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Physics Paper 2 Key Knowledge Recall Quiz (Triple) - P

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 3hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which Class are you in?

a)

11P-Ph1

b)

11P-Ph2

c)

11P-Ph3

2.

Which factor would NOT increase stopping distance?

a)

Day of the week

b)

Higher Speed

c)

Icy Roads

d)

Listening to Music

3.

What is Newton's third law?

a)

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction

b)

The acceleration of an object is equal to the resultant force per unit mass of the object

c)

An object will continue moving at a constant speed in the same direction, or remain stationary, unless acted on by a resultant force

d)

Every object experiences forces

4.

What is the resultant force?

a)

2 N, upwards

b)

0 N

c)

20 N, upwards

d)

2 N, downwards

5.

A cyclist pedals a bicycle with a force of 1000 N moving it 250 m.

Calculate how much work has been done by the cyclist.

a)

4 J

b)

250 000 J

c)

0.25 J

d)

750 J

6.

A tennis ball has a mass of 80g and is served with a velocity of 40 m/s.

What is its momentum?

a)

3.2 kg m/s

b)

3200 kg m/s

c)

320 kg m/s

d)

2 kg m/s

7.

A car of mass 1000 kg is travelling at 13 m/s when it is involved in a collision. The car takes 2.2 s to stop.

What force did the car and its passengers feel?

a)

28600 N

b)

5909 N

c)

13000 N

d)

169 N

8.

A man runs a 400 m race in 50 seconds.

What is his average speed?

a)

350 m/s

b)

8 m/s

c)

20 000 m/s

d)

450 m/s

9.

Look at the graph.

What is the speed between 2 s and 5 s?

a)

8 m/s

b)

0.125 m/s

c)

10 m/s

d)

0.1 m/s

10.

Look at the graph.

What distance is travelled in 25 s?

a)

35 m

b)

25 m

c)

15 m

d)

5 m

11.

Calculate the deceleration in section Z.

(The unit is m/s2)

a)

−12.5

b)

−7.5

c)

−3.8

d)

−5

12.

Describe the motion in section X.

a)

Accelerating

b)

Constant speed

c)

Stationary

d)

Decelerating

13.

A car accelerates from 3 m/s to 12 m/s in 20 s.

What is the acceleration of the car? (The unit is m/s2)

a)

0.6

b)

0.15

c)

0.45

d)

0.75

14.

Calculate the energy needed to extend an elastic band by 2 m.

Spring constant = 10 N/m

a)

20 J

b)

10 J

c)

100 J

d)

40 J

15.

What is the spring constant?

a)

0.2 N/cm

b)

0.2 N/m

c)

5 N/cm

d)

8 N/m

16.

What load is needed to increase the length of the spring by 2 cm?

a)

3 N

b)

1.5 N

c)

2 N

d)

1.8 N

17.

What is the difference between a scalar quantity and a vector quantity?

a)

Scalar quantities can be measured but vector quantities can't

b)

Vector quantities can be measured but scalar quantities can't

c)

Scalar quantities have magnitude but vector quantities have magnitude and direction

d)

Vector quantities have magnitude but scalar quantities have magnitude and direction

18.

The ride ‘Rita’ at Alton Towers accelerates at 10.92 m/s2.

The five carriages have a total mass of 2600 kg with all 20 seats occupied.

What force is needed for this acceleration?

a)

28392 N

b)

238 N

c)

2611 N

d)

2589 N

19.

A car engine moves a car with a force of 10 kN and does 500 kJ of work.

How far has the car travelled?

a)

200 m

b)

0.02 m

c)

5 000 000 m

d)

50 m

20.

What is work done?

a)

The amount of energy used up

b)

The amount of energy created

c)

The amount of energy destroyed

d)

The amount of energy transferred

21.

Describe the motion in section Y.

a)

Accelerating

b)

Constant speed

c)

Stationary

d)

Decelerating

22.

A lever is used to lift a box. A force of 30 N is applied to the end of the lever, which is 12 cm away from the pivot.

Calculate the moment when the lever is horizontal.

a)

250 N m

b)

2.5 N m

c)

3.6 N m

d)

360 N m

23.

