT an evidence that Wegener used to support Continental Drift?

a)

Shape of Continents

b)

Geologic evidence

c)

Fossil evidence

d)

Convection currents

123.

How did Wegener explain that fossils of the same land dwelling reptile appeared on the coastlines of two distant continents?

a)

The continents were once joined together. As they separated, they took the dinosaur fossils with them.

b)

The dinosaurs evolved independently on multiple continents.

c)

The land reptile walked across land bridges that stretched across the Atlantic ocean.

d)

The land reptile swam across the Atlantic ocean.

124.

What is the name of the supercontinent that Wegener theorized existed 250 million years ago?

a)

Pangaea

b)

Titan

c)

Cambria

d)

The OASIS

125.

What was the name of the Navy officer that was one of the "founding fathers" of the unifying theory of plate tectonics?

a)

Harry Hess

b)

Alfred Wegener

126.

One of the largest mountain ranges in the world is at the bottom of the ocean. It is an example of a -

a)

mid-ocean ridge

b)

rift valley

c)

trench

d)

volcanic island chain

127.

The process in which a denser plate is pushed beneath a less dense plate when the two plates converge.

a)

subduction

b)

polarity reversal

c)

convection

d)

seafloor spreading

128.

Which one of the following was NOT a reason that Hess used to support his theory of plate tectonics?

a)

Rugged topography of ocean floor

b)

Seafloor spreading and subduction

c)

Symmetrical pattern of polarity stripes

d)

Climate change

129.

Why are there no fossils on the ocean floor that are more than 300 million years old?

a)

Seafloor spreading and subduction

b)

Reversal of polarity

c)

Climate change

d)

Oil companies drilling for petroleum

130.

Which type of crust is the MOST dense?

a)

Oceanic

b)

Continental

c)

They always have the same density.

131.

Which type of crust is the LEAST dense?

a)

Oceanic

b)

Continental

c)

They always have the same density.

132.

By mapping the locations of earthquakes and volcanoes, scientists have been able to -

a)

locate the boundaries of Earth’s tectonic plates

b)

determine where NOT to build cities

c)

understand why tectonic plates move

d)

understand climate change

133.

Cool, rigid, outermost layer of Earth that is divided into enormous pieces called tectonic plates; consists of the crust and the rigid uppermost part of the mantle.

a)

Lithosphere

b)

Asthenosphere

c)

Mantle

d)

Atmosphere

134.

The solid layer with plasticity in the upper mantle; tectonic plates “float” and move on this layer.

a)

Asthenosphere

b)

Lithospere

c)

Mantle

d)

Crust

135.

A cyclical motion occurs because of density differences in the mantle. Heated, less dense lower regions of the fluid mantle rise, and denser, cooler regions sink due to gravity. The combined motions serve as the engine for crustal plate movement.

a)

convection currents

b)

subduction

c)

density circles

d)

seafloor spreading

136.

Which of the following is not a type of tectonic plate boundary?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

d)

Volcanic Ridge

137.

Plates move apart from each other at which type of boundary?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

138.

Plates move toward each other at which type of boundary?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

139.

Plates slide horizontally or vertically past each other in opposite directions at which type of boundary?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

140.

When continental plates are involved, what type of boundary creates large mountain chains, such as the Himalayas?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

141.

What type of boundary creates deep ocean trenches and volcanoes?

a)

Convergent - oceanic and continental

b)

Divergent - oceanic and oceanic

c)

Transform - continental and continental

d)

Convergent - continental and continental

142.

What process provides the magma for volcanoes?

a)

subduction

b)

mountain building

c)

ocean tides

d)

erosion

143.

Which two types of crustal features can be created at a divergent boundary?

a)

Mid-ocean ridges

b)

Rift valleys

c)

Trenches

d)

Ocean shorelines

e)

Islands

144.

Seafloor spreading starts at a mid-ocean ridge where magma rises between two plates and creates igneous rocks. Where would the oldest oceanic crust be located?

a)

At the center of the mid-ocean ridge

b)

Near the mid-ocean ridge, but not in the center

c)

Near a trench

d)

Halfway between the trench and the mid-ocean ridge

145.

What is occuring at point A?

a)

subduction

b)

convection

c)

divergence

d)

new crust formation

146.

What feature is at point A?

a)

Mid-ocean ridge

b)

Trench

c)

Rift valley

d)

Seafloor spreading

147.

What process is occuring at point B?

a)

Mid-ocean ridge

b)

Trench

c)

Rift valley

d)

Seafloor spreading

148.

What feature is at point C?

a)

Mid-ocean ridge

b)

Trench

c)

Rift valley

d)

Seafloor spreading

149.

What happens at a mid-ocean ridge?

a)

plates move apart and create new crust

b)

plates move together and destroy old crust

c)

plate move horizontally in opposite directions

d)

one plate subducts and forces the second plate up, thereby creating vast underwater mountain ranges

150.

Seafloor spreading starts at a mid-ocean ridge where magma rises between two plates and creates igneous rocks. Where would the youngest oceanic crust be located?

a)

At the center of the mid-ocean ridge

b)

Near the mid-ocean ridge, but not in the center

c)

Near a trench

d)

Halfway between the trench and the mid-ocean ridge