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WorksheetsPhysical Science Fall Final Review
Total questions: 173
Worksheet time: 14hrs 25mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
How does the scientific process start and end?
a)
It begins with discovery and ends with curiosity.
b)
It begins with a question and ends with a theory.
c)
It begins with curiosity and ends with discovery.
d)
It begins with a hypothesis and ends with an experiment.
2.
Select the 3 MAIN branches of natural science.
a)
Physical science
b)
Earth science
c)
Life science
d)
Social science
e)
Oceanology
3.
How are science and technology related?
a)
They are independent.
b)
They are interdependent.
c)
Technology is dependent on science.
d)
Science is dependent on technology.
4.
What field of science is concerned with motion, forces, and the transfer of energy?
a)
Chemistry
b)
Enerology
c)
Physics
d)
Motionology
5.
How does a scientific law differ from a scientific theory?
a)
A law is a summary of observations and results. A theory is an explanation of those observations and results.
b)
A theory is a summary of observations and results. A law is an explanation of those observations and results.
c)
A law is well-tested; a theory is not.
d)
A law is true; a theory isn't.
6.
Identify the three types of variables in a controlled experiment.
a)
Controlled variable
b)
Responding variable
c)
Manipulated variable
d)
Time
e)
Temperature
7.
If a supported hypothesis is only tested once, can it be called a theory?
a)
Yes, it has been shown to be true.
b)
Yes, it is an explanation of events.
c)
No, it has been shown to be true.
d)
No, it has not been tested enough.
8.
An organized plan for gathering, organizing, and communicating information is called:
a)
A scientific experiment.
b)
Science.
c)
A scientific method.
d)
A science plan.
9.
A representation of an object or event that people use is called
a)
a model.
b)
a representation.
c)
a picture.
d)
an analogy.
10.
Why do scientists make models?
a)
The scientists need to communicate their results with other people in a visual way.
b)
The scientists need to spend all the money they got for research.
c)
Models make it easier to understand things that might be too difficult to observe directly.
d)
Models make it easy for scientists to do experiments.
11.
Why do scientists use scientific notation?
a)
To have a number system based in the metric system.
b)
To make writing very large and very small numbers much easier.
c)
To have their own number system.
d)
Because calculators cannot display all the digits of numbers during calculations.
12.
Express 9623.3 in scientific notation.
a)
9.6233 x 10^3
b)
9.6233 x 10^2
c)
9.6233 x 10^4
d)
9.6233 x 10^-3
13.
Express 0.0562 in scientific notation.
a)
5.62 x 10^2
b)
5.62 x 10^-1
c)
5.62 x 10^-2
d)
5.62 x 10^-3
14.
Express 6.79 x 10^-2 as a "regular" number.
a)
0.00679
b)
0.0679
c)
0.679
d)
679
15.
(2.11 x 10^5) * (2.648 x 10^2), Express your answer in scientific notation, and round the "a" part to 3 decimal places.
a)
5.587 x 10^7
b)
7.968 x 10^5
c)
7.968 x 10^6
d)
5.587 x 10^-7
16.
What does the prefix micro- mean?
a)
Billionth
b)
Million
c)
Thousandth
d)
Millionth
17.
Convert 98 degrees Celsius to degrees Fahrenheit and to kelvin.
a)
371 degrees Fahrenheit; 208.4 K
b)
36.67 degrees Fahrenheit; 371 K
c)
208.4 degrees Fahrenheit; 371 K
d)
36.67 degrees Fahrenheit; -175 K
18.
Identify common ways for scientists to communicate their results.
a)
Make videos
b)
Speak at conferences
c)
Write in scientific journals
d)
Hold simple conversations.
e)
Peer review
19.
When would a scientist choose present their data in the form of a bar graph?
a)
To examine change in a variable as another one changes.
b)
To compare a set of measurements, amounts, or changes.
c)
To show how the parts compare to the whole.
d)
To trick others into believing incorrect things.
20.
Does the Speed over Time Line Graph represent direct proportion or inverse proportion?
a)
Direct proportion
b)
Inverse proportion
21.
How much of Earth's crust is composed of Potassium and Sodium, according to the pie chart?
a)
2.6%
b)
2.8%
c)
5.4%
d)
0.2%
22.