What is the resultant force?

a)

50 N, downwards

b)

15 N, downwards

c)

15 N, to the left

d)

50 N, upwards

24.

What is the time taken for a plane travelling at 100 m/s to cover 3 km?

a)

3 minutes

b)

30 seconds

c)

300 seconds

d)

0.03 seconds

25.

What is the increase in length produced by a load of 2.3 N?

a)

2 cm

b)

3 cm

c)

4 cm

d)

5 cm

26.

How do crumple zones prevent injury to passengers in a car accident?

a)

Crumple zones soften the crash

b)

Crumple zones make the car bounce backwards

c)

Crumple zones increase the impact time

d)

Crumple zones stop the car doors bending so people can still get out of the car

27.

Which factor would NOT change the momentum of an object?

a)

Changing mass

b)

Changing speed

c)

Changing surface area

d)

Changing direction

28.

What kind of quantity is weight?

a)

Scalar

b)

Vector

c)

Both

d)

Neither

29.

A 70 kg skydiver experiences 371 N of air resistance during her skydive.

What is her acceleration? (The unit is m/s2)

a)

5.3

b)

700

c)

329

d)

4.7

30.

What property of this wave is represented by the letter "A"

a)

amplitude

b)

crest

c)

trough

d)

wavelength

31.
What property of the wave is represented by the letter "B"?
a)
amplitude
b)
crest
c)
trough
d)
wavelength
32.
The number of wavelengths that pass a point each per second is:
a)
frequency
b)
period
c)
longitudinal 
d)
transverse wave 
33.
When the frequency of a wave increases, what happens to the wavelength?
a)
The wavelength is not directly affected by the frequency of a wave.
b)
The wavelength increases.
c)
The wavelength decreases.
d)
More specific information is needed to form a conclusion about the wavelength.
34.
Which wave in the diagram has the greatest frequency?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
35.
Which wave in the diagram has the greatest wavelength?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
36.

Which of the following can sound travel through?

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

d)

all of the above

37.

In which material does sound travel fastest?

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gases

38.

What is transferred by a wave?

a)

energy

b)

matter

c)

particles

d)

mass

39.

Which image represents a longitudinal wave?

a)

A

b)

B

40.

Sound waves are which type of waves?

a)

transverse

b)

seismic

c)

longitudinal

d)

frequency

41.
If all three are waves of light, which wave has the largest speed?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
None (same speed)
42.

Which type of electromagnetic wave has the lowest energy of this group?

a)

Radio

b)

Microwave

c)

Infrared

d)

Ultraviolet

43.
Which type of light has the highest energy of this group?
a)
red
b)
yellow
c)
green
d)
blue
44.
Which type of light has the smallest frequency of this group?
a)
red
b)
yellow
c)
green
d)
blue
45.

Radio waves and _______ are used in communication

a)

Microwaves

b)

Gamma rays

c)

Visible light

d)

Ultraviolet

46.

What is the amplitude of this wave?

a)

0.20 m

b)

0.40 m

c)

2.0 s

d)

4.0 s

47.

What is the time period of this wave?

a)

0.20 m

b)

0.40 m

c)

2.0 s

d)

4.0 s

48.

What is the frequency of this wave?

a)

0.25 Hz

b)

0.50 Hz

c)

2.0 s

d)

4.0 s

49.

The time period of this wave is 2 seconds. What is the wave speed?

a)

1.0 m/s

b)

2.0 m/s

c)

4.0 m/s

d)

8.0 m/s

50.

A gamma ray has a frequency of 1.0 x 10 20 Hz and travels at 3.0 x 10 8 m/s. What is it’s wavelength?

a)

3.3 x 10 -13 m

b)

3.0 x 10 -12 m

c)

3.3 x 10 11 m

d)

3.0 x 10 12 m

51.

Max is sitting in his boat observing water waves enter the harbour. He counts 20 waves passing into the harbour in one minute. What is the frequency?

a)

0.33 Hz

b)

3.0 Hz

c)

20 Hz

d)

1200 Hz

52.

