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Worksheets

Block 1 Full

Total questions: 131

Worksheet time: 2hrs 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the three main functions of grounding?

a)

Personnel safety

b)

Equipment protection

c)

Electrical noise reduction

d)

Wifi connection

2.

What are the three subsystems of the facility ground system?

a)

Earth Electrode

b)

Fault protection

c)

Signal reference

d)

Electrostatic

e)

Radio Frequencies

3.

What facility ground subsystem is also known as the "safety ground?"

a)

Fault protection subsystem

b)

Voltage reference subsystem

c)

Toaster-bathtub lock

d)

Signal reference

4.

The Signal reference subsystem is often called the "signal" ground as it establishes the _______ for signal circuits and controls electrical noise and static in a facility.

a)

rf carrier frequency

b)

water line

c)

equipotential plane

d)

breathing space

5.

(a)   is the conductive path between the earth and grounded object.

6.

(a)   is the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces and is essential in all communications and power ciruits.

7.

Bonds can be made in a many ways such as welding, brazing, soldering, or by compression using bolts, nuts, and special straps which make up two different types of bonding. what are they?

a)

direct bonding and inderect bonding

b)
thermal bonding and friction bonding
c)
magnetic bonding and electrical bonding
d)
chemical bonding and covalent bonding
8.

Corrosion introduces impedance, or opposition to the total current flow, into the bond which is why you do not want to bond _______ metals which are susceptible to corrosion.

a)
flammable
b)
conductive
c)

unlike

d)
insulated
9.

Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) is the ​ (a)   flow of electricity between two electrically charged objects and is caused by the ​ (b)   of an electric charge on one surface that is suddenly transferred to another surface when they ​ (c)   .

Choose from the below words
sudden
buildup
touch
slow
smelly
10.

__________ is another name for static electricity or electricity at rest.

a)
Kinetic electricity
b)
Moving electricity
c)

Triboelectricity

d)
Dynamic electricity
11.

What type of ESD failure results in a total failure of the component or assembly?

a)
Complete failure
b)
Partial failure
c)
Catastrophic failure
d)
Minor failure
12.

What type of ESD failure has happened when the component appears to be operating normally but may experience premature failure?

a)
Sudden failure
b)
Delayed failure
c)
Immediate failure
d)
Latent failure
13.

What are the three primary control measures for the ESD program?

a)

Workstation and personnel grounding

b)

Handling precautions

c)

Protective packaging

d)

Low humidity environment

e)

12 volt battery attached to the device.

14.

What is the best method for controlling electrostatic discharge across an ESDS device?

a)

Prevent build-up of the charge

b)
Using the ESDS device without any protective measures
c)
Exposing the ESDS device to extreme heat
d)
Rubbing the ESDS device with a wool cloth
15.

True or False: Ensure all hand tools are properly grounded prior to use.

a)
False
b)
Only for power tools
c)
True
16.

(a)   security is the part of security concerned with active and passive measures designed to prevent unauthorized access to any Air Force resource.

17.

Physical security requirements for a particular facility include:

a)

Type and level of information handled in the facility

b)

Type of equipment

c)

Mission of the unit to which assigned

d)

Duty hours of the facility

e)

All of these are correct

18.

What are the three access areas related to physical security?

a)

Control Area

b)

Restricted Area

c)

No-Lone Zone

d)

Auto Zone

e)

Proxy Server

19.

When it comes to physical security, your main role is to: (list the two main roles)

4 lines
20.

(a)   measures include the use of proven systems and technologies designed to deter, detect, report, and react against threats.

21.

The use of hedges or ditches around a building, bright lighting and limiting the number of entrances to a building are examples of (a)   measures.

22.

What Air Force publication series covers all safety topics?

a)

91 Air Force Instruction (AFI) series

b)

91 Navy Regulation (NAVREG) series

c)

91 Marine Corps Order (MCO) series

d)

91 Army Regulation (AR) series

23.

Safety is the responsibility of ________.

a)
no one
b)

only the military

c)

all personnel

d)
children
24.

_________ establish policy and may provide general procedures for implementing policy across the DoD.

a)

DoDMs

b)

TIA Standards

c)
Parents
d)

DoDIs

25.