Convert 78 m to cm
a)
0.078 cm
b)
780 cm
c)
78000 cm
d)
7800 cm
23.
Convert .49 mm to cm
a)
49 cm
b)
0.049 cm
c)
0.0049 cm
d)
0.00049 cm
24.
Convert 16.3 g/mL to kg/L
a)
16300 kg/L
b)
16.3 kg/L
c)
0.0163 kg/L
d)
1.63 kg/L
25.
Convert 9.81 kPa to daPa
a)
981 daPa
b)
98.1 daPa
c)
98100 daPa
d)
0.0981 daPa
26.
What are the main two types of mixtures?
a)
Solutions and colloids
b)
Solutions and homogeneous
c)
Heterogeneous and homogeneous
d)
Suspensions and homogeneous
27.
Matter that always has exactly the same composition is classified as a(n)
a)
mixture
b)
compound
c)
element
d)
pure substance
28.
Tap water is a
a)
compound.
b)
element.
c)
solution.
d)
suspension.
29.
A heterogeneous mixture that separates into layers over time is a(n)
a)
solution
b)
suspension
c)
colloid
d)
simply a mixture; there's no specific name for this.
30.
What does the composition of compounds look like?
a)
Compounds contain two or more elements bonded together in a fixed ratio.
b)
Compounds only contain one type of atom.
c)
Compounds contain three or more elements bonded together in a fixed ratio.
d)
Compounds contain multiple types of substances.
31.
Identify the physical properties.
a)
Melting point
b)
Viscosity
c)
Shape
d)
Volume
e)
Reactivity
32.
The ability of a solid to be hammered into a sheet without shattering is called
a)
Conductivity
b)
Malleability
c)
Ductility
d)
Strength
33.
When we say that a liquid is thin, does it have a high viscosity or a low viscosity?
a)
High viscosity
b)
Low viscosity
34.
Why is changing the state of a sample considered a physical change?
a)
The composition of the sample does change.
b)
The composition of the sample does not change.
c)
The properties of the sample do not change.
d)
The change can be reversed.
35.
Bromine is a liquid at room temperature, and oxygen is a gas at room temperature. Which has the lower boiling point?
a)
Bromine
b)
Oxygen
c)
Both have the same boiling point.
36.
When can the chemical properties of a substance be seen?
a)
Any time any change occurs
b)
When the substances in a sample don't change into different substances
c)
Under an electron microscope
d)
When the substances in a sample are changing into different substances
37.
Identify the common types of evidence for a chemical change.
a)
Production of a gas
b)
Color change
c)
Formation of a precipitate
d)
Size change
e)
Shape change
38.
How do chemical changes differ from physical changes?
a)
A chemical change produces new substances; physical changes do not.
b)
A physical change produces new substances; chemical changes do not.
c)
A chemical change changes the state of matter; physical changes do not.
d)
A physical change always releases energy; chemical changes do not.
39.
If you spill bleach (sodium hypochlorite) on denim jeans, you typically see that the wet area is no longer blue. Is that change likely to be a chemical change?
a)
Yes
b)
No
40.
A sample of matter has a mass of 200 g and a volume of 10 mL. What is its density in g/mL?
a)
0.05 g/mL
b)
2000 g/mL
c)
20 g/mL
d)
0.5 g/mL
41.
A sample of matter has a density of 2.5 g/mL and a volume of 245 mL. What is its mass in grams?
a)
612.5 g
b)
0.010 g
c)
98 g
d)
0 g
42.
A sample of matter has a density of 9 g/mL and a mass of 81 g. What is its volume in mL?
a)
0.111 mL
b)
729 mL
c)
72 mL
d)
9 mL
43.
Which of these substances is not an element?
a)
Hydrogen
b)
Aluminum
c)
Iron
d)
Water
44.
Which of the following is not an example of a chemical property?
a)
Iron rusts in the presence of oxygen.
b)
Vinegar will produce bubbles when it comes into contact with baking powder.
c)
Water melts at 0 degrees Celsius.
d)
Sodium will explode on contact with water.
45.
Which material is a poor conductor of heat?
a)
Iron
b)
Silver
c)
Wood
d)
Copper
46.