Which of the following is the correct order for the electromagnetic spectrum shown above?

a)

Gamma, X-ray, UV, Visible, IR, Microwave, Radio

b)

Radio, IR, Microwave, Visible, UV, X-ray, Gamma

c)

Gamma, UV, X-ray, Visible, IR, Microwave, Radio

d)

Radio, Microwave, IR, Visible, UV, X-ray, Gamma

53.

Which of the following do all regions of the electromagnetic spectrum have in common?

a)

Travel at the speed of light (3.0 x 10 8 m/s)

b)

Cannot travel in a vacuum

c)

Can be reflected, refracted and polarised

d)

Need a medium to travel in

54.

Which of the following is a danger of UV radiation?

a)

Causes skin cancer

b)

Causes hearing damage

c)

Easily absorbed by water in the body’s cells

d)

Can cause cancer of the brain

55.

Which of the following is a danger of IR radiation?

a)

Causes burns

b)

Causes hearing damage

c)

Easily absorbed by water in the body’s cells

d)

Causes cancer

56.
Which type of wave arrives first during an earthquake?
a)
Primary (p-wave) waves
b)
Secondary (s-wave) waves
c)
Rayleigh Waves
d)
Love Waves
57.

This is considered as the fastest kind of seismic waves.

a)

Love waves

b)

Body waves

c)

Primary waves

d)

Secondary waves

58.

Which seismic wave can only travel through solids?

a)

Sound waves

b)

Infrasound waves

c)

Primary waves

d)

Secondary waves

59.

Primary (P) Waves can pass through...

a)

solids only

b)

liquids only

c)

vacuum only

d)

solids and liquids

60.
What is the point on the Earth’s surface directly above the focus of an earthquake?
a)
Epicenter
b)
Fault
c)
Hypocenter
d)
Tremor
61.
What is the name of the instrument that measures movements in the ground during an earthquake and creates electric signals that can be read to determine an earthquake's magnitude?
a)
Seismometer
b)
Seismic Station
c)
Seismogram
d)
Seismograph
62.
You cannot hear ultrasound because it is:
a)
too loud
b)
too quiet
c)
high frequency
d)
low frequency
63.
What type of frequency does sonar use?
a)
High frequency
b)
Low frequency
c)
Medium frequency
d)
Any frequency
64.
Sound travels at 1400m/s in water. If a ship sends a sonar signal to map the bottom of the ocean and it returns after 2 seconds, how deep is the ocean?
a)
700m
b)
1400m
c)
2800m
d)
6000m
65.
You can hear ultrasound
a)
True
b)
False
66.
What frequency range represent the human hearing capacity
a)
Below 20 Hz
b)
Between 20 Hz and 20 000 Hz
c)
Between 20 000Hz and 40 000 Hz
d)
Above 20 000 Hz
67.

Which seismic wave can travel through the earth's core?

a)

S wave

b)

P wave

68.

Stars are formed from big clouds of gas and dust is known as:

a)

dust cloud

b)

space fog

c)

neutron clouds

d)

nebulae

69.

The only force acting on the nebulae is:

a)

thermal expansion

b)

singularities

c)

gravity

d)

microscopic adhesion

70.

A star is born when:

a)

nuclear fusion starts

b)

a nebula becomes a protostar

c)

gases in a nebula condense

d)

hydrogen is used up in fusion processes

71.

When the core of a Red Giant collapses it becomes a:

a)

White Dwarf

b)

Supernova

c)

Red Supergiant

d)

Black Hole

72.

When a massive star begins to cool and expand it is known as a:

a)

Black Dwarf

b)

Red Giant

c)

Red Supergiant

d)

White Dwarf

73.

When the core of a Red Supergiant collapses, a bright event occurs, known as:

a)

white dwarf

b)

supernova

c)

big bang

d)

black hole

74.

Our sun is currently in what star stage?

a)

Protostar

b)

Nebula

c)

Main Sequence

d)

Red Giant

75.

A black hole is black because:

a)

there is nothing in it

b)

it is too small to see

c)

it is inherently evil

d)

even light cannot escape its gravity

76.

One possible outcome that is left after a supernova is a super dense core called a:

a)

Neutron Star

b)

White Dwarf

c)

Red Giant

d)

Black Dwarf

77.

