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MCB*2050 - Weeks 1-6

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Match the function to the component involved in eukaryotic chromatin decondensing:

A) Maintain euchromatic structure of the locus (bind to DNA on a regulatory sequence on one side of the helix and interact with proteins that will open up the chromatin)

B) Add acetyl groups to histone tails which neutralizes them (histone tails condensed into chromatin are positively charged and are attracted to negatively charged neighbouring nucleosomes)

C) Interacts with pioneer transcription factors to reposition the nucleosomes to reveal the enhancer and promoter regions so that transcription factors can bind to them

a)

A) Histone acetylase complexes

B) Pioneer transcription factors

C) Chromatin remodeling enzymes

b)

A) Chromatin remodeling enzymes

B) Pioneer transcription factors

C) Histone acetylase complexes

c)

A) Pioneer transcription factors

B) Chromatin remodeling enzymes

C) Histone acetylase complexes

d)

A) Pioneer transcription factors

B) Histone acetylase complexes

C) Chromatin remodeling enzymes

2.

Which transcription factor binds the DNA first in eukaryotes?

a)

TFIIE

b)

TFIIB

c)

TFIID

d)

TFIIF

e)

TFIIA

3.

General elongation factor _____ is present in the paused and activated elongation complex but changes conformation between the two complexes.

a)

SPT6

b)

DSIF

c)

P-TEFb

d)

NELF

e)

PAF

4.

Which elongation factor stabilizes the paused state of RNA Polymerase 2?

a)

PAF

b)

P-TEFb

c)

NELF

d)

SPT6

5.

Which elongation factors block further binding of NELF, which allows RNA polymerase 2 to resume elongation?

a)

SPT6

b)

DSIF

c)

P-TEFb

d)

NELF

e)

PAF

6.

True or False? In mammalian genes with a TATA box promoters, enhancers may be either upstream or downstream from the transcription start site.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Which of the following phosphorylates NELF, DSIF, and the CTD of RNA Polymerase II?

a)

Histone acetylase complexes

b)

TFII-H kinase

c)

Pioneer Transcription Factors

d)

P-TEFb

8.

Which of the following is a class of RNA transcribed by RNA Polymerase I?

a)

miRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

siRNA

d)

snRNA

e)

Pre-rRNA

9.

True or false? miRNA and siRNA are made differently, but interact with the target molecule miRNA in exactly the same fashion.

a)

False

b)

True

10.

Within the first polypeptide of RNA Pol II, there exists a clamp domain that is closed by a (a)  

11.

The synthesis of RNA takes place in the _____ of RNA polymerase II.

a)

channel

b)

catalytic center

c)

clamp

d)

bridge

12.

Synthesized RNA exits the _____ of RNA polymerase II (specifically RBP1, the first polypeptide of RNA Pol 2).

a)

channel

b)

catalytic center

c)

clamp

d)

bridge

13.

True or false? Promoter-proximal elements and enhancers are regulatory elements present in DNA that are neither gene nor cell-type-specific.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

TFII-H kinase INITIALLY phosphorylates (upon transition from initiation to elongation) which residues in the CTD of RNA Polymerase II?

a)

Thr

b)

Pro

c)

Ser

d)

Tyr

15.

Highly transcribed regions in genes have phosphorylated CTDS. T or F?

a)

T

b)

F

16.

T or F? The core promoter elements (BRE, TATA, Initiator, DPE) box is on the nontemplate strand.

a)
False
b)
True
17.

Which of the following core promoter elements is TFII-B associated with?

a)

Initiator

b)
TATA box
c)

BRE

d)

DPE

18.

Regions of chromosomes that are lightly stained and contain active genes is called:

(a)  

19.

Regions of chromosomes that are darkly stained and contain inactive genes is called:

(a)  

20.

Which of the following core promoter elements is TFII-D associated with?

a)

Initiator

b)
TATA box
c)

BRE

d)

DPE

21.

Which of the following are general transcription factors of RNA Pol 1?

a)

TFIA

b)

TFIB

c)

TFIC

d)

TFID

e)

TFIE

22.

Which of the following are general transcription factors of RNA Pol 3?

a)

TFIIIA

b)

TFIIIB

c)

TFIIIH

d)

TFIIIF

e)

TFIIIS

23.

Which of the following core promoter elements is RNA Pol 2 associated with?

a)

Initiator

b)
TATA box
c)

BRE

d)

DPE

24.