At room temperature (defined as 20 degrees Celsius), a substance with a melting point of 40 degrees Celsius is a
a)
solid.
b)
liquid.
c)
gas.
d)
plasma.
47.
Which action involves a chemical change?
a)
Making ice cubes
b)
Adding sugar to tea
c)
Cutting wrapping paper
d)
Baking a cake
48.
Which property can be used to separate a mixture by distillation?
a)
Melting point
b)
Boiling point
c)
Density
d)
Viscosity
e)
Conductivity
49.
You can be certain that a chemical change has occurred when
a)
the change cannot be reversed.
b)
new substances form.
c)
bubbles are produced.
d)
a precipitate forms.
e)
there is a color change.
50.
When people go panning for gold, what separation process are they using?
a)
Picking things out by hand.
b)
Filtration
c)
Distillation
d)
Electrolysis
51.
A sample has a mass of 288 grams and a volume of 144 milliliters. What is the sample's density in grams per milliliter?
a)
5 g/mL
b)
41472 g/mL
c)
2000 g/mL
d)
2 g/mL
52.
Which of the following could be a chemical symbol for an element?
a)
a
b)
J
c)
cd
d)
Sol
53.
A substance that has little tendency to change into other substances is said to have low
a)
reactivity.
b)
density.
c)
viscosity.
d)
conductivity.
54.
What type of mixture is milk?
a)
Solution
b)
Colloid
c)
Suspension
d)
Homogeneous mixture
55.
Which of these statements best describes a physical change in a pure substance?
a)
The substance changes into one or more new substances.
b)
Some of the properties of the substance change, but the material remains the same.
c)
The properties of the material do not change, and the material remains the same.
d)
The substance is separated into two or more simpler substances.
56.
Identify all 5 known states of matter.
a)
Gas
b)
Solid
c)
Bose-Einstein condensates
d)
Liquid
e)
Plasma
57.
The state of matter in which materials have a definite shape and a definite volume is
a)
solid.
b)
liquid.
c)
gas.
d)
plasma.
58.
How is gas pressure produced in a closed container of a gas?
a)
Collisions between the particles of the gas
b)
Collisions between the particles of the gas and the walls of the container
c)
Collisions between the particles of the walls of the container
d)
The gas exerts a force on the walls of the container.
59.
Identify the three factors that affect gas pressure.
a)
Temperature
b)
Number of particles
c)
Volume
d)
Type of gas
e)
Type of container
60.
If the temperature of a gas increases, then its pressure
a)
increases.
b)
decreases.
c)
stays the same.
61.
If the volume of a gas is increased, then its pressure
a)
increases.
b)
decreases.
c)
stays the same.
62.
If the number of particles of a gas increases, then its pressure
a)
increases.
b)
decreases.
c)
stays the same.
63.
A gas is heated from an unknown temperature to 560 K. If the original volume was 90 L, and the new volume is 95 L, what was the original temperature of the gas? The pressure of the gas is kept constant.
a)
15.27 K
b)
591.11 K
c)
4788000 K
d)
530.53 K
64.
A gas with an unknown pressure has its container expanded. The original volume of the container 15 L, and the new volume is 45 L. If the new pressure of the gas is 42 Pa, what was the original pressure of the gas? The temperature is kept constant.
a)
126 Pa
b)
14 Pa
c)
16.07 Pa
d)
0.06 Pa
65.
The state of matter in which a material has neither a definite shape nor a definite volume is
a)
solid.
b)
liquid.
c)
gas.
d)
plasma.
66.
What does kinetic theory say about the motion of atoms?
a)
All atoms are constantly vibrating.
b)
All atoms are in motion.
c)
All atoms are completely stopped.
d)
All atoms are flowing past one another.
67.
How do gases fill a container of any size or shape?
a)
The distance of particles in a gas.
b)
Magic.
c)
The constant vibration of particles in a gas.
d)
The constant motion of particles in a gas
68.
Why do solids have a definite shape and volume?
a)
The particles flow in fixed locations.
b)
The particles move about randomly.
c)
The particles vibrate in random locations.
d)
The particles vibrate around fixed locations.
69.
What happens to the temperature of a substance during a phase change?
a)
It rises.
b)
It falls.
c)
It stays the same.
d)
It depends on whether the object is cooling or warming.