After a supernova, the core can collapse into a neutron star, or if massive enough it can become a:

a)

Black Hole

b)

White Dwarf

c)

Red Supergiant

d)

Black Dwarf

78.

When the core of a Red Supergiant collapses, a bright event occurs, known as:

a)

white dwarf

b)

supernova

c)

big bang

d)

black hole

79.

Main sequence stars are made primarily of which elements?

a)

Hydrogen only

b)

Helium and Carbon

c)

Carbon and Iron

d)

Hydrogen and Helium

80.

A star that has begun nuclear fusion will last for:

a)

millions of years

b)

a few thousand years

c)

as long as the universe survives

d)

forever

81.

When a nebula condenses and takes on a shape it is called:

a)

a red supergiant

b)

a black hole

c)

a white dwarf

d)

a protostar

82.
Why won't our sun ever become a black hole?
a)
It is too massive
b)
It is too old
c)
It is too young
d)
It is too small
83.

The stable and longest lasting period of a star’s life cycle is called:

a)

The birth of a star

b)

Nebula

c)

Neutron star

d)

Main Sequence

84.

What is a celestial body that is composed of gas and emits light from nuclear fusion reactions?

a)

Nebula

b)

Star

c)

Galaxy

d)

Planet

85.

The combining of two or more atoms in a stars core into a new heavier atom is called what?

a)

Fission

b)

Fusion

c)

Nuclear Reactions

d)

Nucleosynthesis

86.
The only way the sun can send heat to Earth. Heat travels as an electromagnetic wave.
a)
Conduction
b)
Convection
c)
Thermal Radiation
d)
Electromagnetic Waves
87.
A mixture of gasses, mainly hydrogen and helium, and dust consisting of heavier elements drifting through space. These are the birth and death sites of stars.
a)
Nebula
b)
Supernova remnant
c)
Stellar dust cloud
d)
Pulsar
88.

What is the name of the dense ball of concentrated matter at the center of a rotating disk of nebular material? This material will heat up and eventually form a star.

a)

Protostar

b)

Protoplanetary disk

c)

Plasma ball

d)

Incandescent star

89.
Any star that is fusing hydrogen in its core and has a stable balance of outward pressure from core nuclear fusion and gravitational forces pulling inward.
a)
Red giant star
b)
White dwarf star
c)
Supergiant star
d)
Main sequence star
90.

What term do we use for an massive star that explodes? (These explosions are responsible for forming all atoms heavier than iron.)

a)

Novas

b)

Big bangs

c)

Supernova

d)

Thermonuclear detonation

91.

The highly dense remains of a high mass star after a supernova. An object whose gravity is so strong that all atoms have been crushed into neutrons. What is it called?

a)

Neutron star

b)

Pulsar

c)

White hole

d)

Black hole

92.

What is the term for the high-density remains of a high mass star after a supernova? An object whose gravity is so strong that nothing, not even light, can escape.

a)

Black hole

b)

Quasar

c)

Cephid

d)

Neutron star

93.

At 10,000,000 degrees Celsius (10 million oC), hydrogen begins to change into helium and energy is released in a process called?

a)

supernova

b)

pulsar

c)

nuclear fusion

d)

nuclear fission

94.

All stars begin their life in a ...?

(a)  

95.

What are the final two stages of a star about the same size as our Sun?

a)

white dwarf - black dwarf

b)

neutron star - black hole

c)

supernova - neutron star

d)

