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Physical Science Midterm Exam Practice

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 8hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Look at the figure. What kind of graph do you call this?

a)

bar graph

b)

line graph

c)

circle graph

d)

none of the above

2.

Which of the terms below describes the systematic study of the structure and behavior of the physical and natural world through observation, experimentation, and the testing of theories against the evidence obtained?

a)

measurement

b)

curiosity

c)

science

d)

technology

3.

Science and technology are related to each other. Which of the statements below best describes the relationship?

a)

Technology is a branch of natural science.

b)

Science is a branch of technology.

c)

Advances in science may lead to advances in technology and vice versa.

d)

Science and technology are not related.

4.

Which area of Physical Science studies the nature of the universe?

a)

Chemistry

b)

Physics

c)

Biology

d)

Astronomy

5.

What would be the unit used to measure the mass of an object?

a)

grams

b)

meters

c)

Liters

d)

Degrees Celsius

6.

Which part of the scientific method requires that we use our senses?

a)

making observations

b)

analyzing data

c)

drawing conclusions

d)

revising a hypothesis

7.

What happens when the results of an experiment do not support the original hypothesis of the experiment?

a)

The scientist gives up and starts an investigation on a new topic.

b)

The data must be incorrect and are thrown out.

c)

The hypothesis is revised.

d)

The data are altered so that they support the original hypothesis.

8.

Which term below is a scientific statement that explains “how" things happen in nature?

a)

a scientific law

b)

a fact

c)

a scientific theory

d)

a hypothesis

9.

In science, the variable that is being purposefully changed and tested by the scientist, is called:

a)

control

b)

dependent variable

c)

independent variable

d)

Hypothesis

10.

Which of the following statements is true about scientific theories?

a)

Scientific theories will become scientific laws and will never change.

b)

Scientific theories are never proven they just have much supporting evidence and explain the “why”..

c)

Scientific theories become hypotheses and will be changed over time.

d)

Scientific theories summarize patterns found in nature and explain how things happen.

11.

In an experiment, these are factors that don't change in the experiment; they are conditions that are kept the same for all groups in the experiment.

a)

control groups

b)

experimental groups

c)

hypotheses

d)

constants

12.

The Big Bang is a

a)

Scientific Theory

b)

Scientific Law

c)

Model

d)

Hypothesis

13.

What is a visual representation of an object or an event in science?

a)

a theory

b)

a model

c)

a hypothesis

d)

a scientific law

14.

Why are scientific models important?

a)

They prove scientific theories.

b)

They help visualize things that are very complex, very large, or very small.

c)

They make it harder to understand things.

d)

They never change.

15.

What is the real safety rule here?

a)

Never work with chemicals.

b)

Always use unbreakable glassware.

c)

Always follow your teacher's instructions and textbook directions exactly.

d)

Never do experiments that involve flames or hot objects.

16.

Which of the following is an example of a safe laboratory procedure?

a)

tying back long hair and loose clothing

b)

eating or drinking from laboratory glassware

c)

touching hot objects with your bare hands

d)

testing an odor by directly inhaling the vapor

17.

How is 0.00069 written in scientific notation?

a)

69 × 10-5

b)

6.9 x 104

c)

0.69 × 10-3

d)

6.9 × 10-4

18.

Which of the following conversion factors would you use to change 18 kilometers to meters?

a)

1000 m/1 km

b)

1 km/1000 m

c)

100 m/1 km

d)

1 km/100 m

19.

There are 3 Liters of water in the container. This is the same as

a)

3 g

b)

300 kL

c)

3000mL

d)

0.3mL

20.

Timers at a swim meet used four different clocks to time an event. Which recorded time is the most precise?

a)

55 s

b)

55.2 s

c)

55.25 s

d)

55.254 s

21.

Which of the following clocks offers the most precision?

a)

a clock with only one hand to measure the hour

b)

a clock with only one hand to measure the minutes

c)

a clock with a hand to measure the hour and a hand to measure the minutes

d)

a clock with a hand to measure the hour, a hand to measure the minutes, and a hand to measure the seconds

22.

On the Celsius scale, at what temperature does water boil?

a)

b)

212°

c)

100°

d)

32°

23.

A lab group got the following measurements after measuring the density of an aluminum block three times Trial 1: 2.56 g/cm³ Trial 2: 3.0 g/cm³ Trial 3: 3.21 g/cm³ If the true measurement of the density of the block of aluminum is 2.70 g/cm³, how would you describe the measurements taken by the lab group?

a)

accurate

b)

precise but not accurate

c)

Both accurate and precise

d)

Neither accurate or precise

24.

The type of graph used to show how a part of something relates to the whole, represented by percentages, is this type of graph:

a)

circle graph

b)

bar graph

c)

line graph

d)

direct proportion

25.