70.
How does the energy of a system change during a phase change?
a)
Energy is either released or absorbed.
b)
Energy is always released.
c)
Energy is always absorbed.
d)
Energy does not transfer.
71.
How is evaporation different from boiling?
a)
Evaporation takes place at the center, and it happens at temperatures above the boiling point.
b)
Evaporation takes place at the center, and it happens at temperatures below the boiling point.
c)
Evaporation takes place at the surface, and it happens at temperatures below the boiling point.
d)
Evaporation takes place at the surface, and it happens at temperatures above the boiling point.
72.
At room temperature, table salt is solid and acetone, the main ingredient in nail polish remover, is a liquid. What conclusion can you draw about the melting points of these materials?
a)
The melting point of table salt is higher than room temperature.
b)
The melting point of acetone is lower than room temperature.
c)
The melting point of table salt is lower than room temperature.
d)
The melting point of table salt is room temperature.
e)
The melting point of acetone is higher than room temperature.
73.
Rice is typically needs to be cooked in boiling water. But, the rice will be burnt if there is no liquid water. An automatic rice cooker has built in temperature sensor in its pot. When should the rice cooker be shut off?
a)
It should be shut off when the temperature reaches water's boiling point.
b)
It should be shut off when the temperature is slightly higher than water's boiling point.
c)
It should be shut off when the temperature is slightly lower than water's boiling point.
d)
It should be shut off at random.
74.
In which states of matter can materials take the shape of their containers?
a)
Liquid and gas
b)
Solid and liquid
c)
Solid and gas
d)
Solid only
e)
Liquid only
75.
Which statement is true about the atoms in helium gas?
a)
They travel in circular paths.
b)
They have strong attractions to one another.
c)
They are not closely packed.
d)
They are arranged in an orderly pattern.
76.
If the speed of an object increases, its kinetic energy
a)
decreases.
b)
increases.
c)
stays the same.
d)
is unpredictable.
77.
The SI unit of pressure is the
a)
pascal.
b)
newton.
c)
square meter.
d)
psi.
78.
Boyle's law relates pressure and
a)
temperature.
b)
number of particles.
c)
volume.
d)
mass.
79.
Charles's law relates volume and
a)
temperature.
b)
number of particles.
c)
pressure.
d)
mass.
80.
The phase change that is the reverse of vaporization is
a)
freezing.
b)
melting.
c)
condensation.
d)
evaporation.
81.
As water is freezing into ice, what happens to its temperature?
a)
The temperature decreases.
b)
The temperature increases.
c)
The temperature stays the same.
d)
The temperature increases and decreases wildly.
82.
Some liquid products are sold in aerosol cans. Gas is stored in a can under pressure and is used to propel the liquid out of the can. Why should an aerosol can never be thrown into a fire place or an incinerator?
a)
At a high temperature, the can could melt, releasing the gas.
b)
At a high temperature, the gas could become a plasma, injuring anyone nearby.
c)
At a high temperature, the gas pressure might increase too much, causing the can to explode.
d)
At a high temperature, the can could vaporize, making a dangerous mixture of gases.
83.
A gas is cooled from 200 K to 100 K. If the original volume was 3 L, what's the volume of the gas after it has cooled? The pressure of the gas is kept constant.
a)
6 L
b)
6666.67 L
c)
1.5 L
d)
0.00015 L
84.
A gas with a pressure of 75 Pa is compressed. The new pressure is 200 Pa. If the original volume of the gas was 90 kL, what is the volume of the gas after it is compressed? The temperature is kept constant.
a)
166.67 kL
b)
33.75 kL
c)
240 kL
d)
0.0042 kL
85.
Who is widely credited with first proposing the idea of atoms?
a)
Democritus
b)
Aristotle
c)
John Dalton
d)
Albert Einstein
86.
What are the main points of Dalton's atomic theory?
a)
All elements are composed of atoms.
b)
All atoms of the same element have the same mass.
c)
Atoms of different elements have different masses.
d)
Compounds contain atoms of more than one element.
e)
In a particular compound, atoms of different elements always combine in the same way.
87.
What subatomic particle did J.J. Thomson discover during his cathode ray experiments?
a)
The proton
b)
The neutron
c)
The electron
d)
The photon
88.
