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Dentistry materials revisions

Total questions: 106

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What kind of forces occur at the interface between the tooth and the crown?

Select one or more:

a)

torsion

b)

shear

c)

compression

d)

tangential

e)

tensile

2.

A metal is considered to have a high density when it is...

a)

> 10 g/cm3

b)

> 1 g/cm3

c)

> 3 g/cm3

d)

> 5 g/cm3

3.

Of the following statements which is false

a)

Both in plastic and elastic deformation, the material returns to its original state and shape

b)

The final resistance is when the material stops deforming due to its fracture

c)

Elastic deformation means that when the force that effects said deformation ceases, the material returns to its original state and shape

d)

Plastic deformation means that when the force that effects said deformation ceases, the material is permanently deformed

4.

The clinical applications of fusibility in dentistry are:

a)

lost wax technique and injection.

b)

wax up and welding.

c)

wax up and injection.

d)

lost wax technique and welding.

5.

Can hardness values always be related to the ability of a material to wear resistance?

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Which impression materials provide the best reproduction of details?

a)

does not depend on the viscosity and flowability of materials.

b)

low viscosity and heavy materials.

c)

high viscosity and high flowability materials.

d)

low viscosity and fluid materials.

7.

What is the role of surfactants in impression materials?

a)

cause hydrophobic materials to become hydrophilic.

b)

hydrophobic materials do not reproduce the details.

c)

cause hydrophilic materials to become hydrophobic.

d)

hydrophilic materials do not reproduce the details.

8.

What are the factors that determine each impression material has its own working time?

a)

mixing type, moisture, setting reaction and time.

b)

temperature, mixing type, setting reaction and material viscosity.

c)

temperature, moisture, mixing type and material viscosity.

d)

temperature, moisture, setting reaction and time.

9.

The clinically acceptable setting time of an impression material is:

a)

about 5 minutes.

b)

about 3 minutes.

c)

about 1 minute.

d)

about 8 minutes.

10.

Which is the minimum time in advance for the preparation of a customized tray?

a)

1 hour.

b)

24 hours.

c)

3 hours.

d)

48 hours.

11.

What is the function of diatomaceous earth in alginate composition?

a)

it hardens the plaster when it is poured on alginate.

b)

it affects physical properties and setting time.

c)

it increases resistance and strength of material.

d)

it accelerates the alginate setting reaction.

12.

During the gypsum setting reaction, when is the exothermic reaction and heat release perceived?

a)

hardening phase.

b)

final fluid phase.

c)

fluid initial phase.

d)

plastic phase.

13.

What type of gypsum is obtained by wet calcination in a calcium chloride solution?

a)

type III and V.

b)

type II and IV.

c)

type III and IV.

d)

type IV and V.

e)

type I and II.

14.

Why is important to maintain a correct water/powder ratio in gypsum?

Select one or more:

a)

it affects the tear strength of the material.

b)

the type of expansion (normal or hygroscopic) depends on the W/P ratio.

c)

specifies the physical and mechanical properties of the material.

d)

an excess of water makes the material more brittle.

e)

indicates the minimum amount of water required for mixing the material.

15.

As the dimensional stability of alginate is low, we must:

Select one or more:

a)

delaying as long as possible pouring the impression.

b)

keep the impression as dry as possible.

c)

we must remove it in a single, quick movement.

d)

the impression must be poured within one hour.

e)

keep the impression moist until it can be poured

16.

Does cold water increase or decrease the working and setting time of alginate?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

17.

Clinically, what are the mechanisms for reducing the gypsum's setting speed during mixing its components?

a)

increase both amount of water and mixing time.

b)

increase amount of water and decrease mixing time.

c)

decrease both amount of water and mixing time.

d)

decrease amount of water and increase mixing time.

18.

What is the accuracy level of alginate as an impression material?

a)

low accuracy

b)

medium accuracy

c)

high accuracy

19.