When analyzing data that involves numbers, it is considered

a)

qualitative

b)

error free

c)

constant

d)

quantitative

26.

How do scientists communicate the results of investigations?

a)

by publishing articles in scientific journals

b)

by giving talks at scientific conferences

c)

by exchanging emails

d)

all of the above

27.

How do scientists who speak different languages make their data understandable to one another?

a)

They all use different systems of measurement.

b)

They all use SI (Systeme International/metric system) of measurement

c)

They communicate through a universal translator.

d)

They all must speak French.

28.

What is the part of an experiment that serves as a comparison in an experiment?

a)

control group

b)

hypothesis

c)

independent variable

d)

dependent variable

29.

37 degrees Celsius converted to Fahrenheit, is:

a)

98.6 F

b)

80.6 F

c)

-27 F

d)

68 F

30.

When creating a graph, the independent variable is placed on the ___ axis and the dependent variable on the ___ axis

a)

y and x

b)

x and x

c)

y and y

d)

x and y

31.

The shape of an orbit of a planet around the sun is a(an)

a)

ellipse

b)

straight line

c)

perfect circle

d)

parabola

32.

When our solar system was forming, nearly all of the mass of the solar nebula became part of

a)

the terrestrial planets

b)

the gaseous planets

c)

the sun

d)

the Oort cloud

33.

Mars, Mercury, Venus and Earth are all.

a)

terrestrial planets

b)

gas giants

c)

stars

d)

asteroids

34.

According to the nebular theory, the solar system formed from

a)

gravity pulling particles of dust and gas together

b)

large, thin cloud of dust and gas.

c)

colliding planetesimals.

d)

all of the above

35.

The following statement is TRUE about terrestrial planets.

a)

They are much larger than the other planets

b)

They have a very low density

c)

They are the outermost planets

d)

They have a rocky surface or a crust and an iron core

36.

In a model representing the solar system as heliocentric, what is located at the center?

a)

The Earth

b)

The moon

c)

The sun

d)

Mars

37.

Which of the following is the most likely reason that ancient observers believed that Earth was the center of the universe?

a)

The Earth seemed to move on its axis.

b)

Earth's motions are only recently known because of high-powered telescopes.

c)

Objects in the sky appear to circle around Earth.

d)

Ancient observers believed the universe was stationary with no movement.

38.

Which of the following helps explain why the planets remain in orbit around the sun?

a)

gravity

b)

density

c)

magnetism

d)

wind resistance

39.

The sun's energy is produced by

a)

the gravity.

b)

nuclear fission.

c)

nuclear fusion.

d)

an ordinary chemical reaction.

40.

What will happen to the relative amounts of hydrogen and helium in the sun over the next few billion years?

a)

Hydrogen will increase and helium will decrease.

b)

Hydrogen will decrease and helium will increase.

c)

Both hydrogen and helium will decrease.

d)

Both hydrogen and helium will remain the same.

41.

Examine the figure. #2 represents the sun's

a)

a radiation zone.

b)

b convection zone.

c)

core

d)

photosphere

42.

The distance between stars is typically measured in

a)

light-years.

b)

kilometers.

c)

astronomical unit

d)

miles

43.

What is the eventual fate of a star like the Sun, after it exhausts its nuclear fuel?

a)

It expands into a red giant and then collapses into a black hole.

b)

It undergoes a supernova explosion, scattering its outer layers into space.

c)

It transforms into a white dwarf and gradually cools over billions of years.

d)

It remains stable as a main-sequence star for an indefinite period.

44.

How do astronomers primarily classify stars based on their characteristics?

a)

By their color, temperature, and brightness

b)

By their size, mass, and age

c)

By their distance from Earth and luminosity

d)

By their composition and spectral characteristics

45.

At this point our Universe is estimated to be

a)

4.8 million

b)

4.8 billion

c)

13.8 million

d)

13.8 billion

46.

The hottest stars in the sky appear

a)

Red, they give off the most energy

b)

Red, they give off the least energy

c)

Blue, they give off the most energy

d)

Blue, they give off the least energy

47.

The sun remains stable over time because

a)

it is constantly losing mass

b)

it is a white dwarf

c)

of solar flares

d)

nuclear fusion in its core balances out gravitational forces trying to collapse it

48.

The life cycle of a star begins with a cloud of gas and dust called a

a)

protoplanet.

b)

constellation.

c)

protosun.

d)

nebula

49.

All stars remain on the main sequence.....

a)

for about 90 % of their lifetimes

b)

until they become protostars

c)

until about 10 billion years

d)

until they stabilize

50.

Both high-mass and low-mass adult stars fusing Hydrogen into Helium are classified as ...

a)

white dwarfs

b)

main sequence stars

c)

supernovas

d)

neutron stars

51.