Who discovered the atomic nucleus?
a)
Ernest Rutherford
b)
Democritus
c)
John Dalton
d)
J.J. Thomson
e)
Albert Einstein
89.
What famous historical experiment demonstrated the existence of atomic nuclei?
a)
The cathode-ray experiment
b)
The gold foil experiment
c)
The oil drop experiment
d)
The cat-in-the-box experiment
90.
What electric charge does the atomic nucleus have?
a)
Zero/neutral
b)
Negative
c)
Positive
d)
Infinite
91.
Identify the 3 main subatomic particles.
a)
Protons
b)
Neutrons
c)
Electrons
d)
Positrons
e)
Photons
92.
Where are protons located in an atom?
a)
The atomic nucleus
b)
The proton cloud
c)
The electron cloud
d)
Orbitals
93.
How do isotopes of an element differ?
a)
The number of protons
b)
The number of neutrons
c)
The number of electrons
d)
The number of positrons
94.
How many protons does tin have?
a)
50
b)
119
c)
69
d)
52
e)
22
95.
How many neutrons does a neutral atom of chromium-52 have?
a)
28
b)
24
c)
52
d)
76
96.
How can atoms be electrically neutral (meaning there's no net charge) if they contain charged particles?
a)
The neutrons cancel out the electric charge.
b)
The positive charge of the protons is balanced by the negative charge of the electrons.
c)
The negative charge of the protons is balanced by the positive charge of the electrons.
d)
The protons cancel out the electric charge.
97.
When is an electron in an atom likely to move from one energy level to another?
a)
When it feels like it
b)
When it collides with another electron
c)
When it gains or loses energy
d)
When it gains energy
e)
When it loses energy
98.
What model do scientists use to describe how electrons move around the nucleus?
a)
Bohr model
b)
Rutherford model
c)
Electron cloud model
d)
J.J. Thomson model
99.
Can electrons exist in between energy levels?
a)
Yes
b)
No
100.
What did Bohr contribute to modern atomic theory?
a)
The discovery of the atomic nucleus
b)
Protons have energy levels with specific amounts of energy.
c)
Electrons have energy levels with specific amounts of energy.
d)
The discovery of neutrons
101.
The most stable electron configuration in an atom is the one where
a)
the electrons are in orbitals with the lowest possible energy.
b)
the electrons are in orbitals with the highest possible energy.
c)
the electrons are the furthest from the nucleus.
d)
the electrons are in the nucleus.
102.
Was Rutherford's model of an atom incorrect or incomplete? Explain.
a)
It was correct but incomplete. It was correct, but it did not talk about the behavior of electrons.
b)
It was incorrect but complete. It had wrong information, but there were nothing new to discuss.
c)
It was correct and complete. It was accurate, and no new information was needed.
d)
It was incorrect and incomplete. It had wrong information, and it was missing the behavior of electrons.
103.
Nitrogen has two electrons in its first energy level and five in its second. Compare the relative energies of these electrons.
a)
The seven electrons all have the same amount of energy.
b)
The five electrons in the second energy level have more energy than the two electrons in the first.
c)
The electrons all have random amounts of energy.
d)
The two electrons in the first energy level have more energy than the five electrons in the second.
104.
Atoms emit energy as light when
a)
electrons move to a higher energy level.
b)
electrons move to a lower energy level.
c)
protons move to a higher energy level.
d)
protons move to a lower energy level.
105.
Dalton's model of an atom is best described as
a)
a solar system.
b)
a solid sphere.
c)
a plum pudding.
d)
an electron cloud.
106.
Who provided the first evidence that atoms contain subatomic particles?
a)
Dalton
b)
Rutherford
c)
Thomson
d)
Bohr
107.
Almost all the mass of an atom is located in its
a)
protons.
b)
electrons.
c)
electron cloud.
d)
nucleus.
108.
An electron is a particle with
a)
a negative charge, found in the nucleus.
b)
a positive charge, found in the nucleus.
c)
no charge, found outside the nucleus.
d)
a negative charge, found outside the nucleus.
109.
Which particle is the least massive?
a)
proton
b)
neutron
c)
electron
d)
nucleus
110.
All atoms of an element have the same
a)
mass number.
b)
number of isotopes.
c)
atomic number.
d)
number of neutrons.
