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Biology OL Midterm Review

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following biomolecules typically contains both nitrogen and phosphate?

a)

Lipid

b)

Protein

c)

Nucleic Acid

d)

Carbohydrate

2.

Carbohydrates are more easily metabolized than lipids. However, on a gram-for-gram basis lipids provide cells with more…

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Proteins

c)

Structure

d)

Energy

3.

Smaller units called ------------- join together to form polymers.

a)

Biomolecules

b)

Macromolecules

c)

Inorganic compounds

d)

Monomers

4.

----------------------- is the MAIN source of energy for cells.

a)

Proteins

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Lipids

d)

Nucleic Acids

5.

Starch is a -----------------; it contains many sugar molecules.

a)

Monosaccharide

b)

Disaccharide

c)

Polysaccharide

d)

Protein

6.

----------------- contain monomers joined by peptide bonds.

a)

Protein

b)

Lipids

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleic Acid

7.

The chemical formula for glucose is

a)

C6H12O8

b)

C8H6O8

c)

C12H6O6

d)

C6H12O6

8.

The different forms of a gene (brown eyes, blue eyes, green eyes) are called _________.

a)

alleles

b)

factors

c)

chromosomes

d)

chromatids

9.

------------------------------------- store and transmit genetic information.

a)

Nucleic Acid

b)

Protein

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Lipids

10.

This represents what molecule?

a)

Polymer

b)

Amino Acid

c)

Nucleotide

d)

Glucose

11.

Phospholipids

a)

contain elements C, H, O

b)

Make up the cell membrane

c)

20 different kinds

d)

mades from nucleotides

12.

Lipids

a)

make up cell membrane

b)

20 different kinds

c)

made from nucleotides

d)

monomer = fatty acids

13.

Nucleic acids

a)

make up cell membrane

b)

20 different kinds

c)

made from nucleotides

d)

monomer = fatty acids

14.

carbohydrates

a)

contain elements C, H, O

b)

1:2:1 ratio of elements

c)

main source of energy for cells

d)

all of the above

15.

Amino Acids

a)

20 different kinds

b)

building blocks of proteins

c)

joined by peptide bonds to make proteins

d)

all of the above

16.

which is not part of cell theory?

a)

all living things composed of cells

b)

cells are the basic unit of living things

c)

cells are produced from existing cells

d)

cells are either prokaryotes or eukaryotes

17.

nucleus

a)

contains genetic matter

b)

storage sacs

c)

used for digestion and waste removal

d)

produce proteins

18.

ribosomes

a)

make proteins

b)

stores genetic information

c)

are used for digestion and waste removal

d)

storage sacs for water, salt, etc

19.

endoplasmic reticulum

a)

contains genetic information

b)

may or may not contain ribosomes

c)

makes proteins

d)

storage sacs for water

20.

lysosomes

a)

contain genetic matter

b)

storages sacs for water, etc.

c)

used for digestion and waste removal

d)

produce proteins

21.

vacuoles

a)

contain genetic matter

b)

storage sac for water, salt, etc.

c)

used for digestion and waste removal

d)

produce proteins

22.

The movement of any particle from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is:

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Passive transport

d)

Active transport

23.

"cell eating"

a)

exocytosis

b)

active transport

c)

phagocytosis

d)

passive transport

24.

movement across the cell membrane requiring no energy

a)

exocytosis

b)

active transport

c)

phagocytosis

d)

passive transport

25.

requires energy from cell to move particles against concentration gradient

a)

exocytosis

b)

active transport

c)

phagocytosis

d)

passive transport

26.

cell used to expel wastes

a)

exocytosis

b)

active transport

c)

phagocytosis

d)

passive transport

27.
a)

Eukaryote

b)

Prokaryote

28.
a)

Eukaryote

b)

Prokaryote

29.

The movement of WATER across a membrane is _______.

a)

Osmosis

b)

Diffusion

c)

Hypertonic

d)

Isotonic

30.

The cell is in an environment that is

a)

hypotonic

b)

hypertonic

c)

isotonic

d)

can't be determined

31.

What is the complete formula for photosynthesis?

a)

C6H1206 + 602 + light --> 6C02 + 6H2O

b)

6C02 + 6H20 + light --> C6H1206 + 602

c)

C6H1206 + 602 --> 6C02 + 6H2O +ATP

d)

6C02 + 6H20 --> C6H1206 + 602 +ATP

32.