_________ consist of procedures that usually contain examples for performing specific tasks, and may be separated in volumes.

a)

DoDMs

b)

DoDIs

c)

AFIs

d)

TIA Standards

26.

AFIs are like DODIs, but are written for members of the US Air Force and are intended for use by Active duty, guard, and reserve members, associated civilians, and ___________who must abide by their Statement of Work

a)
Coast Guard members
b)
Contractors
c)
Navy personnel
d)
Soldiers
27.

TIA Standards are commercial publications products that are used in designing and installing networks and are reviewed every _____ years for currency.

a)
3
b)
5
c)
7
d)
10
28.

A (a)   is a DoD defense standard that is managed by DISA and is a method of standardizing security protocols within networks, servers, and logical designs in order to enhance overall security.

29.

Match the following STIG Categories with their description:

a)

vulnerabilities can allow unauthorized access to classified data or facilities and can lead to a denial of service or access.

1.

CAT I

b)

vulnerabilities can result in loss of confidentiality, availability or integrity

2.

CAT II

c)

vulnerability degrades measures to protect against loss of confidentiality, availability, or integrity

3.

CAT III

30.

How are STIGS viewed?

(a)  

31.

Draw a picture of how you feel right now.

32.

What is the international Organization for Standardization (ISO) most famous standard?

a)

OSI model

b)

ISO 850

c)

IEEE 802.11

d)

AFMAN 91-50

33.

Drag and drop the following OSI model layers in order:

​ Application, ​ (a)   ,​ (b)   , ​ (c)   , ​ (d)   ​ (e)   , Physical

Choose from the below words
Presentation
Session
Transport
Network,
Data Link
34.

Layers 1-4 of the OSI model are considered the lower layers, and mostly concern themselves with _______.

a)

Moving Data around

b)

Interacting with the User

c)

Playing Wheel of Fortune

d)

Choosing an Operating System

35.

In the OSI Model, the (a)   is closest to the end user and therefore where data is input and output, authentication happens, and quality of service is identified.

36.

FTP, DHCP, SMTP, SNMP, and Telnet are all protocols that are utilized by Applications and Web Browsers, so you would find these at what layer of the OSI Model?

a)
Data Link Layer (Layer 2)
b)
Application Layer (Layer 7)
c)
Network Layer (Layer 3)
d)
Transport Layer (Layer 4)
37.

The ______ layer of the OSI reference model relates to the services that directly support user applications.

a)
Application
b)
Network
c)
Transport
d)
Data Link
38.

The (a)   Layer of the OSI Model is where the Operating System lies and where information is received from the session layer.

39.

Encryption, decryption, and data compression is also typically done at this layer of the OSI reference model:

a)
Network layer
b)
Application layer
c)
Transport layer
d)
Presentation layer
40.

The OSI model layer that exchanges, and dialogues between the applications on each host is the _______ layer.

a)
Transport
b)
Data Link
c)

Session

d)
Physical
41.

Which layer of the OSI reference model is responsible for the end-to-end recovery, flow control and ensures complete data transfer?

a)
Application layer
b)
Data link layer
c)
Network layer
d)
Transport layer
42.

Which layer provides the functional and procedural means to transfer data between network entities and may provide the means to correct errors?

a)
Application Layer
b)
Data Link Layer
c)
Transport Layer
d)
Physical Layer
43.

What layer of the OSI reference model is responsible for addressing packets and translating logical addresses and names into physical addresses?

a)
Data Link layer
b)
Network layer
c)
Application layer
d)
Transport layer
44.

(a)   are network/Layer 3 devices and act as a dispatcher, choosing the best path for data/information to travel such as from a user to the internet.

45.

______ are layer 2/datalink layer devices.

a)

Switches

b)

Routers

c)

Operating Systems

d)

Applications

46.

ARP, RIP, IPv4, and IPv6 are examples of Layer ____ protocols.

a)
7
b)
5
c)
2
d)
3
47.

The Data link layer is divided into two layers called:

a)
TCP and UDP
b)
HTTP and FTP
c)
LLC and MAC
d)
IPv4 and IPv6
48.

The _______ of the OSI model is responsible for node to node delivery of the message.

a)
Transport layer
b)
Data link layer
c)
Network layer
d)
Physical layer
49.

