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End of semester quiz

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 2hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
ATP is 
a)
Adenosine Diphosphate
b)
Adenosine Triphosphate
c)
not an energy molecule
d)
Adenotriplet phosphate
2.
The energy is stored 
a)
in the carbon bonds
b)
in the phosphate bonds
c)
in the hydrogen bonds
d)
in all of thesse
3.
What are the reactants for cellular respiration?
a)
glucose and carbon dioxide
b)
water and glucose
c)
glucose and ATP
d)
glucose and oxygen
4.
Which is not a step in aerobic respiration?
a)
glycolysis
b)
Krebs' Cycle
c)
Calvin Cycle
d)
electron transport
5.
Which process occurs in the cytoplasm?
a)
glycolysis
b)
aerobic respiration
c)
Krebs' cycle
d)
Electron transport
6.
Glycolysis converts
a)
glucose into ATP
b)
glucose into pyruvate (pyruvic acid)
c)
glucose into oxygen
d)
glucose into ADP
7.
Which process occurs in the mitochondria
a)
glycolysis and Krebs' Cycle
b)
Krebs' Cycle and Electron Transport
c)
Calvin Cycle and Electron Transport
d)
Glycolysis only
8.
This  process use proteins embedded in the ______ to move electrons.
a)
matrix
b)
cristae
c)
nucleus
d)
outer membrane
9.
The ATP synthase is
a)
an enzyme that makes ADP
b)
an enzyme that breaks ATP
c)
an enzyme that breaks ADP
d)
an enzyme that make ATP
10.
Why is oxygen so important for aerobic respiration?
a)
It is the final electron acceptor which increases the H+ concentration gradient
b)
It is the final electron acceptor which maintains the H+ concentration gradient
c)
It is the final proton acceptor which maintains the oxygen concentration gradient
d)
It is the final enzyme acceptor which maintains the H+ concentration gradient
11.
Which process produces the most ATP?
a)
glycolysis
b)
Krebs' cycle
c)
Electron transport
d)
fermentation
12.
What is the purpose of the Krebs' cycle?
a)
To  make the electron carriers
b)
To make ATP
c)
To break down glucose
d)
To break down ADP
13.
Why is cyanide deadly?
a)
It prevents the break down of glucose
b)
It prevents the break down of ATP
c)
It prevents the electrons from being transported in the electron transport 
d)
It helps produce carbon dioxide
14.
What does it mean for something to be anaerobic?
a)
It requires CO2
b)
It does not require CO2
c)
It requires oxygen
d)
It does not require oxygen
15.
Where in the cell does aerobic respiration take place?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Cytoplasm
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Cell membrane
16.
What is the waste energy from respiration given off as?
a)
Heat
b)
Light
c)
Sound
d)
Kinetic
17.
What is the function of a carbohydrate?
(Why do I need this before a workout?)
a)
Quick energy
b)
Movement
c)
Stores genetic information
d)
Speeds up reactions
18.
The element _______ is found in all of the organic compounds.
a)
Iron
b)
Nitrogen
c)
Carbon
d)
Oxygen
19.
What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
20.
Each enzyme only has 1 substrate that will fit its active site.  What is this called?
a)
reusablility
b)
denaturation
c)
specificity
d)
fragility
21.
With what 3 letters do enzymes typically end?
a)
-ose
b)
-ase
c)
-ese
d)
-tic
22.
Any substance that is acted upon by an enzyme is called a(n)?
a)
Coenzyme
b)
Substrate
c)
Vitamin
d)
Polypeptide
23.
In the diagram, what is letter A? 
a)
product
b)
substrate
c)
enzyme-substrate complex
d)
active site
24.
Enzymes are...
a)
nucleic acids
b)
proteins
c)
lipids
d)
carbohydrates
25.
An enzyme speeds up a chemical reaction in the cell but can only be used once.  True or False? 
a)
true
b)
false
26.
What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?
a)
The enzymes die.
b)
The shapes of the enzyme are altered denature
c)
The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.
d)
The enzymes remain the same
27.
What is another name for enzymes?
a)
chemical catalysts
b)
microorganisms
c)
biological catalysts
d)
inorganic catalysts
28.
Letter D...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
29.
What is structure A?
a)
Substrate
b)
Active site
c)
Enzyme
d)
Products
30.
What is structure D?
a)
Substrate
b)
Active site
c)
Enzyme
d)
Products
31.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
32.

Which 2 factors can affect the rate of enzyme activity?

a)

Light intensity

b)

Temperature

c)

pH

d)

Oxygen concentration

33.