______ is required by organisms for building, repairing, growing and reproducing.

a)

E. Lactic Acid

b)

A. Chlorophyll

c)

C. CO2

d)

D. Fermentation

e)

B. Energy

33.

The main pigment used to absorb the sun's energy is called ______.

a)

A. Chlorophyll

b)

B. Energy

c)

C. CO2

d)

D. Fermentation

e)

E. Lactic Acid

34.

The stacks of thylakoids found inside a chloroplast are called ______.

a)

C. CO2

b)

AB. Grana

c)

D. Fermentation

d)

B. Energy

e)

A. Chlorophyll

35.

________ is the process where cells release energy in the absence of oxygen.

a)

A. Chlorophyll

b)

D. Fermentation

c)

C. CO2

d)

B. Energy

e)

E. Lactic Acid

36.

A product of respiration and fermentation in the form of a gas is called _______.

a)

E. Lactic Acid

b)

D. Fermentation

c)

B. Energy

d)

A. Chlorophyll

e)

C. CO2

37.

Humans get sore muscles after vigorous exercise because ________ builds up in the muscles.

a)

D. Fermentation

b)

B. Energy

c)

A. Chlorophyll

d)

E. Lactic Acid

e)

C. CO2

38.

During respiration:

a)

light energy breaks apart the atoms of the reactants

b)

oxygen produced in the burning of food must be released

c)

glucose is not exposed to oxygen

d)

carbon dioxide and water are made

39.

In order to release stored energy from respiration:

a)

a phosphate group must be added to ADP

b)

a phosphate group must be broken off from an ATP

c)

a phosphate group must be added to an ATP

d)

a phosphate group must be broken off of ADP

40.

Autotrophs go through the process of _____ to make their own food.

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Cellular Respiration

c)

Alcoholic fermentation

d)

Lactic acid fermentation

41.

Where in the cell does cellular respiration take place?

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Rough ER

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

42.

Anaerobic means _______.

a)

With oxygen

b)

Without oxygen

c)

With energy

d)

Without energy

43.

Enzymes are proteins that help increase the rate of chemical reactions inside cells. These proteins are composed of many simpler molecules called amino acids. Which of the following suggests that the shape of an enzyme determines the enzyme's function?

a)

Enzymes are specific to a substrate.

b)

Enzymes can operate in a wide range of conditions.

c)

Enzymes are activated by neighboring molecules.

d)

Enzymes can be found in all life-forms.

44.

What things can denature an enzyme?

a)

High temperatures and acids/bases

b)

High temperatures only

c)

High temperatures and substrates

d)

Substrates only

45.

How do enzymes speed up chemical reactions?

a)

By increasing the activation energy

b)

By lowering the activation energy

c)

By acting on many different types of substrates

d)

By increasing the number of active sites

46.

What do plants do with the glucose they make?

a)

Use some for cellular respiration

b)

Store some as starch to provide energy later

c)

Build cell walls of cellulose

d)

All of the above

47.

When mRNA is used to make a protein, the process is called:

a)

Replication

b)

Translation

c)

Manipulation

d)

Transcription

48.

A strand of mRNA containing the sequence AAG CGC AAG CGC could code for which of the following amino acids?

a)

Lys-arg-glu-lys

b)

Ser-ser-glu-glu

c)

Lys-arg-lys-arg

d)

Lys-met-lys-glu

49.

What is the corresponding mRNA sequence for the following DNA strand: TAC-GGC-ATA-GCA-TTT-CAC-TAA

a)

ATG-CCG-TAT-CGT-AAA-GTG-ATT

b)

AUG-CCG-UAU-CGU-AAA-GUG-AUU

c)

UAC-GGC-AUA-GCA-UUU-CAC-UAA

d)

ATG-CCG-TAT-CGT-AAA-GTG-TAA

50.

If one nucleotide is omitted in DNA, which of the following has happened?

a)

deletion

b)

substitution

c)

insertion

d)

segregation

51.

The molecule that delivers amino acids to the ribosomes is ________.

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

DNA

d)

rRNA

52.

How many codons does the following strand of mRNA contain? AUG UAG CCG AUU


a)

1

b)

4

c)

8

d)

12

53.

