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Unit 3 Review - Planet Earth

Total questions: 127

Worksheet time: 6hrs 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What layer of the Earth is labeled A?

a)

inner core

b)

outer core

c)

mantle

d)

crust

2.

Which layer is the HOTTEST?

a)

Crust

b)

Mantle

c)

Outer Core

d)

Inner Core

3.

What state of matter is the inner core?

a)

Solid

b)

Solid but flexible

c)

Liquid

4.

Which of the following represents physical layers of Earth?

a)

core, mantle, crust

b)

core, mantle, oceanic crust, continental crust

c)

inner core, outer core, mesosphere, asthenosphere, lithosphere

d)

inner core, outer core, mantle, oceanic crust, continental crust

5.

Which layer is best described as liquid iron and nickel?

a)

inner core

b)

outer core

c)

mantle

d)

crust

6.

The lithosphere is ______ and the asthenosphere is _______.

a)

both brittle

b)

brittle, plastic/flexible

c)

plastic/flexible, brittle

d)

both plastic/flexible

7.

Which layer exists as a collection of tectonic plates?

a)

asthenosphere

b)

mantle

c)

lithosphere

d)

outer core

8.

Convection currents in the ______ create Earth's magnetic field.

a)

asthenosphere

b)

inner core

c)

mantle

d)

outer core

9.

This zone is rigid and solid. It contains the crust and the upper mantle

a)
Lithosphere
b)
Mesosphere
c)

atmosphere

d)
Asthenosphere
10.

The layer of the earth where convection currents happen and move plates is known as the?

a)
Crust
b)
Core
c)

Outer Core

d)

Asthenosphere

11.

What is area 7?

a)

Asthenosphere

b)

Outer Core

c)

Inner Core

d)

The Gray Zone

12.

The part of the crust that is thin, dense, young, and made of Basalt is known as the?

a)
Continental crust
b)
Mantle
c)
Granite crust
d)
Oceanic crust
13.

Which plate is # 13?

a)

Hurricane Plate

b)

Antarctic Plate

c)

Siberia Plate

d)

North American Plate

14.

Which Plate is # 8?

a)

Dinner Plate

b)

North American Plate

c)

Eurasian Plate

d)

African Plate

15.

Which Plate is # 2?

a)

Paper Plate

b)

Australian Plate

c)

African Plate

d)

Pacific Plate

16.

What causes the plates to move?

a)

Will Power

b)

Conduction

c)

Nothing, they don't really move

d)

Convection

17.

The earth's outer shell is divided into slabs of rock called ______ .

a)

continental plates

b)

crustal plates

c)

trench plates

d)

tectonic plates

18.

Place each label in the correct category.

Categorize the following

older

granite

less dense

younger

basltic

recycles

Continental Crust
Oceanic Crust
19.

Match the following

a)
1.

divergent

b)
2.

convergent

c)
3.

transform

20.

At which plate boundary is new crust formed?

a)

divergent

b)

convergent

c)

continental

d)

transform

21.

What type of crusts are involved with one plate subducting beneath another?

a)

continental and continental

b)

Oceanic and continental

c)

oceanic and divergent

d)

continental and convergent

22.

What is the WHOLE AREA called where the oceanic crust goes beneath the continental crust?

a)

subtraction zone

b)

section zone

c)

secondary zone

d)

subduction zone

23.

At which boundary is crust neither consumed or created?

a)

divergent

b)

convergent

c)

transform

d)

oceanic

24.

The majority of the world's earthquakes and volcanoes occur along the _ .

(a)  

25.

All of the continents were joined together in a supercontinent that Wegener called

a)

Pangaea

b)

Gondwanaland

26.

Based on evidence from land features, fossils and climate, Wegener concluded that continents

a)

sink

b)

rise

c)

move

27.

In sea-floor spreading, new crust is added at a

a)

mid-ocean ridge

b)

magnetic stripe

28.

Which features form the longest mountain ranges on Earth?

a)

the mid-ocean ridges

b)

the deep-ocean trenches

c)

the Rockies

d)

the Andes

29.

Which process adds more crust to the ocean floor?

a)

suction

b)

sea-floor spreading

c)

subduction

d)

magnetic strip

30.

Where does subduction occur?

a)

along the middle of the ocean floors

b)

down the middle of the mountain ranges

c)

on continents

d)

at deep-ocean trenches

31.

Which process or processes change the size and shape of the oceans?

a)

subduction only

b)

sea-floor spreading only

c)

both subduction and sea-floor spreading

d)

both drilling for samples and subduction

32.