Based on the graph, what temperature does this enzyme work best?

a)

15 C

b)

40 C

c)

30 C

d)

50 C

34.

What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?

a)

The enzymes die

b)

The shape of the enzyme changes as it denatures

c)

The enzymes become more active

d)

The enzymes remain the same

35.

A mode of transport that does not require energy

a)

Passive Transport

b)

Facilitated Diffusion

c)

Selectively Permeable

d)

Slightly Permeable

36.

The type of transport that requires the use of transport proteins

a)

Passive Transport

b)

Facilitated Diffusion

c)

Active Transport

d)

Vesicular Transport

37.

The passage of a substance from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

a)

Active Transport

b)

Diffusion

c)

Vesicular Transport

d)

Exocytosis

38.

Another name for the cell membrane

a)

Vesicular Barrier

b)

Plasma Membrane

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Insane in the Membrane

39.

The head of a phospholipid is:

a)

Hydrophobic

b)

Hydrophilic

c)

Polar

d)

Nonpolar

40.

Active Transport __________ require energy and uses the help of __________.

a)

does, protein pumps

b)

does, cytoplasm

c)

does not, transport proteins

d)

does not, sodium pumps

41.

A cell that is missing lysosomes would have a difficulty doing what?

a)

Storing Energy

b)

Packaging Proteins

c)

Digesting Food

d)

Moving Cytoplasm

42.

Some cells move large particles out of the cell through the process of:

a)

Protein Synthesis

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Exocytosis

d)

Cytoplasmic Streaming

43.

Which mode(s) of transport require energy?

a)

Passive Transport

b)

Facilitated Diffusion

c)

Active Transport

d)

Vesicular Transport

44.

Transport proteins for water are called:

a)

Glu-T

b)

Sodium-Potassium Pump

c)

Aquaporins

d)

Cohesive Channels

45.

The energy molecule that powers some modes of transport

a)

ADP

b)

ATP

c)

AGP

d)

ABP

46.

Starch, cellulose an glycogen belong to the class of

a)

proteins

b)

lipids

c)

sugars

d)

Polysachharides

47.
A carbon compound that contains two functional groups: amino and carboxyl
a)
amino acid
b)
enzyme
c)
carbohydrate
d)
nucleic acid
48.
Three fatty acids bonded to glycerol
a)
glycogen
b)
polypeptide
c)
protein
d)
triglyceride
49.
A large molecule made up of many similar or identical subunits.
a)
lipids
b)
polymer
c)
monomer
d)
monosaccharide
50.
Which of the following tests for starch?
a)
Iodine
b)
Benedicts
c)
Biuret
51.
Which of the following tests for glucose?
a)
Iodine
b)
Benedicts
c)
Biuret
52.
Which isomer of glucose is this?
a)
Beta glucose
b)
Alpha glucose
c)
Neither
53.
Which of these is not a disaccharide?
a)
Maltose
b)

Galactose

c)
Sucrose
d)
Lactose
54.
Which type of reaction joins monomers together?
a)
Hydrolysis
b)
Condensation
c)
Glycosidic
d)
Peptide
55.
Which two polysaccharides contains 1,6 glycosidic bonds?
a)
Amylose and Amylopectin
b)
Amylopectin and Glycogen
c)
Cellulose and Glycogen
d)
Glycogen and Amylose
56.
Which type of bond is found in lipids?
a)
Glycosydic
b)
Ester
c)
Peptide
57.
How many fatty acid tails do phospholipids have?
a)
3
b)
1
c)
2
d)
4
58.

Identify the stage in mitosis

a)

Anaphase

b)

Telophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Interphase

59.

Which phase of mitosis follows anaphase?

a)

Telophase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Cytokinesis

60.

When in the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

a)

G1

b)

S phase

c)

G2

d)

Prophase

61.

Identify the structure in the image

a)

Sister pair of chromatids

b)

Bivalent

c)

Integral protein

d)

Large circular chromosome

62.

What is the basic unit of life?

a)

Organ

b)

Cell

c)

Nucleus

d)

Ribosome

63.

What is the function of the Golgi apparatus?

a)

Gives energy to the cell

b)

Are the site of protein synthesis

c)

It packaged proteins and send them off

d)

It regulates what goes In and out

64.

What organelle produces ATP

a)

mitochondria

b)

Lysosome

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Golgi Apparatus

65.

Where are the proteins made?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

c)

Vacuole

66.

Organisms whose cells do not have a nucleus are called _____.

a)

Prokaryotes

b)

Unicellular

c)

Eukaryotes

d)

Multicellular

67.