Through the generation of clusters of identical DNA fragments attached to a solid support, there are 9 (undefined, meaning you labelled these steps) steps. Fill in the missing steps.

1. Ligate (join) the linkers

2. ________

3. Anneal to primers (covalently linked to a solid structure)

  1. 4. DNA Synthesis

  2. 5. Denature

  3. 6. ________

  4. 7. Anneal to primers

  5. 8. DNA Synthesis

  6. 9. PCR x 10

4 lines
25.

True or False: The C-terminal domain of RNA Polymerase II (CTD) is phosphorylated in the PIC complex (prior to TFII-E and TFII-H joining)

a)
False
b)
True
26.

In generation of clusters of identical DNA fragments (MASSIVE parallel DNA sequencing) attached to a solid support, the original strand is washed away, true or false?

a)

False

b)

True

27.

Which of the following elements is required to convert RNA to DNA?

a)
Ribonuclease
b)

Primer

c)

RNA Template

d)
Helicase
e)

RNA-Dependent-DNA Polymerase (Reverse transcriptase)

28.

Explain the concept of using fluorescent-tagged precursors for high-throughput sequence determination.

4 lines
29.

In an antibody, the 4 polypeptide chains are linked by (a)   bonds

30.

Which region of the antibody communicates with other immune cells to destroy the antigen?

a)

Constant domain

b)

Hyper-variable domain

31.

Which region of the antibody recognizes the antigen?

a)

Constant domain

b)

Hyper-variable domain

32.

T or F? ChIP occurs in-vitro.

a)
True
b)
False
33.

Describe the ChIP technique (Short answer question)

4 lines
34.

TATA box containing promoters are highly transcribed. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

35.

In viewing results from ChIP on a graph from a bidirectional promoter (CpG islands), what would you expect to see in terms of the peaks?

a)

b)

c)

d)

36.

In viewing results from a procedure similar to immunoprecipitation, what would you expect to see in terms of the peaks of a bidirectional promoter (CpG islands)?

a)

b)

c)

d)

37.

Massive parallel DNA sequencing can sequence _ billion DNA fragments at a time

(a)  

38.

In initiation of transcription, TF2_ and TF2_ help TF2_ sit on the DNA and bend the DNA in such a way that the initiator becomes exposed (allowing RNA polymerase to bind to both TF2_ and the initiator to form the core pre-initiation complex)

Type answer as TF2X, TF2Y, TF2Z

(a)  

39.

Which general transcription factor has both helicase and kinase activity?

a)

TFIID

b)

TFIIB

c)

TFIIA

d)
TFIIH
40.

Strain on DNA structure assists the ____ N-terminal region and ____ to melt the DNA at the transcription start site, forming the transcription bubble.

a)

TFIIB, RNA Polymerase 2

b)

TFIIH, RNA Polymerase 2

c)

TFIID, RNA Polymerase 2

41.

Transcription activators and repressors are modular proteins containing two major domains. List these domains.

4 lines
42.

True or False? Promoter-proximal regulatory elements are usually functional if moved (position independent), while enhancers (distal regulatory elements) are position dependent and usually non-functional if moved.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

True or False? Promoter-proximal regulatory elements drive transcription in one direction only.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

A (a)   is a frequently found sequence in proteins with a similar function

45.

In a protein, motifs refer to ______ and domains refer to ______.

a)

functions, sequences

b)

sequences, functions

46.

Which of the following motifs is DNA binding and characterized by regularly spaced cysteines, histidines, and a hydrophobic amino acid?

a)

Zn++ finger motif

b)

Leucine zipper motif

c)

Helix-turn-helix motif

d)

Helix-loop-helix motif

47.

Match the domains of the receptor/transcriptional activator to their location on the protein:

  • A) N-terminal region

  • B) Center region

  • C) C-terminal region

a)

A) Hormone-binding domain

B) DNA-binding domain

C) Activation domain

b)

A) Activation domain

B) Hormone-binding domain

C) DNA-binding domain

c)

A) Activation domain

B) DNA-binding domain

C) Hormone-binding domain

d)

A) Hormone-binding domain

B) Activation domain

C) DNA-binding domain

e)

A) DNA-binding domain

B) Activation domain

C) Hormone-binding domain

48.