What is the permanent deformation rate of alginate?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

7

20.

What carbon concentration must the stainless steel burs have?

a)

from 1 to 2% carbon.

b)

from 0.6 to 3% carbon.

c)

from 0.5 to 3% carbon.

d)

from 0.8 to 2% carbon.

21.

What can be the most serious complication when working with an air-high speed instrument (turbine)?

a)

cause a temperature rise to tooth and its pulp chamber.

b)

the mismatching of the bur and that it comes out.

c)

cause iatrogenic injury.

d)

cause subcutaneous emphysema.

22.

Why is essential to use water to cool handpieces?

a)

to have a better visibility of the working area.

b)

to prevent heat increase in rotary instruments (handpieces and bur) and in tooth.

c)

to prevent the handpieces and burs being damaged.

d)

to avoid damaging tooth.

23.

What is the Vickers hardness of tungsten carbide burs?

a)

1650-1700 VHK.

b)

1700-2000 VHK.

c)

800-1000 VHK.

d)

650-800 VHK.

e)

1000-1200 VHK.

24.

What are the differences between high-speed high-torque and high-speed low-torque instruments?

Select one or more:

a)

power

b)

high-torque instruments stall at additional pressure.

c)

weight

d)

rotational speed.

e)

low-torque instruments stall at additional pressure.

25.

What is the temperature increase that is considered critical for both tooth and instrument?

a)

3-6ºC.

b)

6-10ºC.

c)

5-8ºC.

d)

20ºC.

26.

Which elastomers can be poured multiple times?

a)

polyether and addition silicones.

b)

polysulphides and addition silicones.

c)

condensation silicones and polyether.

d)

condensation silicones and polysulphides.

27.

The elastic recovery of polysulphide is:

a)

the same as condensation silicones.

b)

the same as alginate.

c)

slightly lower than polyether.

d)

does not recovery elastically, but rather shrinks.

28.

Which of the following answers is correct:

a)

all are true.

b)

the polymerisation reaction of polysulphides is an addition reaction.

c)

silicones can have either a condensation or an addition reaction depending on the type.

d)

the polymerisation reaction of polyether is a condensation reaction.

29.

Which of the following materials is not part of the group of elastomers:

a)

Reversible hydrocolloids

b)

Polyethers

c)

Polysulphide

d)

Condensation silicones

30.

The polymerisation reaction of polyether is:

a)

Condensation.

b)

Addition.

c)

It is the same as alginates.

d)

Activated by light.

31.

Type of setting reaction of zinc oxide-eugenol impression material:

a)

addition

b)

thermopolymerizable.

c)

condensation

d)

acid base

32.

What are the basic components for the setting reaction of zinc oxide-eugenol

a)

Zinc oxide and magnesium chloride

b)

Eugenol and hydrogenated resin

c)

Zinc oxide and eugenol

d)

Magnesium chloride and eugenol

33.

Which of the following is correct concerning zinc oxide-eugenol impression material?

a)

It can permanently stain clothes

b)

If there are retentions in the tissues, it could fracture

c)

Has adhesion to other impression components.

d)

They are all true

34.

Which of the following answers is correct about zinc oxide-eugenol impression material:

a)

Is an inelastic impression material.

b)

Is a material used to take implant impressions.

c)

all are true.

d)

Is a material used to take impressions of teeth.

35.

Acrylic resins are indicated in the following cases, except... ?

a)

Complete mucosa-supported prothesis

b)

Definitive fixed prothesis

c)

Removable orthodontic plates

d)

Occlusal guards

36.

Which acrylic resin can be repaired with flowable composites?

a)

Bis-acrylic resin

b)

PolyMethy-methacrylate

c)

PolyEthyl-methacrylate

d)

All of them

37.

Which acrylic resin has the best colour stability?

a)

PEMA

b)

Light-curing resins

c)

Bis-acrylic resins

d)

Heat-curing resins

38.

