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Worksheets

Nat Reviewer

Total questions: 133

Worksheet time: 2hrs 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Is mass and weight is the same?

a)

Yes

b)

No

2.

Which force pulls objects towards the Earth

a)

Friction

b)

Fore

c)

Air resistance

d)

Gravity

3.

what are the major organs of the circulatory system

a)

vein, arteries, capillaries, heart

b)

Nose and Mouth, Lungs, Diaphragm, Alveoli

c)

Muscles, Bones, Ligament, Tendon

d)

Brain, Spinal Cord, Nerves, Neuron

4.

what are the major organs of the respiratory system

a)

vein, arteries, capillaries, heart

b)

Nose and Mouth, Lungs, Diaphragm, Alveoli

c)

Muscles, Bones, Ligament, Tendon

d)

Brain, Spinal Cord, Nerves, Neuron

5.

what are the major organs of the muscular skeletal system

a)

vein, arteries, capillaries, heart

b)

Nose and Mouth, Lungs, Diaphragm, Alveoli

c)

Muscles, Bones, Ligament, Tendon

d)

Brain, Spinal Cord, Nerves, Neuron

6.

what are the major organs of the digestive system

a)

vein, arteries, capillaries, heart

b)

Skin, Lungs, Kidneys, Bladder

c)

Esophagus, Stomach, Small Intestine, Large Intestine

d)

Brain, Spinal Cord, Nerves, Neuron

7.

Match the following with there function

a)

Digestive system

1.

Break down food into substances that the body uses for energy

b)

Excretory system

2.

Removing wastes produced by daily actives to do other daily life activities

c)

Muscular skeletal system

3.

support body give shape protect organs area for muscles to move store minerals and make blood cells

d)

Nervous system

4.

Control and coordinate the body’s activities. helps to sense change in environment

e)

Circulatory system

5.

Transport needed substances throughout the body and carry away the wastes

8.

Match the following with there function

a)

Digestive system

1.

Break down food into substances that the body uses for energy

b)

respiratory system

2.

take in oxegen and remove carbon dioxide from body to preform daily life activities .

c)

Muscular skeletal system

3.

support body give shape protect organs area for muscles to move store minerals and make blood cells

d)

Nervous system

4.

Control and coordinate the body’s activities. helps to sense change in environment

e)

Circulatory system

5.

Transport needed substances throughout the body and carry away the wastes

9.

What is this science tool?

a)

jar

b)

beaker

c)

thermometer

d)

ruler

10.

What does this science tool do?

a)

used for heating a liquid

b)

used for measuring volume of a liquid

c)

used for measuring mass

d)

used for measuring volume of a sound

11.

Name this tool.

a)

Thermometer

b)

Triple Beam Balance

c)

Pan Balance

d)

Safety Goggles

12.
Water is a universal solvent because it...
a)
It can be found anywhere
b)
It freezes when it gets cold
c)
floats when frozen
d)
Dissolves most substances
13.

A water molecule has the chemical formula H2O. This means that the water molecule is made up of

a)

Two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom

b)

Two oxygen atoms and one hydrogen atom

c)

Two hydrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms

d)

Two molecules of water

14.

Which of these can rapidly affect Earth’s surface?

a)

earthquakes

b)

annual rainfall

c)

sediment deposits

d)

frozen precipitation

15.

How does a volcano cause a constructive change to the Earth's surface?

a)

It floods the land.

b)

It adds new land.

c)

It takes land away.

d)

It breaks apart land.

16.

What is pictured in the diagram?

a)

canyon

b)

fault

c)

tornado

d)

volcano

17.

What is a sign that a chemical change has occurred?

a)

The physical properties are the same

b)

The state of the matter has changed

c)

The production of heat, light, or smoke is observed

d)

The substance seems to have disappeared

18.
An observation that contains numbers. Example= 5.2 g
a)
Qualitative
b)
Quantitative
c)
Genralized observation
19.
All the observations that are collected during an experiment is considered the
a)
Observations
b)
Data
c)
Evidence
d)
Quantitative
20.
Any description made from the 5 senses
a)
Data
b)
Observation
c)
Evidence
d)
Qualitative
21.

Water vapor in the air gets cold and changes back into liquid, forming cloud

a)

Precipitation

b)

Evaporation

c)

Condensation

d)

Sublimation

22.

Water moves or flows over the land surface.

a)

Infiltration

b)

Condensation

c)

Surface Runoff

d)

Sublimation

23.

Transformation of water from liquid to gas.

a)

Precipitation

b)

Evaporation

c)

Condensation

d)

Sublimation

24.