Which domain is responsible for the translocation of the lipid-Hormone receptors/transcription activators to the nucleus?

a)

Activation domain

b)

Hormone-binding domain

c)

DNA-binding domain

49.

Which histone protein is NOT part of the nucleosome octamer core?

a)

H1

b)

H2B

c)

H2A

d)

H3

e)

H4

50.

Transcription activators bound to enhancer interact with various proteins, co-activators, and other transcription factors. Which of the following is NOT a type of protein that interacts with transcriptional activators bound to enhancers?

a)

Chromatin remodelling factors

b)

Histone modifying enzymes

c)

The mediator complex

d)

General RNA Pol II transcription factors

e)

Histones

51.

True or False: Activators/coactivators stimulate the assembly of preinitiation complexes and move nucleosomes away from the promoters.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Which of the following motifs mediates the interaction between two polypeptides to make a dimer activator (has a stretch of hydrophobicity when a coil is formed)?

a)

Zn++ finger motif

b)

Leucine zipper motif

c)

Helix-turn-helix motif

d)

Helix-loop-helix motif

53.

True or false? Although genetically inactive, heterochromatin is accessible to transcriptional machinery.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

True or false? Pioneer transcription factors are NOT activators.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

The _-termini of histones are modified by post-translational modifications (PTMs).

a)

N-termini

b)

C-termini

56.

Epigenetic inheritance refers to chromatin structure that is not encoded in DNA, but encoded in (a)   .

57.

A nucleosome is made up of _ histone proteins (Type the number)

(a)  

58.

In yeast, two mating type loci, ___ and ___, are constantly repressed through chromatin structure.

a)

Rap1

b)

HMR

c)

HML

d)

TAR

59.

____ is a repressor molecule that binds to telomeric repeats and recruits co-factors.

a)

Sir3

b)

Rap1

c)

Sir4

d)

Sir2

60.

___ & ___ are co-repressors that bind to each other and bind to deacetylated histone tails (H3 and H4 N-terminal tails)

a)

Sir3

b)

Rap1

c)

Sir4

d)

Sir2

e)

Telomere

61.

____ is a co-repressor that also functions as a histone-deacetylase and removes acetyl groups from the lysines of histone tails

a)

Sir3

b)

Rap1

c)

Sir4

d)

Sir2

e)

Telomere

62.

How many alternative transcripts can be produced by the DSCAM gene in Drosophila?

a)

48

b)

38016

c)

95

d)

17000

e)

47

63.

There are ___ possible isoforms of a membrane Ca++ -activated K+ channel

from a single mRNA.

a)

1296

b)

576

c)

384

d)

65

64.

In the regulation of sexual differentiation in drosophila, ___ is a transcription factor that can work as an activator or repressor depending on an event of alternative splicing.

a)

Sxl

b)

Dsx

c)

Tra

65.

In the regulation of sexual differentiation in drosophila, ___ is an RNA binding protein that acts as an activator of splicing of specific exons

a)

Sxl

b)

Dsx

c)

Tra

66.

In the regulation of sexual differentiation in drosophila, ___ is an RNA binding protein that acts as an suppressor of splicing of specific exons

a)

Sxl

b)

Dsx

c)

Tra

67.

Lysine (K) → Arginine (R) substitutions in histone tails maintain permanent gene _______ at telomeres.

a)

gene repression

b)

gene activation

68.

Lysine (K) → Glutamine (E) substitutions in histone tails maintain permanent gene _______ at telomeres.

a)

gene repression

b)

gene activation

69.

Acetylation of the histone tails ______ their positive charge and _______ transcription

a)

increases, induces

b)

reduces, suppresses

c)

reduces, induces

d)

increases, suppresses

70.

Pax6 contains _ alternative promoters, _ transcription initiation sites, and more than _ enhancers.

Type answer as numbers in A, B, C format.

(a)  

71.

True or False? The 5’ end of the mRNA transcript is capped by 7m-Guanosine before RNA polymerase II associates with NEFL and DSIF (elongation inhibitors)

a)
True
b)
False
72.

Match the type of signalling to the description:

Affects target cells some distance from site of synthesis

a)

Signaling by plasma membrane-attached proteins

b)

Endocrine

c)

Paracrine

d)

Autocrine

73.

Match the type of signalling to the description:

Cells respond to signals that they produce

a)

Signaling by plasma membrane-attached proteins

b)

Endocrine

c)

Paracrine

d)

Autocrine

74.