In acrylic materials with soft relining, what is the chemical element that produces plasticity and gives this soft consistency to the relining material?

a)

Phthalates or esters of phthalic acid

b)

Benzoyl peroxide

c)

Ethylene glycol dimethacrylate

d)

The tertiary amine

39.

In what step of the handling of acrylic resins the liquid begins partially dissolve the powder?

a)

Plastic phase

b)

Sandy phase

c)

Adhesive phase

d)

Polishing phase

e)

Polymerization phase

40.

As a component of acrylic resins, hydroquinone's function is:

a)

Inhibitor

b)

Activator

c)

Iniciator

d)

Plasticizer

41.

As a component of acrylic resins, Dimethyl-p-toluidine's function is:

a)

Inhibitor

b)

Activator

c)

Initiator

d)

Cross-linking agent

42.

As a component of acrylic resins, ethylene glycol dimethacrylate's function is:

a)

Inibitor

b)

Activator

c)

Initiator

d)

Cross-linking agent

43.

As a component of acrylic resins, dibutyl phtahlate's function is:

a)

Inhibitor

b)

Activator

c)

Plasticizer

d)

Iniciator

44.

As a component of acrylic resins, Benzoyl peroxide's function is:

a)

Inhibitor

b)

Activator

c)

Plasticizer

d)

Iniciator

45.

Concerning acrylic resins, which of the following answers regarding polymethacrylates is true:

a)

Poly-methylmethacrylate has a lower glass transformation temperature than poly-butylmethacrylate

b)

As the organic acid chain lengthens in polymethacrylates, the glass transformation temperature decrease

c)

Poly-propylmethacrylate has a higher glass transformation temperature than poly-ethylmethacrylate

d)

All are true

46.

Which acrylic resin has the best wear resistance?

a)

PEMA

b)

CAD/CAM materials

c)

Bis-acrylic resin

d)

Heat-curing resin

47.

Which of the following answers is correct:

a)

The addition polymerisation reaction release water as by-product

b)

The condensation polymerisation reaction releases a by-product

c)

Any polymerisation reaction, neither addition nor condensation, releases a by-product

d)

In any addition or condensation polymerisation reaction, there is a release of water as a by-product

48.

What are the most important drawbacks of polymers?

a)

The polymerisation shrinkage and the exothermic reaction

b)

The exothermic reaction and the release of by-products

c)

The exothermic reaction and the expansion within the polymerisation reaction

d)

The polymerisation shrinkage and the release of by-products

49.

What is the role of stabilizers in the polymer composition?

a)

Delay polymerization once the chemical reaction has started

b)

Maintain physical and chemical properties for long periods of time

c)

Improve some material properties

d)

Avoid spontaneous polymerization of the components

50.

What is the clinical application of rigid addition polymers?

a)

Resin-based composites

b)

Pit and fissure sealents

c)

Acrylic resins

d)

Dental adhesives

51.

The completion of the polymerization reaction is made by:

a)

Termination by hydrogen transfer

b)

All are correct

c)

Termination by direct chain coupling

d)

Spatial cross-linked chains

e)

Termination by chain transfer

52.

What type of polymer are waxes?

a)

Easily deformable thermoplastic linear polymers

b)

Rigid thermosetting cross-linked polymers, that are easily deformable

c)

Rigid thermoplastic branched polymers

d)

Easily deformable thermosetting linear polymers

e)

Thermosetting branched polymers, that are easily deformable

53.

Why is it important for impression materials to have a low glass transition temperature?

a)

Because they are easy to handle at oral temperature

b)

Because they are rigid in the oral environment

c)

Because they are flexible in the oral environment

d)

Because they change their state at oral temperature

54.

What is the minimum power required for dental curing lights?

a)

250 mW / cm2

b)

350 mW / cm2

c)

450 mW / cm2

d)

400 mW / cm2

55.