It is the process of burning, When it occurs, CO2 is released into the atmosphere

a)

Photosythesis

b)

Respiration

c)

Decomposition

d)

Combustion

25.

It is the process wherein animals or humans take a sugar and oxygen then they release carbon dioxide, water and energy

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Respiration

c)

Decomposition

d)

Sublimation

26.

It is the process wherein nitrogen is converted to ammonia

a)

Assimilation

b)

Ammonification

c)

Nitrogen Fixation

d)

Denitrification

27.

What do you call the bacteria that helps to convert ammonia into nitrate

a)

Nitrifying bacteria

b)

Denitriying bacteria

c)

Nitrogen Fixing bacteria

d)

Nitrogenase

28.

It is produced when dimethyl sulfide reacts with oxygen.

a)

Sulfur dioxide

b)

Hydrogen sulfide

c)

Sulfuric acid

d)

Ammonium sulfate

29.

It is produced when sulfur dioxide reacts with oxygen

a)

dimethyl sulfide

b)

hydrogen sulfide

c)

sulfur sulfide

d)

ammonium sulfate

30.

These bacteria incorporate sulfur into sulfate salts which can be taken up by plants

a)

Aerobic bacteria

b)

Anaerobic bacteria

c)

both A & B

d)

None of the above

31.

Tectonic plates are huge moving pieces of the Earth's crust and there are different mechanisms that can explain the causes of their movement. Which of the following are the causes of plate movement?

a)

a. radiation and conduction

b)

b. Convection currents and gravity

c)

c. Mantle convection and diffusion

d)

d. Gravity and sublimation

32.

There are three types of plate boundaries. Each type is associated with different geological features. How are mountain ranges formed by plate tectonics?

a)

a. It is formed when two tectonic plates move away from each other.

b)

b. Mountain ranges are formed when two continental plates converge, neither of the buoyant plates are able to give way and subduct beneath the other.



c)

c. Mountain ranges are formed when one of the plates (oceanic crust and lithospheric mantle) is pushed, or subducted, under the other and often it is the older and colder plate that is denser and subducts beneath the younger and warmer plate.

d)

d. It is formed when two tectonic plates slide past one another.

33.

The seven major plates are Pacific, North American, Eurasian, African, Antarctic, Indo- Australia, and South American plate. Which of the following statements is true about Pacific plate?

a)

a. This plate extends all the way over the North Pole and even

contains Siberia and the northern island of Japan.

b)

b. This plate is sandwiched between the North American and African Plates on the north and west sides.

c)

c. This plate is the largest

and it stretches all the way along the west coast of North America to the east

coast of Japan and Indonesia.

d)

d. This plate is surrounded by parts of the African, Australian, Pacific, and South American plates.

34.

Scientists did not accept Wegener’s theory of continental drift. Why was Wegener's theory rejected by geophysicists of the 1920's?

a)

a. He could not explain how or why the continents were drifting

b)

b. He could not provide evidence for the continental drift

c)

c. The presence of a continent directly over the south pole

d)

d. The earth was then thought to be too young for such movements

35.

The Ring of Fire, also referred to as the Circum-Pacific Belt, is a path along the Pacific Ocean characterized by active volcanoes and frequent earthquakes. Which of the following statements is true about the Pacific Ring of Fire?

a)

a. The Ring of Fire is home to 97% of the world's volcanoes and 99% of its earthquakes.

b)

b. The Ring of Fire is home to the deepest ocean trench, called the Puerto Rico Trench and it is located east of Guam, the 4-mile-deep Puerto Rico Trench formed when one tectonic place was pushed under another.

c)

c. The Ring of Fire is a roughly 90,000-mile chain of volcanoes and seismically active sites that outline the Pacific Ocean.

d)

d. The Ring of Fire is the result of plate tectonics and it is a string of underwater volcanoes and earthquake sites around the edges of the Pacific Ocean.

36.

Plate tectonics is a scientific theory that explains how major landforms are created as a result of Earth's subterranean movements. Plate plates are able to move because Earth's lithosphere has greater mechanical strength than the underlying asthenosphere. Which of these is NOT the result of plate tectonics?

a)

a. earthquake distribution

b)

b. polar wander

c)

c. formation of new oceans

d)

d. convection in the outer core

37.

How did Wegener’s hypothesis of continental drift differ from the current theory of plate tectonics?

a)

a. Wegener’s hypothesis was supported with evidence from fossils and rock formations.

b)

b. According to Wegener’s hypothesis, South America and Africa were father apart in the past.

c)

c. According to Wegener’s hypothesis, the driving force for plate tectonics was mantle convection.

d)

d. Wegener’s hypothesis was based on the assumption that the continents were much younger than the ocean basins.