A model of a DNA molecule is shown below. The arrow indicates:

a)

The bond between adjacent phosphate and deoxyribose molecules.

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Hydrogen bonds between complementary nucleotides.

d)

The junction of a codon and a DNA triplet.

54.

Adding or deleting a nitrogen base from a DNA sequence may result in ______?

a)

Insertion

b)

Deletion

c)

Substitution

d)

Frame shift

55.

Which part of a DNA molecule is responsible for the direct coding of specific traits in an organism?

a)

The number of hydrogen bonds that hold the strands of DNA together.

b)

The number of carbons in the DNA molecule.

c)

The sequence of nucleotide bases in the DNA molecule.

d)

The sequences of phosphates along each DNA strand.

56.

At birth Himalayan rabbits are usually white over their entire bodies. But when parts of their bodies reach temperatures below 35C, a pigment that causes these parts to turn black is produced. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this phenomenon?

a)

Poor blood circulation

b)

Infection caused by cold temperatures

c)

Gene expression that is regulated by temperature.

d)

A trait that is both sex-linked and hormone-dependent

57.

What is the molecule to the right, and what are the numbered parts?

a)

Amino acid; 1= phosphate, 2= glucose, 3= nitrogen base

b)

Nucleotide; 1= phosphate, 2= glucose, 3= nitrogen base

c)

Amino acid; 1= phosphate, 2= deoxyribose, 3= nitrogen base

d)

Nucleotide; 1= phosphate, 2= deoxyribose, 3= nitrogen base

58.

There are ___ strands in DNA and ___ strands in RNA

a)

1, 2

b)

2, 1

c)

1, 1

d)

2, 2

59.

The sugar in DNA is _______ and the sugar in RNA is _____.

a)

ribose, deoxyribose

b)

deoxyribose, ribose

c)

ribose, ribose

d)

deoxyribose, deoxyribose

60.

DNA contains bases _____ and RNA contains bases _____.

a)

ATCG,

AUCG

b)

AUCG,

ATCG

c)

AT,

CG

d)

AU,

CG

61.

The shape of DNA is called a _____, and the sides are made of ______.

a)

twisted ladder, nitrogen bases

b)

double helix, nitrogen bases

c)

twisted ladder, sugars and phosphates

d)

double helix, sugars and phosphates

62.

What is RNA polymerase and what does it do?

a)

enzymes, makes protein

b)

enzymes, makes mRNA

c)

nucleic acid, makes protein

d)

nucleic acid, makes mRNA

63.

What is the name of the molecule that transports the amino acid to the corresponding codon?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

siRNA

64.

Which nucleic acid is fed through a ribosome and read codon by codon

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

siRNA

65.

The model represent the change in the DNA content of a cell during the cell cycle. Which part represents S phase?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

66.

There are ____ total chromosomes in a human sex cell (gamete)

a)

2

b)

23

c)

46

d)

36

67.

Spindle fibers

a)

connect sister chromatids

b)

uncontrolled cell division

c)

structure that helps separate chromosomes

d)

process of separating a cell into two daughter cells

68.

cytokinesis

a)

control sister chromatids

b)

uncontrolled cell division

c)

structure that help separates chromosomes

d)

process of separating a cell into two daughter cells

69.

centromere

a)

connects sister chromatids

b)

uncontrolled cell division

c)

structures that help separate chromosomes

d)

process of separating a cell into two daughter cells

70.

cancer

a)

connects sister chromatids

b)

uncontrolled cell division

c)

structures that help separates chromosomes

d)

process of separating a cell into two daughter cells

71.

In certain chickens black feathers (B) are co-dominant with white feathers (W). Heterozygous chickens have both black and white feathers. Cross two heterozygous chickens and give genotype ratio.

a)

1:1:1:1

b)

4:1

c)

2:2

d)

1:2:1

72.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

73.
a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

74.

Cells pass through a G2 checkpoint before entering mitosis. Ideally, if DNA damage is detected, the cells do not enter mitosis until the damage is repaired. Why is DNA damage repaired before cells enter mitosis?

a)

So that another round of DNA synthesis does not have to take place.

b)

So that the chromosomes can align at the metaphase plate during mitosis.

c)

So that the cytoplasm can be divided equally between the two daughter cells.

d)

So that healthy daughter cells are produced, allowing the organism to continue growing.

75.