PAC light-curing units allow composites to be cured in a shorter time than typical QTH lights or LED lights without adversely affecting properties.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

What is the wavelengh range in which current LED light curing-units work?

a)

380-490nm

b)

380-540nm

c)

400-515nm

d)

450-500nm

57.

How long does it require to polymerize dark composites?

a)

Between 30 and 40 seconds

b)

Between 20 and 30 seconds

c)

Between 5 and 10 seconds

d)

Between 10 and 20 seconds

58.

Photoinitiators are present in the organic matric of composites

a)

0.2% by weight

b)

0.5% by weight

c)

1% by weight

d)

2% by weight

59.

What happens to the composite if it polymerizes from the dirst moment with a high power?

a)

Superficial polymerization and abrupt shrinkage of composite

b)

Abrupt shrinkage and full polymerization of composite

c)

Superficial polymerization and high degree conversion of composite

d)

Abrupt shrinkage andhigh degree conversion of composite

60.

What is the function of phenylpropandione?

a)

Bonding agent between polymer chains

b)

Photoinitiator in composites of light tones

c)

Stabilizer of the composites polymerization reaction

d)

Activator of the polymerization reaction

61.

What is the recommended composite thickness for correct polymerisation?

a)

About 2mm

b)

About 3mm

c)

About 1mm

d)

About 4mm

62.

What is the light absorption range of camphorquinones?

a)

480 to 550 nm

b)

450 to 490 nm

c)

450 to 550 nm

d)

400 to 490 nm

63.

What is the main characteristic of univversal adhesives?

a)

Recommanded for use as etch and rinse adhesive on dentine only

b)

Can be used both as etch and rinse adhesives and as self-etch adhesives, both in enamel and dentine

c)

Can only be used as self-etch adhesive

d)

Can only be used as etch and rinse adhesive

64.

The acid etching time of the tooth surface is as follows:

a)

Enamel 30" and dentine 15"

b)

Enamel 10" and dentine 20"

c)

Enamel 30" and dentine 20"

d)

Enamel and dentine 20"

65.

Regarding the adhesion of the different dental structures, which of the statements is true ?

a)

Micro-mechanical adhesion is the basis of adhesion in dental enamel

b)

All answers are true

c)

Acid etching produces micro-roughness in enamel

d)

Hybrid bonding is the basis for bonding to dentin

66.

Which of the following statements regardin dental bonding is true ?

a)

The micro-mechanical retention produced by acid etching is fundamentally effective in dentin

b)

The principles of physical and chemical adhesion are the basis of dental adhesion in dentistry

c)

The smear layer is the residue of enamel and dentin that remain on the suface after cutting the tooth with the bur or other systems and reduce the permeability of the tubules

d)

Hybrid adhesion is essential in enamel

67.

Which of the following metals are considered biodegradable?

a)

Chromium and cobalt

b)

Copper and silver

c)

Gold and palladium

d)

Magnesium and zinc

68.

What are the three ways to crystallize metals for dentistry?

a)

Cubic to face centered, cubic to body centered and hexagonal

b)

Simple cubic, rhombohedral and simple tetragonal

c)

Cubic to face centered, hexagonal and rhombohedral

d)

Simple cubic, cubic to face centered and rhombohedral

69.

What grade of titanium is an alloy?

a)

II

b)

III

c)

V

d)

I

e)

IV

70.

Which of the following titanium grades has the highest elongation rate?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

IV

d)

V

e)

III

71.

What is the reason they try to limit the prosthesis metals in the mouth?

a)

Due to possible allergies to metals

b)

All are true

c)

Due to the dark color they can give to the restorations

d)

Due to possible corrosion phenomena

72.

What do UDMA, bis-EMA, and oxirane-siloxane monomers have in common compared to Bis-GMA?

a)

They are less aesthetics

b)

Their failure rate is higher

c)

They have less polymerization shrinkage

d)

They absorb less water

73.