Which kind of star is most likely to spend the longest time on the main sequence?

a)

low-mass red star

b)

high-mass blue star

c)

a yellow medium mass star like the sun

d)

a bright star

52.

Low-mass and medium-mass stars like our sun eventually...

a)

grow into a supergiant.

b)

become supernovas.

c)

become neutron stars

d)

turn into white dwarfs

53.

When the absorption lines of a galaxy shift toward the blue end of the spectrum, it means that the galaxy is (use EM spectrum to help-is blue more frequent or less?)

a)

moving away from Earth.

b)

moving closer to Earth.

c)

small and young

d)

large and old

54.

The big bang theory explains the

a)

origin of the universe

b)

life cycle of the star

c)

Doppler effect

d)

arrangement of constellations

55.

Hubble's Law states that the speed at which a galaxy is moving away is proportional to the

a)

mass of the galaxy

b)

galaxy's distance from Earth

c)

number of stars in the galaxy

d)

age of the galaxy

56.

Which of the following provides support for the big bang theory?

a)

red shift

b)

cosmic background radiation

c)

elliptical galaxies

d)

both (a) and (b)

57.

  Dark matter can be detected by its

a)

cosmic microwave background radiation.

b)

red shift.

c)

gravitational effects on visible matter.

d)

velocity.

58.

 What term is used to describe the rapid expansion of the universe at the beginning, as proposed by the Big Bang theory?

a)

formation of galaxies

b)

nucleosynthesis

c)

mystery

d)

cosmic inflation

59.

Using powerful new telescopes such as the Hubble Telescope, scientists are able to see ....

a)

the life on other planets

b)

100 billion light years away

c)

far into the past

d)

into the future

60.

A mechanical wave moves through a medium, which can be

a)

a liquid

b)

a gas

c)

a solid

d)

all of the above

61.

A mechanical wave generally does NOT

a)

move the medium/matter from one place to another.

b)

move through a medium.

c)

move through solids.

d)

disturb the medium.

62.

This is an example of

a)

a transverse wave

b)

a surface wave

c)

a longitudinal/ compressional wave

d)

light wave

63.

Transverse and longitudinal waves both

a)

have compressions and rarefactions.

b)

transfer energy through a medium.

c)

move at right angles to the vibration of the medium.

d)

are capable of moving the medium a long distance.

64.

Which wave causes the medium to vibrate only in a direction parallel to the wave’s motion?

a)

a transverse wave

b)

a longitudinal/ compressional wave

c)

a surface wave

d)

none of the above

65.

A period is the length of time it takes for

a)

a disturbance to start a wave.

b)

two complete wavelengths to pass a fixed point.

c)

a wave to travel the length of a rope.

d)

one complete wavelength to pass a fixed point.

66.

To determine the speed of a wave, you would use which of the following formulas?

a)

speed = frequency × amplitude

b)

speed = wavelength × amplitude

c)

speed = wavelength × frequency

d)

speed = wavelength × period

67.

A wave has a wavelength of 10 m and a frequency of 5.0 hertz. What is its speed?

a)

50 m/s

b)

2.0 m/s

c)

50 hertz/s

d)

0.50 m/s

68.

What is the amplitude of the wave on this figure?

a)

0.3m

b)

3m

c)

-3m

d)

-0.3m

69.

What is the frequency of this wave?

a)

2 Hertz

b)

0.5 seconds

c)

0.2m/s

d)

1 Hertz

70.

 To find the amplitude of a wave, measure

a)

distance from midpoint to crest

b)

the speed of the wave

c)

the frequency of the wave

d)

the wavelength from peak to trough

71.

When a wave strikes a solid barrier, it behaves like a basketball hitting a backboard. This wave behavior is called

a)

constructive interference.

b)

refraction.

c)

diffraction.

d)

reflection.

72.

When a wave travels from one medium to another, it

a)

changes speeds.

b)

always moves in the same direction.

c)

stays in step.

d)

travels in the opposite direction.

73.

A sound wave is an example of a

a)

transverse wave.

b)

standing wave.

c)

longitudinal/ compressional wave.

d)

surface wave.

74.

An ambulance siren sounds different as it approaches you than when it moves away from you. What scientific term would you use to explain how this happens?

a)

ultrasound

b)

rarefaction

c)

diffraction

d)

the Doppler effect

75.

When a sound source approaches you, the pitch you hear is

a)

lower 

b)

higher

c)

unchanged

d)

intesified

76.

A rainbow is created as light passes through water vapor in the air this happens due to 

a)

Doppler effect

b)

diffraction

c)

refraction

d)

reflection

77.

Suppose two waves collide and the temporary combined wave that results is smaller than the original

waves. What term best describes this interaction?

a)

diffraction

b)

standing wave formation

c)

destructive interference

d)

constructive interference

78.