Which theory describes the motion of and force driving Earth's plates?

a)

first law of motion

b)

third law of motion

c)

continental drift

d)

plate tectonics

33.

The San Andreas fault is an example of which kind of boundary?

a)

transform

b)

divergent

c)

oceanic

d)

convergent

34.

A valley along the ocean floor beneath which oceanic crust slowly sinks toward the mantle is?

a)

deep-ocean trenches

b)

mid-ocean ridges

c)

sea-floor spreading

d)

subduction

35.

Boundary where two plates slip past each other, moving in opposite directions are?

a)

divergent

b)

transform

c)

convergent

36.

How many cities do scientists read seismograms from to determine the epicenter of an earthquake?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

37.

Select all that apply for a surface-wave

a)

most destructive wave

b)

least destructive wave

c)

comes after the p-wave

d)

slowest wave

e)

less destructive than a surface wave

38.

USe the picture to answer your question. How long did it take for the p-wave to arrive to the city?

a)

0 minutes

b)

4 minutes

c)

8 minutes

d)

8:50 minutes

39.

What is the instrument used to measure earthquakes?

a)

Seismograph

b)

Seismologist

c)

Scale

d)

Seismogram

40.

Which city is closest to the epicenter?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

41.

5. Which type of wave travels the fastest?

a)

Primary Wave

b)

Secondary Wave

c)

Long Wave

42.

This is created by earthquakes that occur on the ocean floor.

a)

longshore current

b)

gulf stream

c)

tsunamis

d)

high tide

43.

_________ are created and found in soil, in rocks, in seashells, or deep in the earth.

a)

Minerals

b)

Crystals

44.

A/An ___________ is a solid that has flat sides and edges arranged in a pattern that repeats to form a three-dimensional shape.

a)

element

b)

crystal

45.

A mineral's __________ color may be different than its surface color.

a)

streak

b)

fracture

46.

When you describe a mineral as being shiny or dull, you are talking about its ___________.

a)

cleavage

b)

luster

47.

A mineral's __________ is its ability to resist being scratched.

a)

hardness

b)

density

48.

Rocks that form when magma cools and hardens above or below the earth's surface are called ___________ rocks.

a)

metamorphic

b)

index

c)

sedimentary

d)

igneous

e)

form

49.

_____________ rocks form when sediment compacts or cements in layers on the earth's surface without heat or pressure.

a)

metamorphic

b)

index

c)

sedimentary

d)

igneous

e)

form

50.

_____________ rocks form when heat and pressure change the structure, texture, and appearance of rocks.

a)

metamorphic

b)

index

c)

sedimentary

d)

igneous

e)

form

51.

__________ fossils are the same type of fossil found in the same rock layer all over the world.

a)

metamorphic

b)

index

c)

sedimentary

d)

igneous

e)

form

52.

Which of the follow is not a physical property that must be tested when identifying a mineral?

a)

color

b)

luster

c)

shape

d)

streak

e)

hardness

53.

The two types of igneous rocks are intrusive and extrusive.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Which of the following is not a type of sedimentary rock?

a)

clastic

b)

instrusive

c)

chemical

d)

organic

55.

The two types of metamorphic rocks are foliated and nonfoliated

a)

False

b)

True

56.
Which BEST describes the rock cycle?
a)
New rocks form from older rocks.
b)
Lunar rocks change into terrestrial rocks.
c)
Rocks in the ocean become rocks on land.
d)
Layers of rock are broken by faults.
57.
Which process forms both metamorphic and sedimentary rock?
a)
recrystallization
b)
heating
c)
weathering
d)
compacting
58.
Which processes must occur in order for an igneous rock to change into a metamorphic rock?
a)
heating and pressure
b)
compaction and cementation
c)
melting and cooling
d)
uplift and erosion
59.
Which processes change magma into igneous rock?
a)
weathering and erosion
b)
heat and pressure
c)
compaction and cementation
d)
cooling and crystallization
60.

Using your ESRT, find the mineral that has a metallic luster, can scratch glass and contains sulfur.

a)

Garnet

b)

Galena

c)

Magnetite

d)

Pyrite

61.

If a mineral can scratch glass, that tells us that the hardness is

a)

equal to glass

b)

less than glass

c)

more than glass

d)

does not tell us anything

62.

Which mineral would Fluorite be able to scratch?

a)

Calcite

b)

Pyroxene

c)

Olivine

d)

Garnet

63.

Which property is being tested in Test B?

a)

Luster

b)

Hardness

c)

Streak

d)

Breakage

64.