The ______ Layer of the OSI model represents the electrical media and physical parts of the system.

a)
Application Layer
b)
Data Link Layer
c)
Physical Layer
d)
Transport Layer
50.

A (a)   is a standard set of rules that allow electronic devices to communicate with each other.

51.

What are the five layers of the TCP/IP model?

a)

Application, Transport, Network, Data Link, and Physical

b)
A, B, C, D, E
c)
Data, Control, Network, Access, Transmission
d)
Session, Presentation, Network, Data Link, Physical
52.

Which protocol defines how data is formatted, transmitted, and what actions web servers and browsers should take in response to various commands for web pages?

a)
Internet Protocol (IP)
b)
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
c)
File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
d)
Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
53.

Which protocol is a method of transferring data files from one computer to another over a network?

a)
SSH
b)
SMTP
c)
HTTP
d)
FTP
54.

Match the following protocols with their descriptions:

a)

Used for Email

1.

SMTP

b)

The basis for all addressing on TCP/IP networks

2.

IP

c)

Used for remote monitoring and management of devices and hosts

3.

SNMP

d)

Uses broadcast UDP data packets to exchange routing information

4.

RIP

e)

Automatically assigns dynamic IP addresses to devices on a network

5.

DHCP

55.

What protocol resolves a network IP address to a link layer MAC address?

a)
ARP
b)
DNS
c)
TCP
d)
HTTP
56.

A virtual path to send and receive data from computers and used to communicate between two different applications is called a ______

a)
analog channel
b)

port

c)
digital tunnel
d)
physical path
57.

Match the following port names with their range:

a)

Well-Known

1.

0-1023

b)

Registered

2.

1024-49151

c)

Dynamic, Private, or Ephemeral Ports

3.

49151-63565

58.

What are the two statuses for ports?

a)
active and inactive
b)
up and down
c)
secure and unsecure
d)
open and closed
59.

________ communication means the delivery of info or data is guaranteed by the protocols employed to transmit it.

a)
Unreliable
b)
Inconsistent
c)
Untrustworthy
d)

Connection-oriented

60.

TCP is a connection-oriented communication protocol which provides ___________ and

_____________ of data packet delivery.

a)
speed and randomness
b)
security and encryption
c)
flexibility and scalability
d)

acknowledgement and sequencing

61.

________is used when speed is the primary importance, such as real-time video

conferencing, streaming audio and video, Voice Over IP (VOIP), music, and online games.

a)
High latency network
b)

TCP

c)
Slow network speed
d)

UDP

62.

This suite is a combination of protocol relationships, encompassing several different

protocols, each having different purposes and needs and is the protocol suite the

majority of the Internet uses.________

a)
HTTP/HTTPS
b)
TCP/IP
c)
FTP
d)
SMTP
63.

The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is a ___________________ protocol because data is

sent from one endpoint to another without prior arrangement and no guarantees that

the data will reach the recipient.

a)
connectionless
b)
reliable
c)
synchronous
d)
secure
64.

Convert the following Decimal numbers to Binary: 839 (10)

a)
1001001001
b)
1010101010
c)
1111000111
d)
1101000111
65.

Convert the following Hexadecimal numbers to Binary: F0A

a)

111100001010 (2)

b)

1010101111 (2)

c)

19823 (10)

d)

011100001111 (2)

66.

Convert the following Binary numbers to Decimal: 101100110(2)

a)

358

b)
1011001
c)
10110011
d)
101100110
67.

Convert the following Binary numbers to Hexadecimal: 101100110101(2)

a)
ABCD
b)

B35

c)

2438

d)

12EK

68.

The IPv4 class reserved for research and development is class ________

a)
C
b)
E
c)
B
d)
A
69.

Which class of IPv4 address has network addresses of 128-191?

a)
Class D
b)
Class C
c)
Class B
d)
Class A
70.

A (a)   is a subscript of the number and is sometimes called the “base”

71.

The place value to the far right is often called the __________

a)

Inspection method

b)

Radix

c)

Least Significant Digit

d)

Most Significant digit

72.

Which class of IPv4 addressing has network addresses of 1-126?

a)
Class B
b)
Class C
c)
Class D
d)
Class A
73.