Which of the following secondary messengers are water-soluble?

a)

IP3

b)

Ca2+ ions

c)

cAMP

d)

cGMP

e)

DAG

75.

Which of the following secondary messengers are lipid-soluble?

a)

IP3

b)

Ca2+ ions

c)

cAMP

d)

cGMP

e)

DAG

76.

Match the type of signalling to the description:

Affects target cells in close proximity

a)

Signaling by plasma membrane-attached proteins

b)

Endocrine

c)

Paracrine

d)

Autocrine

77.

What is GAP in a GPCR signalling pathway?

a)

The GPCR

b)

The effector molecule

c)

The G-protein

d)

CREB

78.

Which subunit of the tyrosine kinase has an activation loop?

a)
Regulatory subunit
b)
Inhibitory subunit
c)
Glycosylation subunit
d)
Catalytic subunit
79.

True or False? Phosphorylation of the catalytic centers of the protein kinases leads to dimerization of the protein kinases.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

In the MAP Kinase signalling pathway, Ras is a...

a)

G-protein Coupled Receptor

b)

GTPase switch protein

c)

Receptor Tyrosine Kinase

d)

Oncogene

e)

Tumor Suppressor Gene

81.

Which of the following domains is involved in signal transduction?

a)

Transactivation domain

b)

Leucine zipper

c)

SH2

d)

SH3

e)

Zn finger

82.

Which of the following residues is the SH2 domain within GRB2 highly specific to?

a)

Phosphoserine residues

b)

Proline residues

c)
Phosphotyrosine residues
d)

Serine residues

e)

Tyrosine residues

83.

The association between Ras and Raf means activation of the GTPase activity of ___

a)
Ras
b)

SOS

c)

Sir2

d)
Raf
e)

GRB2

84.

____ acts as a GEF (Guanine nucleotide exchange factor) that activates Ras by replacing GDP with GTP

a)

Rap1

b)

SOS

c)

Sir2

d)
Raf
e)

GRB2

85.

14-3-3 is dedicated inhibitor of ___

a)

ERK (MAPKKK)

b)

MEK (MAPKK)

c)

Ras

d)

Raf (MAPKKK)

86.

___ goes to the nucleus and phosphorylates a transcriptional factor.

a)

Ras

b)

MAPKKK

c)

MAPKK

d)

MAPK

e)

Raf

87.

True or False? There is no second messenger molecule present in the Ras/MAP Kinase pathway.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

True or False? Ras, an oncogene that ultimately changes the expression of Fos (another oncogene), is a G-switch protein that transmits a signal through a GPCR.

a)
False
b)
True
89.

In the MAP Kinase pathway, when ERK (MAPK) goes into the nucleus, what does it do?

a)

It phosphorylates transcription factors

b)
It activates the degradation of mRNA
c)
It inhibits the transcription process
90.

In the MAPK pathway, how many transcription factors are needed to sit on the SRE (Considered a mini-enhancer upstream of the promoter)?

a)
Three
b)

Six

c)
Two
d)
One
91.

Which kinase phosphorylates SRF (which ultimately binds to the SRE)

a)
PKA
b)

RSK

c)
MAPK
d)

MAPKK

e)

Ras

92.

True or False? PI 3-phosphates and PI diphosphates (second messengers) contain PH domains.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

In the PI-3 kinase phosphoinositide signaling pathways, PI-3 kinase produces which of the following second messengers?

a)

PhosphoInositol 2,3,4- triphosphate (IP3)

b)

PhosphoInositol 1,2,- biphosphate (IP2)

c)

PhosphoInositol 3,4,- biphosphate (IP2)

d)

PhosphoInositol 3,4,5- triphosphate (IP3)

e)

PhosphoInositol 4,5,- biphosphate (IP2)

94.

True or False? In unstimulated cells, PI2 and PI3 are high.

a)

False

b)

True

95.

True or False? Inactive PKB (a kinase) exists in the cytosol.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

After translocating to the membrane, membrane-bound PKB is phosphorylated by ___ and ___, thus becoming fully activated.

a)

SH2

b)

PI-3 Kinase

c)

PDK1

d)

PDK2

e)

MAPK

97.

WIthin the genome, genes that are in close proximity to (a)   , which are large blocks of heterochromatin, are strongly repressed.

98.

True or False? CDKs promote their own activation and inactivation.

a)

True

b)

False