A mineral has a Metallic luster, has a colored streak and does not scratch glass. What is it's mineral letter?

a)

B

b)

C

c)

D

d)

H

65.

Which mineral is non-metallic, has a clear streak and can scratch glass - Which mineral letter?

a)

A

b)

E

c)

F

d)

G

66.

Which mineral property is this picture showing?

a)

Luster

b)

Cleavage

c)

Streak

d)

The use of the mineral

67.

Which mineral listed on your ESRT is non-metallic, has bumpy edges and CANNOT scratch glass.

a)

Sulfur

b)

Pyrite

c)

Amphibole

d)

Olviine

68.

Which mineral could this be (on your ESRT)?

a)

Garnet

b)

Olivine

c)

Pyrite

d)

Pyroxene

69.
The natural chemical or physical processes that breaks down rock on Earth's surface.
a)
weathering
b)
erosion
c)
deposition
d)
jackhammering
70.
The process by which water, ice, wind or gravity moves weathered rock and soil from one place to another.
a)
weathering
b)
erosion
c)
deposition
d)
dumptruck
71.
This type of weathering occurs when rock is physically broken down into smaller pieces of rock.
a)
mechanical weathering
b)
chemical weathering
c)
erosion weathering
d)
deposition
72.
Weeds growing into the cracks in a sidewalk and the sidewalk begins to crumble is an example of:
a)
mechanical weathering
b)
chemical weathering
73.
Lichens (small green plants) growing on a large boulder release enzymes and other acids that slowly break the rock apart. This is an example of:
a)
mechanical weathering
b)
chemical weathering
74.

Small islands made of sediment called deltas form at the end of rivers. This is a form of

a)

Mechanical Weathering

b)

Chemical Weathering

c)

Erosion

d)

Deposition

75.

Acid rain "melts" the features of a statue

a)

Mechanical Weathering

b)

Chemical Weathering

c)

Erosion

d)

Deposition

76.
Decayed organic material in soil is called______.
a)
Litter
b)
Silt
c)
Humus
d)
Clay
77.

Which horizon is made up of partially weathered rocks?

a)

Horizon A

b)

Horizon B

c)

Horizon C

d)

Horizon D

78.
In which horizon is most of the HUMUS?
a)
Horizon A
b)
Horizon B
c)
Horizon C
d)
Horizon D or R
79.
Soil is made of
a)
weathered rocks and minerals
b)
dead plants and animals
c)
air and water
d)
all of the above
80.

A rock containing iron is soft, crumbly, reddish in color. It's been chemically weathered by__.

a)

Carbon Dioxide

b)

Oxygen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Sulfer

81.

Horizon referred to as topsoil.

a)

C

b)

A

c)

B

d)

E

82.

What is the name of Horizon 4?

a)

Subsoil

b)

Topsoil

c)

Bedrock

d)

Weathered Parent Rock

83.

What is HUMUS made from?

a)

The remains of decayed plants.

b)

Both

c)

The remains of decayed animals.

84.

Which soil layer consists of clay, iron oxides, and other components that came form the zone of leaching?

a)

E horizon

b)

A Horizon

c)

B Horizon

d)

O Horizon

85.

40 % Sand

50% Silt

10% Clay

a)

Clay

b)

Clay Loam

c)

Silt Loam

d)

Sandy Loam

86.

70 % Sand

15% Silt

15% Clay

a)

Sandy Loam

b)

Clay

c)

Silt Loam

d)

Clay Loam

87.

35 % Sand

15% Silt

50% Clay

a)

Clay Loam

b)

Sandy Loam

c)

Silt Loam

d)

Clay

88.

30 % Sand

40% Silt

30% Clay

a)

Clay

b)

Sandy Loam

c)

Clay Loam

d)

Silt Loam

89.

What is the Texture for Silt Based on the Texture: SILTY CLAY:


5% SAND

50% CLAY

a)

45%

b)

38%

c)

36%

d)

55%

90.

What is the Texture for CLAY Based on the Texture: Clay Loam


27% SAND

35% SILT

a)

33%

b)

45%

c)

38%

d)

55%

91.

What is the Texture for Silt Based on the Texture: SILT


10% SAND

7% CLAY

a)

45%

b)

83%

c)

55%

d)

5%

92.

What is the Texture for SAND Based on the Texture: Sandy Clay Loam:


21% SILT

27% CLAY

a)

7%

b)

40%

c)

21%

d)

52%

93.

When an area can become desert like due to plants being unable to grow in infertile soil.

a)

Soil Conservation

b)

Desertification

c)

Erosion

d)

Salinization

94.