Which of the following polymer systems is used for the organic matric in composites?

a)

Triethylene glycol dimethacrylate (TEGDMA)

b)

Poly(methyl methacrylate)

c)

Polystyrene

d)

Bisphenol A-glycidil methacrylate (Bis-GMA)

e)

Urethane methacrylate (UDMA)

74.

Which of the following organic monomers have an ionic polymerization reaction?

a)

Bis-EMA

b)

TEGDMA

c)

Oxirane-siloxane

d)

UDMA

75.

Why can improper polymerization of composites cause pulp irritation?

a)

Because unreacted monomers are left behind and can leak into the pulp chamber

b)

Due to recurrent decay

c)

For the toxicity of unreacted photoinitiators

d)

By the microleakage caused in the restoration

76.

What are the clinical drawbacks of polymerization shrinkage of composites?

a)

Postoperative sensitiviy, debonding and recurrent decay

b)

Microleakage, postoperative sensitivity and recurrent decay

c)

Water sorption, debonding and microleakage

d)

Microleakage, water sorption and recurrent decay

77.

What is the function of silane in the composite composition?

a)

It is the cross-linking agent that finishes the reaction

b)

It is the coupling agent of the organic and the inorganic components of composite

c)

It is the catalyst that makes the polymerization reaction go faster

d)

It is part of the inorganic composition and has no specific function

78.

Which of the following statements regarding ceramics is false?

a)

High-strengh feldspathic ceramics reinforced with leucite crystals lose translucency

b)

Feldspathic ceramics have a low fracture strengh around 56 MPa

c)

The main indication of lithium-reinforced feldspathic ceramics is the reinforcement core

d)

Leucite reduces the porosity of feldspathic ceramics

79.

The indications of the ceramics considered low fusion are:

a)

Total ceramic crowns

b)

Metal ceramic crowns and bridges

c)

Removable prosthesis teeth

d)

Ceramics on titanium and corrections

80.

What is a disadvantage of metal-ceramic crowns?

a)

They have a low fracture resistance

b)

They have a low translucency

c)

They are very brittle

d)

The ceramic on the metal degrades faster

81.

Which of the following statements is correct for oxide ceramics?

a)

All are true

b)

They are very aesthetic

c)

Its main indication is as reinforcement cores or copings

d)

All of them have a high part of the vitreous phase

82.

Silicate ceramics can be:

a)

Zirconia

b)

Aluminium

c)

Infiltrated with glass

d)

Feldspathic

83.

Zirconia ceramics are

a)

Ceramics infiltrated with glass

b)

Polycrystalline ceramics

c)

Leucite-reinforced ceramics

d)

Lithium-reinforced ceramics

84.

Which of the following options is an advantage of CAD/CAM ceramics?

a)

Can only be used with one type of ceramic

b)

It wear out faster

c)

The price is higher than conventional ceramics

d)

Shortens working time

85.

Which of the following materials is not used as a cavity liner or pulp capping?

a)

Glass ionomer

b)

Compomer

c)

Theracal

d)

Biodentine

86.

What effect does temporary zinc oxide-eugenol cement have on permanent resin luting agents?

a)

Inhibits the polymerization of resin luting agents

b)

Has no effect on resin luting agents

c)

Increases the polymerization of resin luting agents

d)

Increases the retention of resin luting agents

87.

The intermediate-use temporary filling materials are characterised by:

a)

Caries prevention

b)

Easy placing and remotion

c)

They had hygroscopic expansion and a good sealing

d)

High resistance to wear

88.

Why do resin luting agents generate less postoperative sensitivity?

a)

They have an exclusive chemical bond with the tooth

b)

They only produce mechanical retention and have less water sorption

c)

They produce a good marginal sealing and seal dentinal tubules

d)

They maintain the smear layer that acts as an insulator

89.

Which of the following cements is not only acid-base setting

a)

Zinc oxide-eugenol cement

b)

Calcium hydroxide cement

c)

Silicate cement

d)

Compomer cement

90.