111.
The number of neutrons in an atom equals the
a)
mass number minus atomic number.
b)
atomic number plus number of electrons.
c)
mass number plus atomic number.
d)
atomic number minus mass number.
112.
An atomic nucleus contains 30 protons and 38 neutrons. What type of an atom is this?
a)
Zinc-68
b)
Strontium-68
c)
Zinc-8
d)
Strontium-8
113.
How many electrons should a neutrally charged atom of zirconium-91 have?
a)
40
b)
91
c)
51
d)
There's not enough information to determine this.
114.
When making a Bohr model of silicon, how many electrons should go into its 3rd energy level?
a)
4
b)
8
c)
2
d)
14
115.
Who is credited with arranging the elements in such a way that elements in similar properties would end up in the same column?
a)
Bohr
b)
Lavoisier
c)
Mendeleev
d)
Thomson
116.
How did Mendeleev arrange the elements in his original table?
a)
Into rows in order of atomic number
b)
Randomly
c)
Into columns in order of atomic mass
d)
Into rows in order of atomic mass
117.
Why was Mendeleev's periodic table useful?
a)
Mendeleev's table predicting both the existence of an element and its properties after it was discovered.
b)
Mendeleev's table predicting the existence of an element before it was discovered.
c)
Mendeleev's table predicting both the existence of an element and its properties before it was discovered.
d)
Mendeleev's table predicting an element's properties before the properties were discovered.
118.
Why were there gaps in Mendeleev's table?
a)
To keep groups of elements with similar properties together, places for undiscovered elements were needed.
b)
To keep groups of elements with different properties together, places for undiscovered elements were needed.
c)
To keep groups of elements with similar properties together, places for discovered elements were needed.
d)
To keep groups of elements with different properties together, places for discovered elements were needed.
119.
How is it possible for Mendeleev to predict the properties of elements that had not been discovered?
a)
The predictions were based on the properties of distant elements and of those in the same column.
b)
The predictions were based on the properties of nearby elements and of those in the same column.
c)
The predictions were based on the properties of nearby elements of those in the same row.
d)
He was psychic and could see the future.
120.
How are elements NOW arranged on the modern periodic table?
a)
Increasing atomic mass
b)
Increasing atomic number
c)
Decreasing atomic mass
d)
Decreasing atomic number
121.
Identify the TWO factors that affect the atomic mass of an element.
a)
The weights of an element's isotopes
b)
The masses of an element's isotopes
c)
Distribution of an element's isotopes
d)
Distribution of an element's ions
e)
The masses of an element's ions
122.
Identify the THREE MAIN categories that are used to classify elements in the periodic table.
a)
Metals
b)
Nonmetal
c)
Metalloids
d)
Gases
e)
Liquids
123.
What major change happens as you move from left to right across the periodic table?
a)
The elements become less metallic and more nonmetallic in their properties.
b)
The elements become more metallic and less nonmetallic in their properties.
c)
The element's atomic radius increases.
d)
The reactivity of the elements decrease.
124.
Can a new element with an atomic number less than 118 be discovered?
a)
Yes
b)
No
125.
Element J has exactly four isotopes: J-60, J-67, J-72, and J-73. J-60 has an abundance of 70%, J-67 with an abundance of 9%, and J-72 with an abundance of 18%. Calculate the atomic mass of J.
a)
60.99
b)
67.45
c)
63.18
d)
70.74
126.
Chromium comes in 3 naturally occurring isotopes: chromium-52, chromium-53, and some unknown isotope. If chromium-52 has an abundance of 83.789%, and chromium-53 has an abundance 9.501%, identify the unknown isotope. Assume that chromium's average atomic mass is 52.22921 amu.
a)
Chromium-51
b)
Chromium-54
c)
Chromium-55
d)
Chromium-56
127.
Why do elements in a group have similar properties?
a)
They have the same number of electrons.
b)
They have the same number of neutrons.
c)
They have the same chemical properties.
d)
They have the same number of valence electrons.
128.
How does reactivity change as we go down the alkali metals?
a)
It decreases.
b)
It increases.
c)
It fluctuates randomly.
d)
It doesn't change.
129.