When wind, water, or gravity transports soil and sediment from one place to another.

a)

Soil Conservation

b)

Desertification

c)

Erosion

d)

Salinization

95.

In what soil conservation technique might a farmer plant corn one year and soybeans the next to replenish the soil with nitrogen?

a)

Contour Planting

b)

Cover Crops

c)

Crop Rotation

d)

No-Till Farming

e)

Terraces

96.

In what soil conservation technique do the roots from the prior years crop help to hold the soil in place and prevent erosion?

a)

Contour Planting

b)

Cover Crops

c)

Crop Rotation

d)

No-Till Farming

e)

Terraces

97.

Which statement about weathering and erosion is true?

a)

Weathering moves the eroded material.

b)

Erosion moves the weathered material.

c)

Weathering is faster and erosion is slower.

d)

Erosion is faster and weathering is slower.

98.
8. Improvement of water quality can be achieved by
a)
appropriate use of water
b)
careful water storage and handling
c)
proper land management
d)
all of the above
99.
9. The problem of land erosion is
a)
characteristics of developed countries only
b)
found worldwide
c)
mostly found in poor countries
d)
not a substational problem in view of food surpluses
100.
10. A conversational plan
a)
conserves soil and water
b)
is prepared by professionals
c)
maximizes productivity of land
d)
all of the above
101.

The removal of trees from forested lands.

a)

salinization

b)

compaction

c)

deforestation

d)

contamination

102.

The seeping of chemicals, oil, and other substances into the land.

a)

salinization

b)

compaction

c)

deforestation

d)

contamination

103.

The altering of land by building roads, houses, offices, factories, and other structures.

a)

soil erosion

b)

desertification

c)

alkalization

d)

construction

104.

A lowering of the quality of soil or the loss of soil productivity.

a)

soil degradation

b)

saltation

c)

geologic erosion

d)

sediment

105.

Soil deposited on the bottom of streams and rivers.

a)

soil degradation

b)

saltation

c)

geologic erosion

d)

sediment

106.

What type of resources are considered finite and cannot be replenished in a short amount of time?

a)

Renewable Energy

b)

Nonrenewable Energy

c)

All Energy

d)

Generational Energy

107.

What type of energy is able to be regenerated in a short amount of time or are continuous?

a)

Renewable Energy

b)

Nonrenewable Energy

c)

All Energy

d)

Generational Energy

108.

Which of the following are fossil fuels? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Coal

b)

Oil

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

109.
__________ is an energy resource that WILL NOT run out in the next several hundred years.
a)
Renewable Energy Resource
b)
Nonrenewable Energy Resource
110.
Coal is a __________ energy resource.
a)
Renewable
b)
Nonrenewable
111.
The sun is the source of all energy on Earth.
a)
true
b)
false
112.
Natural Gas is a __________ energy resource.
a)
Renewable
b)
Nonrenewable
113.
Solar Power is a __________ energy resource.
a)
Renewable
b)
Nonrenewable
114.
__________is the energy generated from the sun by using solar panels.
a)
Wind
b)
Hydro
c)
Nuclear
d)
Solar
115.
__________is the energy created by wind turning wind turbines.
a)
Geothermal
b)
Hydro
c)
Wind
d)
Nuclear
116.
_________is energy generated when moving water turns turbines.
a)
Wind
b)
Hydro
c)
Geothermal
d)
Solar
117.
Natural resources are products of the Earth that people use to meet their needs.
a)
true
b)
false
118.
What is the best pro about renewable resources? 
a)
The are inexpensive 
b)
They are always available
c)
They are expensive
d)
They create pollution  
119.
What percentage of our energy use comes from fossil fuels?
a)
25%
b)
45%
c)
61%
d)
86%
120.
Which of these is a disadvantage of windmills?
a)
amount of land required
b)
time to construct one
c)
the availability of wind
d)
the location of reliable wind
121.
What form of alternative energy uses a dam?
a)
hydroelectric power
b)
geothermal power
c)
biomass power
d)
solar power
122.
What form of alternative energy uses the heat from the earth?
a)
solar power
b)
geothermal power
c)
biomass power
d)
wind power
123.
the wise use and protection of natural resources
a)
natural resources
b)
green
c)
renewable energy
d)
conservation
124.
Biomass
a)
Renewable
b)
Nonrenewable
125.
Nuclear
a)
Renewable
b)
Nonrenewable
126.
Define Biomass energy:
a)
Energy created by burning plant and animal wastes
b)
Energy created by tides and dams
c)
 Uses “farms”
127.
Does the United States gets most of its energy from renewable resources?
a)
Yes
b)
No

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