Which of the following statements is false regarding glass ionomer cements?

a)

It does not have adhesion with dental tissues

b)

It is easy to mix

c)

It has anticariogenic effect

d)

It has high tensile strengh

91.

What does the layer/film thickness of the cements indicates?

a)

Indicates the amount of cement that flows when a crown is placed

b)

Indicates the space occupied by cement

c)

Indicates the retention of the cement related to the crown

d)

Indicates the viscosity of the cement during setting

92.

What test is used to identify wether a person has a colour-related visual impairment?

a)

Wataha test

b)

Shen test

c)

Kawasaki test

d)

Ishihara test

93.

Which of the following statements is false regarding tooth shade?

a)

The incisal area of the tooth is more translucent

b)

The canines are the most saturated teeth in concentration of tone

c)

The color of the tooth is basically provided by the enamel

d)

The cervical area of the tooth is more opaque

94.

Which of the following statements regarding the phenomena of light is false?

a)

Refraction is the deviation in the direction of a light wave when changing from one medium to another with different dentisty

b)

>Translucency is when an object lets part of the light pass through and reflects a part

c)

Diffusion is the deviation of any light ray when it hits a surface

d)

Refraction can be specular of diffuse

95.

In the opalescence of teeth the same in children, adults and the elderly?

a)

True

b)

False

96.

From the following statements, which one is correct?

a)

Tetrachromatism in humans makes the range of visible colors more sensitive

b)

Color blindness is more common in women than men

c)

Tetrachromatism in humans allows us to see beyond the visible spectrum

d)

They are all false

97.

What are the three colour dimensions described by Munsell?

a)

Hue, value and chroma

b)

Saturation, intensity and value

c)

L, a, b

d)

Tone, tint and lightness

98.

What kind of light in Kelvin degrees would be indicated to take the color of the teeth in the mouth?

a)

5500 to 5600°K

b)

4500 to 4600°K

c)

3500 to 3600°K

d)

6500 to 6600°K

99.

What are the most allergenic metals in dentistry?

a)

Boron, iron, copper, chromium and cobalt

b)

Nickel, palladium, boron, strontium and tin

c)

Nickel, palladium, chromium, cobalt and tin

d)

Aluminium, titanium, copper, tin and palladium

100.

What is a disadvantage of polishing composites and acrylic resins?

a)

Polishing does not cause any inconvenience

b)

The risk of contact allergies to released particles

c)

The risk of particle inhalation

d)

Increased allergic reactions and candidiasis in patients

101.

What are the biocompatibility problems of metallic materials used in dentistry?

a)

Allotropic material change and corrosion tendency

b)

Corrosion tendency and probable allergy development

c)

Probable allergy development and allotropic material change

d)

The effects of changes caused by temperature and pH of the oral environment

102.

What form of mercury can most affect the dentist and his team during treatment of an amalgam restoration removal?

a)

Mercury steam

b)

Oraganoleptic compounds

c)

Liquid mercury

d)

Intermetallic compounds

103.

What is the monomer released by pit and fissure sealents and Bis-GMA composites when they are degraded?

a)

Formaldehyde

b)

Bis-phenol A (BPA)

c)

TEGDMA

d)

Glutaraldehyde

104.

Which of the following answers is false regarding biocompatibility ?

a)

It is not considered that any synthetic material is inert for people

b)

All the answers are false

c)

The greatest source of biocompatibility problems between living materials and tissues is at the interface between them

d)

Once the material has been placed in the body, if it behaves in a biocompatible way, it will ne longer change over time and will always have this biocompatibility

105.

What are dental materials that generate less biocompatibility problems?

a)

Composites and dental ceramics

b)

Metals and acrylic resins

c)

Composites and metals

d)

Glass-ionomers and dental ceramics

106.

A medical device must be

a)

safe

b)

inert

c)

safe and effective

d)

effective