To represent a binary IP address in a more user-friendly manner we use _______ notation.

a)
dotted octal
b)
binary decimal
c)
dotted decimal
d)
dotted binary
74.

The two types of twisted-pair cable are ________and _______

a)
FTP and Coaxial
b)
Fiber optic and Ethernet
c)
RJ45 and Cat6
d)
UTP and STP
75.

Class D addresses are reserved for _________ addressing.

a)
multicast
b)
anycast
c)
unicast
d)
broadcast
76.

What part of the IPv4 address identifies a specific network and must be assigned by IANA?

a)
Network prefix
b)
Default gateway
c)
Subnet mask
d)
Host ID
77.

Computers must have a valid __ address in order to communicate on the network.

a)
IP
b)
URL
c)
DNS
d)
MAC
78.

This type of address consists of 8 groups of hexadecimal digits (16 bits) and is separated by a colon (:)

a)
MAC address
b)
Binary address
c)
IPv6 address
d)
IPv4 address
79.

What are the names of the two parts an IPv4 address?

a)
network part and host part
b)
left part and right part
c)
top part and bottom part
d)
beginning part and ending part
80.

What IPv4 class is used for small networks?

4 lines
81.

A _______ network is capable of joining two or more devices through radio waves.

a)
wireless
b)
tangled
c)
wired
d)
corded
82.

A(n) ________connects to a wired router or switch via an Ethernet cable,

and transmits a Wi-Fi signal to a designated area.

a)
wireless router
b)
wireless access point
c)
bluetooth access point
d)
ethernet access point
83.

A ________ is any device that performs a specific function on a network.

a)
server
b)
communication device
c)
network tool
d)

network node

84.

The ______is the identifier (name) that tells you which service set (or network) to join

a)
SSID
b)
IP address
c)
Bluetooth name
d)
MAC address
85.

Which wireless network is achieved by wirelessly connecting coverage cells to provide

services to an expanded geographical location?

a)
Satellite network
b)
Fiber optic network
c)

WLAN network

d)

WWAN

86.

Which wireless computer network links two or more devices using a wireless distribution

method within a limited area such as a home, school, computer laboratory, or office

building?

a)
wireless local area network (WLAN)
b)
Bluetooth network
c)
Wide area network (WAN)
d)
Ethernet connection
87.

What type of address is normally used as the ID of a BSS (BSSID)?

a)
IP address
b)
Serial number
c)
Phone number
d)
MAC address
88.

An ________consists of all the BSSs in the network.

a)

Basic Service Set (BSSID)

b)
Local Area Network (LAN)
c)
Wide Area Network (WAN)
d)

Extended Service Set (ESSID)

89.

A ________consumes less power, provides short-range

communication, is low cost, and provides a connected communication of various devices

in people’s personal space.

a)
WiFi
b)
Ethernet
c)
USB
d)

WPAN

90.

What type of network relies on wireless as well as wired signals?

a)
Serial network
b)
Hybrid network
c)
Parallel network
d)
Analog network
91.

A wireless ________network allows one to wirelessly connect one device to

another without first connecting to a wireless router or access point.

a)
ad-hoc
b)
bluetooth
c)
fiber optic
d)
ethernet
92.

List three wireless advantages.

4 lines
93.

Which network is faster when transferring files over a local area network, wired or wireless?

a)
Both are equally fast
b)
Depends on the type of files being transferred
c)
Wired
d)
Wireless
94.

This IEEE standard is a 2.4 GHz mesh LAN protocol developed for a suite of high-level

communication protocols used to create personal area networks with small, low-power

digital radios.

a)
IEEE 802.11
b)
IEEE 802.3
c)
IEEE 802.16
d)
IEEE 802.15.4
95.

This IEEE standard uses a form of visual light communication that uses light waves from

Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) to exchange data quickly and securely at a much lower power

level compared to Wi-Fi.

a)
IEEE 802.11
b)
IEEE 802.3
c)
IEEE 802.16
d)
IEEE 802.15.7
96.