Which group of elements is the least reactive?
a)
The noble gases
b)
Alkali metals
c)
Alkaline earth metals
d)
Group 13
e)
Group 14
130.
How does the reactivity of nonmetals change within a group from the top to the bottom?
a)
It increases.
b)
It decreases.
c)
It fluctuates randomly.
d)
It doesn't change.
131.
Which group is bromine in?
a)
Group 17
b)
Group 4
c)
Group 13
d)
Group 14
e)
Group 15
132.
How many valence electrons do the halogens have?
a)
17
b)
7
c)
8
d)
It depends.
133.
With the exception of water, what do most compounds in the human body contain?
a)
Hydrogen
b)
Oxygen
c)
Carbon
d)
Calcium
134.
Which metal is most abundant in Earth's crust?
a)
Lithium
b)
Aluminum
c)
Iron
d)
Gold
135.
Which two elements do most fertilizers contain?
a)
Nitrogen
b)
Phosphorus
c)
Arsenic
d)
Antimony
e)
Bismuth
136.
Which element has a chemical symbol of "Os"?
(a)
137.
Mendeleev's decision to leave gaps in in his periodic table was NOT supported by the discovery of
a)
gallium.
b)
germanium.
c)
scandium.
d)
selenium.
138.
An atomic mass unit is
a)
one twelfth the mass of a carbon-12 atom.
b)
the mass of a carbon-12 atom.
c)
the mass of a neutron.
d)
the mass of a proton.
e)
the mass of an electron.
139.
Copper is an example of
a)
an alkali metal.
b)
an alkaline earth metal.
c)
a nonmetal.
d)
a transition metal.
140.
Which group of elements are all gases are room temperature?
a)
Group 18
b)
Group 1
c)
Group 2
d)
Group 13
e)
Group 14
141.
The most reactive metals are the
a)
transition metals.
b)
alkaline earth metals.
c)
alkali metals.
d)
metalloids.
142.
Why was it difficult to discover the noble gases?
a)
They were too expensive to prepare for research.
b)
They are gases and difficult to contain.
c)
They are difficult to detect using chemical reactions.
d)
They were too high class for commoner scientists to study.
143.
If a neutral atom of an element had 9 valence electrons, what group would you the element to be in?
a)
None of them
b)
Group 1
c)
Group 2
d)
Group 13
e)
Group 14
144.
Fill in the blank: Average atomic mass is a (a) average.
145.
When an atom loses an electron it forms a(n)
a)
anion.
b)
cation.
c)
polyatomic ion.
d)
neutral ion.
146.
The charge on a chloride ion in AlCl3 is
a)
1+
b)
1-
c)
3+
d)
3-
147.
Which pair has the same electron configuration?
a)
Cl- and Ar
b)
Cl- and Ar-
c)
Cl and Ar
d)
Cl+ and Ar
148.
A chemical bond that forms when atoms share electrons is always a(n)
a)
polar bond.
b)
ionic bond.
c)
metallic bond.
d)
covalent bond.
149.
When two fluorine atoms share a pair of electrons, the bond that forms is a(n)
a)
polar covalent bond.
b)
ionic bond.
c)
nonpolar covalent bond.
d)
double bond.
150.
The attraction among water molecules is stronger than the attraction among
a)
sodium and chloride ions.
b)
carbon dioxide molecules.
c)
the atoms in a polyatomic ion.
d)
atoms in a diatomic molecule.
151.
When is an atom least likely to react?
a)
When the lowest occupied energy level has no electrons
b)
When the highest occupied energy level has no electrons
c)
When the lowest occupied energy level is filled with electrons
d)
When the highest occupied energy level is filled with electrons
152.
How many dots should indium have for its electron dot diagram?
a)
49
b)
3
c)
2
d)
13
e)
4
153.
Which of the following is not an ionic compound?
a)
Potassium bromide
b)
Sulfur dioxide
c)
Indium oxide
d)
Iron (III) chloride
154.
What will the ratio of ions be in any compound formed from metals in Group 2 and nonmetals in Group 17?
Answers are in the format of Group 2 ions : Group 17 ions
a)
1:2
b)
2:1
c)
2:17
d)
7:2
e)
2:7
155.