What fluid can be found in cells that holds organelles?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Chlorine

c)

Blood

d)

Plasma

68.

What are the small structures inside of cells that carry out specific functions called?

a)

Tissues

b)

Organelles

c)

Organs

69.

example of a prokaryote cell is

a)

Animal Cell

b)

Plant Cell

c)

Virus

d)

Bacteria

70.

The function of the rough ER is to

a)

Produce and folding proteins

b)

Produce and folding carbohydrates

c)

Produce and folding lipids

d)

Produce and folding Nucleic acids

71.

The function of the smooth ER is to

a)

Make lipids

b)

Make proteins

c)

Make carbohydrates

d)

Make nucleic acids

72.

Cell organelle that breaks down lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins into small molecules that can be used by the rest of the cell

a)

Vacuole

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Lysosome

d)

Golgi apparatus

73.

Network of protein filaments in a eukaryotic cell that gives the cell its shape and internal organization and is involved in movement

a)

Cytoskeleton

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

Ribosome

d)

Endoplasmic reticulum

74.

Structure in an animal cell that helps to organize cell division

a)

Nucleus

b)

Nucleolus

c)

Endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Centriole

75.

Cell organelle consisting of RNA and protein found throughout the cytoplasm in a cell; the site of protein synthesis

a)

Endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Ribosome

c)

Nucleus

d)

Nucleolus

76.

Internal membrane system found in eukaryotic cells; place where lipid components of the cell membrane are assembled

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

Endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Cytoskeleton

d)

Organelle

77.

Organelle in cells that modifies, sorts, and packages proteins and other materials from the endoplasmic reticulum for storage in the cell or release outside the cell

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Vacuole

d)

Lysosome

78.
In a heterozygous genotype, the ___________ allele takes over in the phenotype.
a)
recessive
b)
dominant
c)
lower case letter
d)
both 
79.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
80.
B = brown fur  b = white fur
In the punnett square, what is the probability for white fur? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
81.
Which of the following alleles is homozygous (purebred) recessive?
a)
Tt
b)
tt
c)
TT
d)
t
82.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
83.
Aa, DD, bB, yy are all examples of
a)
genotypes
b)
phenotypes
84.
Which of the following genotypes is heterozygous?
a)
Bb
b)
BB
c)
bb
d)
B
85.
Which of the characteristics is a lion least likely to pass on to its offspring?
a)
fur color
b)
length of tail
c)
scars on leg
d)
body size
86.
What you see, or the physical appearance.
a)
Genotype
b)
Phenotype
c)
Homozygous
d)
Heterozygous
87.
B = brown eyes
b = blue eyes
What is true about these two brothers that have brown eyes?
One has genotype BB the other Bb.
a)
they have same phenotype and genotype
b)
they have different genotypes and phenotypes
c)
they have same phenotype but different genotypes
d)
they have same genotype but different phenotypes
88.

Long tongues (T) are dominant to short tongues (t) in green tree frogs. What is the probability that two frogs that are heterozygous (Tt) for long tongues could produce offspring with short tongues?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

25%

89.
In watermelons, green rinds (G) are dominant to striped rinds (g).  What is the genotype of a heterozygous green watermelon?
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
green
90.

In cats, short tails are dominant (S) and brown fur is dominant (B). Cross two heterozygous cats. What will the offspring look like?

a)

4 Short Tails Brown Fur

4 Short Tails White Fur

4 Long Tails Brown Fur

4 Long Tails White Fur

b)

8 Short Tails Brown Fur

4 Short Tails White Fur

4 Long Tails Brown Fur

0 Long Tails White Fur

c)

9 Short Tails Brown Fur

3 Short Tails White Fur

3 Long Tails Brown Fur

1 Long Tails White Fur

d)

4 Short Tails Brown Fur

4 Short Tails White Fur

4 Long Tails Brown Fur

4 Long Tails White Fur

91.

A personal with type AB blood has which genotype?

a)

type A

b)

AA

c)

IAIA

d)

IAIB

92.

What are the blood types of the possible children that a woman (type O) and man (type AB) can have?

a)

O and AB

b)

O and A

c)

O and B

d)

A and B

93.

If a person has type B blood, the phenotype is B. What can the genotype be?

a)

IBIB or IBi

b)

IAIA or IAi

c)

IAIB

d)

ii

94.