These types of waves are the only ones that can travel through a vacuum. (empty space)

a)

Longitudinal

b)

Electromagnetic

c)

Mechanical

d)

Transverse

79.

The speed of sound is

a)

300 m/s

b)

300,000,000 m/s

c)

Can never be changed

d)

Changes if it is louder

80.

What is the wavelength of a sound wave with a frequency of 50 Hz? The speed of sound is 342 m/s.

a)

6.84m

b)

17,100m

c)

0.146 Hz

d)

6.84 Hz

81.

What is the correct order of the 8 planets in our solar system from the Sun outward?

a)

Venus, Earth, Mars, Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune

b)

Neptune, Uranus, Saturn, Jupiter, Mars, Earth, Venus, Mercury

c)

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune

d)

Earth, Mars, Venus, Mercury, Saturn, Jupiter, Neptune, Uranus

82.

 Examples of the Doppler effect in waves are

a)

The Red Shift effect

b)

changing pitch of sounds from moving objects

c)

the Blue Shift effect

d)

all of the above

83.

Which two factors determine the gravitational attraction between two objects?

a)

Time and temperature

b)

Mass and distance apart

c)

Shape and orbital speed

d)

Color and hardness

84.

Astronomers learn about the elements in stars by analyzing their

a)

parallax

b)

Apparent brightness

c)

Absorption lines/Spectra

d)

Red shift

85.

Four fundamental properties used to classify stars are?

a)

brightness, mass, luminosity. size

b)

color, brightness, mass, composition

c)

color, brightness, mass, amplitude of wave

d)

color, brightness, mass, luminosity

86.

Which element  does  our sun make through the process of nuclear fusion?

a)

hydrogen

b)

iron

c)

helium

d)

gold

87.

Which scientist/astronomer was the first to propose that the universe was geocentric?

a)

Ptolemy

b)

Copernicus

c)

Galilei

d)

Aristotle

88.

Which scientist/astronomer was the first to propose that the universe was heliocentric?

a)

Ptolemy

b)

Galilei

c)

Copernicus

d)

Aristotle

89.

 According to Kepler's laws of orbital motion, what describes the shape of a planet's orbit?

a)

circular

b)

elliptical

c)

hyperbolic

d)

round

90.

When a massive star (many times larger than our sun) no longer fuse its atoms into anything heavier than iron, it will….

a)

Slowly lose all its energy and become a black dwarf

b)

Collapse and cause a violent supernova explosion

c)

Puff off its outer layers into a planetary nebula leaving the core behind

d)

Cause another big bang (start a new universe)

91.

Our sun will eventually become a _____ when it “dies”.

a)

protostar

b)

white dwarf

c)

neutron star

d)

black hole

92.

 The heaviest elements (heavier than Iron), can be formed during…..

a)

The Big Bang

b)

fusion in smaller stars

c)

fusion in massive stars

d)

supernova explosions

93.

What is the correct order of these objects from smallest to largest

a)

Planet, star, solar system, galaxy, universe

b)

Universe, galaxy, solar system, star, planet

c)

Star, planet, galaxy, solar system, universe

d)

Planet, star, solar system, universe, galaxy

94.

What key evidence supports the Big Bang theory as the most widely accepted explanation for the origin of the universe?

a)

Fossilized remains found on Earth

b)

The observation of cosmic microwave background radiation

c)

Patterns of stars in the night sky

d)

Ancient texts describing the creation of the universe

95.


Which of the following pieces of evidence strongly supports the Big Bang theory?

a)

Observations of distant galaxies moving away from each other.

b)

Discovery of extraterrestrial life.

c)

Analysis of rock formations on Earth.

d)

Measurement of Earth's magnetic field.

96.

What determines the amplitude of a wave?

a)

The speed of the wave.

b)

The distance between two consecutive peaks.

c)

The energy carried by the wave.

d)

The frequency of the wave.

97.


What property of a wave is represented by the distance between two consecutive points in phase, such as two adjacent peaks or troughs?

a)

Wavelength

b)

Amplitude

c)

Frequency

d)

Speed

98.

What is the correct sequence of stages in the life cycle of a star?

a)

Nebula, Red Giant, Supernova, White Dwarf

b)

White Dwarf, Nebula, Red Giant, Supernova

c)

Supernova, Nebula, Red Giant, White Dwarf

d)

Nebula, Red Giant, White Dwarf, Supernova

99.

What is the leading scientific explanation for the formation of our solar system?

a)

The Ptolemaic model

b)

The Steady State theory

c)

The Nebular theory

d)

The Geocentric model

100.

According to the Nebular Theory, what is the role of a nebula in the formation of a solar system?

a)

It's a black hole at the center of the system.

b)

It's a cloud of gas and dust that collapses under gravity.

c)

It's a massive star that explodes.

d)

It's a collection of planets orbiting a star.