pulsar - neutron star

96.
Gravity pulls gases and dust particles in space toward one another, squeezing them into a smaller and smaller space. The temperature at the center rises high enough for nuclear fusion of hydrogen to begin.
What stage in a stars life cycle is this describing? 
a)
The birth of a star
b)
The death of a star
c)
Black Hole
d)
Stellar Nebula
97.
A star at the stage in its life cycle when it stops burning hydrogen, begins burning helium, and expands to a large, low-density star.
What stage in the life cycle does this describe? 
a)
Supernova
b)
Black Hole
c)
Main Sequence
d)
Red Giant or Red Supergiant
98.
Larger stars (stars with more mass) have a longer life cycle. 
a)
True
b)
False
99.
A relatively small, dense star at the end of its life cycle, which generates little or no energy and has contracted to its densest state.
What stage in the life cycle does this describe? 
a)
Black Hole
b)
Nebula
c)
White Dwarf
d)
Red Giant
100.
At what stage in a stars life cycle are elements heavier than iron form? 
a)
Red Giant
b)
Supernova
c)
Black Hole
d)
Main Sequence
101.
This is an image of the formation of a star, also known as a .... 
a)
Main Sequence
b)
Planetary Nebula
c)
Supernova
d)
Stellar Nebula
102.
What will happen when these magnets are brought close together?
a)
They will attract each other.
b)
They will repel each other.
c)
Both magnets will turn to the left
d)
Both magnets will turn to the right
103.
Magnets have a north and a south ___________
a)
shape
b)
color
c)
pole
d)
region
104.
Where is the strongest attraction force of the magnet?
a)
at the poles
b)
in the middle
c)
above the magnet
d)
below the magnet
105.
Iron, Nickel and cobalt are all __________________ materials
a)
Shiny
b)
poles
c)
magnetic
d)
cold
106.
Which of the following is true about a bar magnet?
a)
Its magnetic field is strongest near its center.
b)
It is surrounded by a magnetic field.
c)
The north pole is stronger than the south pole.
d)
The south pole is stronger than the north pole.
107.
How is an electromagnet different from a permanent magnet?
a)
An electromagnet is smaller and less powerful.
b)
An electromagnet's magnetism can be turned off.
c)
An electromagnet can be built without using metal.
d)
An electromagnet does not attract objects containing iron.
108.
A simple electromagnet can be made with which of the following?
a)
an electric current
b)
a turbine and nail
c)
a nail, a wire, and a battery
d)
a compass and a battery
109.
How can the strength of an electromagnet be increased?
a)
by rubbing it with a stronger magnet
b)
by increasing the coils of wire around the iron
c)
by increasing the length of the wire from the battery
d)
by loosening the coil of wire around the iron
110.
Which rule do we use to predict the direction a current carrying wire will move in a magnetic field?
a)
Fleming's Left Hand Rule
b)
Fleming's Right Hand Rule
c)
Faraday's Left Hand Rule
d)
Faraday's Right Hand Rule
111.
In Flemings Left hand rule what does the thumb point in the direction of?
a)
The direction of the magnetic field
b)
The direction of the current
c)
The direction of the force (movement)
d)
None of these
112.
In Flemings Left Hand Rule, in what direction does the second (middle) finger point? (The first finger is the one by your thumb
a)
The direction of movement
b)
The direction of the magnetic field
c)
The direction of electrical current
d)
The direction of electron flow
113.
The current in the green wire flows from the left to the right. What direction does the wire move?
a)
Up 
b)
Down
c)
Into the page
d)
Out of the page
114.
Which of the following may be done to increase the force felt during the motor effect?
a)
Increase the current, length of wire in the field or the strength of the magnetic 
b)
Increase the voltage, length of wire in the field or the strength of the magnetic 
c)
Increase the current, increase the voltage or increase the strength of the magnetic field
d)
Increase the resistance in the wire or increase the magnetic field strength
115.

A __________ is an electrical device that converts AC electricity from one voltage level to another

a)

transformer

b)

primary coil

c)

secondary coil

d)

center tap

116.

Which part (s) of the DC motor connect the power supply to the split-ring and coil?

a)

Carbon brushes

b)

Magnets

c)

Commutator

d)

Slip rings

117.

Which rule is used to find the direction of magnetic field around a straight conductor

a)

Flemming left hand rule

b)

Lenz law

c)

Flemmings right hand rule

d)

Right hand thumb rule

118.
Electrical energy passes through the overhead cables at approximately...
a)
25,000 V
b)
132 kV
c)
230 V
119.
Electrical energy enters the home at approximately...
a)
25,000 V
b)
132 kV
c)
230 V
120.
Step-up transformers...
a)
improve the efficiency of the national grid
b)
reduce the voltage to a safe level for the home
c)
both 
121.
Step-down transformers...
a)
improve the efficiency of the national grid
b)
reduce the voltage to a safe level for the home
c)
both 

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