If a person has type A blood, the phenotype is A. What can the genotype be?

a)

IBIB or IBi

b)

IAIA or IAi

c)

IAIB

d)

ii

95.
Co-dominance ________________
a)
 is a situation in which both alleles are equally strong and both alleles are visible in the hybrid genotype
b)
 is a situation in which the dominant allele is stronger than the recessive allele, but both alleles are visible in the hybrid genotype
c)
 is a situation in which the recessive alleles are stronger than the dominant allele,  within which the recessive alleles are visible in the hybrid genotype
d)
none of the answers are correct.
96.

What is the end result of DNA replication?

a)

2 semi-conservative strands of DNA

b)

1 semi-conservative strand of DNA

c)

Half of a semi-conservative strand.

d)

Nothing is created

97.

If the left side of DNA contains the following bases: ATCGATCG, what would the right side contain?

a)

CGATCGAT

b)

TAGGTAGG

c)

TAGCTAGC

d)

ATCGATCG

98.

Chargaff's rules state that....

a)

The amount of A's always = the amount of C's and the amount of T's always = the amount of G's.

b)

The amount of A's always = the amount of A's and the amount of C's always = the amount of C's.

c)

The amount of A's always = the amount of G's and the amount of C's always = the amount of T's.

d)

The amount of A's always = the amount of T's and the amount of C's always = the amount of G's.

99.

What bases are considered Purines?

a)

A & G

b)

A & T

c)

C & G

d)

C & A

100.

What bases are considered Pyrimidines?

a)

A&G

b)

A&T

c)

C&T

d)

C&G

101.

What does DNA Polymerase do?

a)

It helps breakdown the new strand in DNA replication and it proofreads the strands.

b)

It helps build the new strand in DNA replication and it proofreads the strands.

c)

It helps unwind the double helix.

d)

It forms bonds

102.

What are the steps in order of DNA replication?

a)

Unwind the double helix, bond and proofread with DNA polymerase, pair new nucleotides with each old template strand, end result is 2 semi-conservative strands of DNA.

b)

Unwind the double helix, pair new nucleotides with each old template strand, bond and proofread with DNA polymerase, end result is 2 semi-conservative strands of DNA.

c)

Pair new nucleotides with each old template strand, bond and proofread with DNA polymerase, end result is 2 semi-conservative strands of DNA, unwind the double helix,

d)

Bond and proofread with DNA polymerase,unwind the double helix, pair new nucleotides with each old template strand, end result is 2 semi-conservative strands of DNA.

103.

Look at the image of DNA, what do the circles represent?

a)

Sugars

b)

Phosphates

c)

Bases

d)

Covalent Bonds

104.

Look at the image of DNA, what do the pentagons represent?

a)

Sugar

b)

Phosphate

c)

Nitrogen Containing Base

d)

Covalent bond

105.
DNA replication was proved by the experiments of:
a)
Hershey & Chase
b)
Meselson & Stahl
c)
Watson & Crick
d)
Franklin & Gosling
106.

Starting with 15N15N (heavy) DNA, and after TWO generations in the 14N medium, Escherichia coli cells will contain

a)

25% 15N15N DNA, 50% 15N14N DNA, and 25% 14N14N DNA.

b)

50% 15N15N DNA and 50% 14N14N DNA.

c)

50% 15N15N DNA and 50% 15N14N DNA.

d)

50% 15N14N DNA and 50% 14N14N DNA.

e)

25% 15N14N DNA and 75% 14N14N DNA.

107.

What determines the sequence of amino acids to build a protein?

a)

DNA

b)

Glucose

c)

Fatty Acids

d)

Enyzme

108.

What is the sequence of events that occurs in your cells to make a trait, also known as the Central Dogma?

a)

Transcription > Translation > Expression

b)

Translation > Expression > Transcription

c)

Expression > Transcription > Translation

d)

Translation > Transcription > Expression

109.

Where does Transcription occur?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

110.

What is the purpose of transcription?

a)

To copy DNA into a molecule of mRNA.

b)

To read a copy of mRNA to build a protien.

111.

What is the enzyme that copies DNA into mRNA?

a)

DNA Polymerase

b)

RNA Polymerase

c)

Reverse Transcriptase

d)

Protease

112.

Where can mRNA be found in the cell?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Both Nucleus and Cytoplasm

d)

Neither the Nucleus or the Cytoplasm

113.

After transcription mRNA goes from the nucleus to the _________.

a)

Ribosome

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Vacuoles

114.

If the mRNA codon is AUG, what would the matching tRNA anticodon be?

a)

UAC

b)

AUG

c)

TAC

d)

GUA

115.

If the mRNA codon is AUG, what amino acid would the tRNA bring?

a)

Met

b)

GLu

c)

Ala

d)

Phe

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