This IEEE standard was developed separately from Wi-Fi and designed for long-range

networking (spanning miles or kilometers) as opposed to local area wireless

networking.

a)
IEEE 802.16 (WiMAX)
b)
IEEE 802.3 (Ethernet)
c)
IEEE 802.15 (Bluetooth)
d)
IEEE 802.11 (Wi-Fi)
97.

__________ is a network

contention protocol that listens to a network in order to avoid collisions.

a)

CSMA/CA

b)
TCP/IP
c)
HTTP
d)
FTP
98.

This type of wireless access point has all the software required to manage the WLAN

processes with no need for additional controllers or switches.

a)
integrated access point
b)

autonomous access point

c)
centralized access point
d)
dependent access point
99.

This type of wireless access point has additional device or devices merged with the access

point to provide the additional functionalities along with existing functionality of the

access point.

a)
wired access point with integrated functionality
b)

Hybrid access point

c)
wireless access point with limited functionality
d)
wireless access point with detached functionality
100.

This type of wireless access point works as the client of the Wireless LAN Controller (WLC)

and doesn’t make any forwarding decision.

a)
Lightweight access point
b)
Centralized access point
c)
Heavyweight access point
d)
Standalone access point
101.

This type of wireless access point has either been installed on a secure company

network without explicit authorization from a local network administrator or has been

created to allow a hacker to conduct a man-in-the-middle attack.

a)
Friendly Access Point
b)
Authorized Access Point
c)
Secure Access Point
d)
Rogue Access Point
102.

The two types of twisted-pair cable are ________and _______

a)
FTP and Coaxial
b)
Fiber optic and Ethernet
c)
RJ45 and Cat6
d)
UTP and STP
103.

_________ cable is the most common media for network connectivity.

a)
Coaxial
b)
Ethernet
c)
Fiber optic
d)
HDMI
104.

Category _ UTP is not suitable for data transmission.

a)

1

b)
RJ45
c)
STP
d)

5

105.

A ________cable has the pins on end of the cable match and is used to connect two

unlike devices, such as a PC to a switch.

a)
straight
b)
parallel
c)
interchange
d)
crossover
106.

Which type of network cable has the TX and RX pins swapped on the opposite end of the cable and is used to connect like devices, such as switch to

switch?

a)
Ethernet cable
b)
Coaxial cable
c)
Fiber optic cable
d)
Crossover cable
107.

A ________cable has the pins exactly opposite on the ends of the cables and is used to connect

a PC to the console port of a switch or router.

a)
straight-through
b)
crossover
c)
coaxial
d)
rollover
108.

Which cable type has the major benefit of reducing electrical noise both within the cable (pair-to-pair crosstalk) and outside the cable (Electromagnetic Interference and Radio Frequency

Interference)?

a)
Coaxial cable
b)
Fiber optic cable
c)
Ethernet cable
d)

Shielded Twisted pair cable

109.

Fiber optic cables are immune to all types of EMF monitoring. (True/False)

a)
True
b)
False
c)
Depends on the type of EMF
110.

Which cable type supports the longest segment length?

a)
Ethernet cable
b)

Single Fiber optic cable

c)
Twisted pair cable
d)
Coaxial cable
111.

One problem with light transmissions is ____________conditions, such as fog, can degrade the signal.

a)
entertainment
b)

atmospheric

c)
emotional
d)
educational
112.

With (a)   frequency signals, the information you wish to transmit is superimposed onto a

radio frequency (RF) carrier, which increases power and range of the signal.

113.

________signals is a transmission technique that transmits a signal across a broad

frequency bandwidth and varies as the RF carrier frequency varies.

a)
spread spectrum signals
b)
digital signals
c)
analog signals
d)
narrowband signals
114.

In ________________ the symptoms are NOT the problem!

a)
exercise
b)
nutrition
c)
rest
d)

troubleshooting

115.

In the Establish a Theory of Probable Cause step, how are probable causes prioritized?

a)
Based on alphabetical order
b)
Based on the length of the cause
c)
Based on the color of the cause
d)

Most likely to least likely

116.

When implementing a solution, keep a record of each ________.

a)

What times you clocked in and out of the system

b)

Change and reversal

c)

Question and Answer

d)

Person touching the equipment

117.