The diagram below represents the cell cycle. When cells leave the cell cycle, they exit during G1 phase and then enter G0 phase, a resting period. Most normal cells can leave G0 phase and reenter the cell cycle at G1 phase before entering S phase. Cancer cells are different because they cannot enter G0 phase and are likely to do which of the following?

a)

Fail to complete S phase

b)

mutate during G1 phase

c)

repeat the cell cycle continuously

d)

die after completing mitosis

76.

What phase is the cell in?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

77.

What phase is the cell in?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

78.

What phase is the cell in?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

79.

What biomolecule is this?

a)

Lipid

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acids

80.

What kind of bonds hold DNA strands together?

a)

Covalent bonds

b)

ionic bonds

c)

peptide bonds

d)

hydrogen bonds

81.

Protein molecules are made up of smaller molecules called

a)

monosaccharides

b)

nucleotides

c)

amino acids

d)

lipids

82.

_____ is the enzyme that unwinds the DNA and separates the strands, while the enzyme _____ copies the DNA through base-pairing.

a)

DNA polymerase, helicase

b)

helicase, DNA polymerase

c)

Helicase, RNA polymerase

d)

DNA polymerase, RNA polymerase

83.

Cell division in prokaryotes (bacteria) is called

a)

mitosis

b)

cytokinesis

c)

binary fission

d)

bacteriosis

84.

during asexual cell division, daughter cells are produced that are

a)

genetically the same as each other

b)

genetically the same as the parent

c)

have the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell

d)

all of the above

85.

Cytokinesis differs between plant and animal cells. During cytokinesis, plant cells form _____ and animal cells have _____.

a)

  Cell plate; furrow

b)

Furrow; cell plate

c)

Centrioles; spindle fibers

d)

Spindle fibers; centrioles

86.

sister chromatids separate

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

e)

interphase

87.

two nuclei reform and chromosomes relax into chromatin

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase

e)

telophase

88.

cells grow and replicates DNA

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase

e)

telophase

89.

Meiosis produces what type of cells?

a)

gametes

b)

sex cells

c)

eggs

d)

sperm

e)

all of the above

90.

Which of the following increases genetic variation in meiosis?

a)

crossing over

b)

zygote formation

c)

mitosis

d)

dominant allele

91.

If a frog has a diploid (2N) cell with 26 chromosomes, how many chromosomes are in the gametes?

a)

26

b)

52

c)

13

d)

6

92.

In radishes, the gene that controls color exhibits incomplete dominance. Pure-breeding red radishes (RR) crossed with pure-breeding white radishes (WW) make purple radishes (purple is heterozygous- RW). Cross a purple radish with a white radish, and give genotype ratio.

a)

3:1

b)

4:1

c)

2:2

d)

1:1:1:1

93.

In humans, brown eyes (B) are dominant to blue eyes (b), and free earlobes (E) are dominant to attached earlobes (e). Cross a mother that is homozygous dominant for both traits with a father that is homozygous recessive for both. What is the phenotype ratio?

a)

4:4:4:4

b)

6:6:2:2

c)

16:0

d)

9:3:3:1

94.

In toads, long tongues (T) are dominant to short tongues (t). Cross a homozygous recessive female toad with a heterozygous male toad for this trait. What is the genotype ratio?

a)

1:1:1:1

b)

2:2

c)

3:1

d)

4:0

95.

Situation when one allele is not completely dominant over another and you see blending.

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

co-dominance

c)

sex-linked

d)

dominant/recessive

96.

Sex-linked traits are found on the ____.

a)

X chromosome

b)

Y chromosome

c)

autosomes

d)

any chromosome

97.

When one gene in a pair hides the other, we say that the gene being hidden is

a)

dominant

b)

recessive

c)

heterozygous

d)

visible

98.

Which process is this that increases genetic diversity?

a)

crossing over

b)

nondisjunction

c)

anaphase

d)

independent assortment

99.

Humans contain two copies of each chromosome. They are the same size and shape, and contain the same gene sequence. What are these copies called?

a)

Homologous chromosomes

b)

chromatin

c)

mitosis

d)

all of these

100.

The observed trait in an organism is

a)

allele

b)

genotype

c)

phenotype

d)

karyotype

101.

Fertilized egg is called

a)

ova

b)

embryo

c)

zygote

d)

polar body

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