How do covalent bonds form?
a)
When atoms transfer electrons to another
b)
When atoms share at least one pair of electrons
c)
When atoms let electrons freely move throughout the substance
d)
When atoms share at least two pairs of electrons
156.
Which of the following elements will not bond to form molecules?
a)
Neon
b)
Oxygen
c)
Chlorine
d)
Sulfur
e)
Fluorine
157.
Why is the boiling point of water higher than the boiling point of chlorine gas, Cl2?
a)
Water is a polar molecule, and chlorine gas is nonpolar. Water is will have stronger attractions between its molecules than chlorine gas.
b)
Water is a nonpolar molecule, and chlorine gas is polar. Water is will have stronger attractions between its molecules than chlorine gas.
c)
Water is a polar molecule, and chlorine gas is nonpolar. Water is will have weaker attractions between its molecules than chlorine gas.
d)
Water is a nonpolar molecule, and chlorine gas is polar. Water is will have weaker attractions between its molecules than chlorine gas.
158.
What happens to the charge on atoms when they form a polar covalent bond?
a)
The atom that has a greater attraction for electrons will get a full negative charge.
b)
The atom that has a greater attraction for electrons will get a partial negative charge.
c)
The atom that has a greater attraction for electrons will get a full positive charge.
d)
The atom that has a greater attraction for electrons will a partial positive charge.
e)
No charges are produced; charges are produced on nonpolar covalent bonds.
159.
What does the formula of an ionic compound describe?
a)
The ratio of ions in the compound.
b)
The ratio of neutrally charged atoms in the compound.
c)
The ratio of electrons in the compound.
d)
The ratio of electric charges in the compound.
160.
What do the name and formula of a molecular compound describe?
a)
The type and number of atoms in a molecule of the compound.
b)
The type and number of ions in a molecule of the compound.
c)
The type of number of atoms in a crystal of the compound.
d)
The type and number of ions in a crystal of the compound.
161.
Which suffix is used to indicate an anion?
a)
-ide
b)
-ium
c)
an-
d)
-less
162.
How do we indicate the charge of a transition metal ion in the name of a compound?
a)
Roman numerals
b)
Chinese numerals
c)
Greek letters
d)
Scientific notation
163.
What holds metal ions in a metal lattice?
a)
Strong bonds between metal cations and the surrounding valence electrons
b)
Strong bonds between the metal anions and the surrounding valence electrons
c)
Strong bonds between the metal cations and the surrounding valence protons
d)
Strong bonds between the metal anions and the surrounding valence protons
e)
Gravity
164.
What characteristic of a metallic bond explains some of the properties of metals?
a)
The mobility of electrons
b)
The mobility of protons
c)
The mobility of neutrons
d)
The strength of the bond
165.
Why are metal good conductors of electric current?
a)
The valence electrons are able to move freely since they aren't attached to any particular metal ion.
b)
The metal ions will move towards the negative charges and the electrons will move towards the positive charges.
c)
They conduct heat very well.
d)
They offer a low amount of electrical resistance compared to nonmetals, allowing current to flow freely.
166.
Which element has a higher melting point: potassium or calcium? Why?
a)
Potassium because potassium is able to contribute half as many electrons, compared to calcium, to metallic bonds.
b)
Calcium because calcium is able to contribute twice as many electrons, compared to potassium, to the metallic bonds.
c)
Potassium because potassium is able to contribute twice as many electrons, compared to calcium, to metallic bonds.
d)
Calcium because calcium is able to contribute half as many electrons, compared to potassium, to the metallic bonds.
167.
Can two different metallic elements form a metallic bond together?
a)
Yes
b)
No
168.
What is the formula for copper (II) nitrate?
a)
CuNO3
b)
Cu2(NO3)2
c)
Cu(NO3)2
d)
Cu2NO3
e)
CuNO2
169.
What is the chemical formula for sulfur dibromide?
a)
SBR2
b)
SBr2
c)
S2Br
d)
S2BR
170.
What is the chemical formula for ruthenium (IV) dichromate?
a)
Ru4(Cr2O7)2
b)
Ru4Cr2O7
c)
Ru(Cr2O7)2
d)
RuCr2O7
171.
What is the name of CaO?
(a)
172.
What is the name of SO2?
(a)
173.
What is the name of FeSO4?
(a)
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