What is an aspect of troubleshooting that addresses issues by digging deeper to find and

resolve underlying causes – rather than merely “putting out fires” or fixing surface-level

problems?

a)
Band-aid fix
b)
Quick patch
c)
Root cause analysis
d)
Superficial solution
118.

_________________ are used by network administrators to monitor the availability of network services, functionality of network interfaces, status of critical hardware systems, CPU, memory, or bandwidth.

a)

Network monitoring systems

b)
Social media platforms
c)
Cooking utensils
d)
Gardening equipment
119.

List five basic functions of the NMS.

a)
1. Fault management 2. Configuration management 3. Performance management 4. Security management 5. Accounting management
b)
3. Network monitoring
c)

Discover, map, monitor, alert, report

d)
1. Data management
120.

Which basic function of the NMS is to find the devices on the network and how they are connected?

a)

Discover

b)
Device authentication
c)
Network encryption
d)
Device encryption
121.

NMSs generate ____ _________, a powerful first response tool that enables network administrators to visualize their networks, display devices and up-to-date status.

a)
computer viruses
b)
internet cables
c)
wireless signals
d)
network maps
122.

Which basic function of the NMS notifies network administrators when something goes wrong?

a)
Sleeping
b)
Laughing
c)
Crying
d)
Alerting
123.

A(n) ______________ _____________ ____________ detects anomalies with the aim of

catching hackers before they do real damage to a network.

a)
Spam Filter (SF)
b)
Antivirus Software (AS)
c)
Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
d)
Firewall System (FS)
124.

_______ one of the most widely used protocols for monitoring.

a)
SNMP
b)
SMTP
c)
FTP
d)
HTTP
125.

The objects in a MIB are catalogued and has its own, unique_________.

a)
serial number
b)

object identifier

c)
barcode
d)
password
126.

Match the following description to the tool:

a)

Can be used to measure volts, resistance, and tests continuity

1.

Digital Multimeter

b)

Secures cable ends to connectors through the application of pressure.

2.

Crimper

c)

Tests for continuity and pin-out configurations

3.

Cable Tester

d)

Used to test cables and network ports by connecting the send and receive paths

4.

Loopback adapter

e)

Inserts and securely seats individual cable wires into contact slots using pressure

5.

Punch Down Tool

127.

Match the following descriptions with their tools:

a)

Checks for breaks in fiber optic cable by measuring light reflected off the break, splice, or defect in the fiber

1.

Optical Time Domain Reflectometer (OTDR)

b)

=Used in conjunction with an optical light source to measure the strength of the light tx through fiber to check for attenuation

2.

Optical Power Meter

c)

Isolates a single cable within a larger bundle of cables by generating a tone which can be detected by a probe once it gets closer to a target cable

3.

Tone Generator

d)

Can be used to measure voltage, resistance, and tests continuity in electrical circuits.

4.

Digital Multimeter

128.

Match the following software tool to the description:

a)

Searches for open virtual ports and services on a host

1.

Port Scanner

b)

Used to capture, analyze, and interpret network traffic by examining the contents of packets

2.

Protocol Analyzer

c)

Used to diagnose internet issues when the recorded upload and download speeds don't match expected performance

3.

Bandwidth Speed Tester

d)

Queries an IP address or host name to verify network connectivity by using ICMP request and reply packets

4.

ping

e)

Traces the network route from source to destination by showing the IP addresses of routers encountered on the trip

5.

tracert

129.

Match the following Software Tools to their description:

a)

Displays IP addresses associated with a given domain name and is used to troubleshoot DNS issues

1.

nslookup

b)

Provides detailed network configuration settings for the local host, including assigned IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateway and DNS settings

2.

ipconfig

c)

Shows all active network sessions including protocols used, local/foreign addresses and connection states.

3.

netstat

d)

Displays/edits the computer's cache that contains mappings of IP addresses to MAC addresses for recently contacted devices

4.

ARP

130.

________ use a series of queries to test for proper transmission and reception of data signals between devices.

a)
Loopback testing
b)

Connectivity Test Sets

c)
Parallel testing
d)
Feedback testing
131.

Some simple connectivity test sets can just test for continuity, while other more advanced sets can also test for network continuity and ________.

a)
performance
b)

Bandwidth signal

c)

Man in the Middle attacks

d)

Power over Ethernet