38.

A student finds a map of the tectonic plates in a reputable geology resource. The map is completely different from the map on the NOAA website. Some plates are of different shapes and sizes, some are in different locations, and some do not even exist at all. What is the most reasonable explanation for this?

a)

a. The map represents the plates as they existed 200 million years ago.

b)

b. The approximate depth inside the Earth where the hotspot magma originates.

c)

c. There is a random distribution of rocks of various ages on the islands.

d)

d. Sediments from continents are carried to the ocean in rivers and spread out on the ocean floor.

39.

Scientists collect a set of core samples from the ocean floor and plot the age of the basalt on a map. They notice that the age of the basalts increases steadily from east to west until a certain point and then starts to decrease again. The scientists then collect samples along series of parallel tracks and notice the same pattern along each track. Which topographic feature most likely lies along the ocean floor where the rocks begin to decrease in age?

a)

a. A deep submarine trench

b)

b. Underwater landforms

c)

c. Abyssal plains

d)

d. Continental shelf

40.

The theory of sea floor spreading was developed by an American geophysicist in 1962. What technique was used to do this?

a)

a. Seismic survey

b)

b. Magnetic survey

c)

c. Echo sounding survey

d)

d. Gravity survey

41.

Continental drift was a theory that explained how continents shift position on Earth’s surface and Wegener together with his supporters collected a great deal of evidence for the continental drift hypothesis. Which of the following evidences is used to support the continental drift hypothesis?

a)

a. the distribution of ancient fossils, rocks and mountain ranges

b)

b. seafloor spreading

c)

c. subduction

d)

d. formation of island arc and trenches

42.

Volcanic island arcs are associated with __________ .

a)

a. transform plate boundaries

b)

b. divergent plate boundaries

c)

c. ocean-ocean convergent plate boundaries

d)

d. ocean-continent convergent plate boundaries

43.

1. Scientist found that the continents were moving apart from each other due to magma rising out of mid-ocean ridges and they called this:

a)

a. Rift valley

b)

b. Seafloor spreading

c)

c. Submarine volcanoes

d)

d. Ocean trenches

44.

What geologic feature will occur along divergent plate boundaries where new ocean floor is created as the Earth tectonic plates spread apart?

a)

a. fault

b)

b.mid-ocean ridges

c)

c. island arc

d)

d. mountain ranges

45.

What leads to the creation of island arcs?

a)

a. Collision of two oceanic plates

b)

b. Collision of two continental plates

c)

c. Collision of a continental and an oceanic plate

d)

d. All of the above

46.

Scientists believe that differences in ____ cause hot, plastic like rock in the asthenosphere to rise toward Earth's surface.

a)

a. weight

b)

b. magnetism

c)

c. density

d)

d. composition

47.

Which scientist is credited with proposing the ideas that led to the development of the plate

tectonics theory?

a)

a. Charles Darwin

b)

b. Albert Einstein

c)

c. Isaac Newton

d)

d. Alfred Wegener

48.

Which of these statements is correct?

a)

a. Continental crust is thicker than oceanic crust

b)

b. Continental crust is thinner than oceanic crust

c)

c. Oceanic crust is thicker than continental crust

d)

d. Continental and oceanic crusts have the same thickness

49.

When looking at mid -ocean ridges, the oldest rocks are __________.

a)

a. Found close to the rift zone

b)

b. Found close to the rift valley

c)

c. In the middle

d)

d. Found far from the mid-ocean ridges

50.

How is oceanic crust forced back into the earth's mantle?

a)

a. It wants to float but is forced to curl as it cools.

b)

b. It wants to float but is forced under by colliding plates.

c)

c. It wants to sink because it is made of high-density minerals.

d)

d. It wants to sink because it is cold and therefore dense.

51.
An object at rest will _______ if no outside forces are applied.
a)
Stay at rest
b)
Increase Velocity
c)
Decrease Mass
52.
A greater applied force is required to move an object with a greater mass than one with a smaller mass.
a)
True
b)
False
53.
The SI units for force are...
a)
Kilograms
b)
Newtons
c)
Meters per second
d)
Pounds
54.
If a baseball and a cannonball are dropped from the same height at the same time, which ball will hit the ground first?
a)
the cannonball
b)
the baseball
c)
The balls land at the same time.
d)
the ball with the larger volume
55.
A crumpled piece of paper hits the ground before a flat sheet of paper because
a)
the acceleration of gravity is greater on the  crumpled paper.
b)
there is more air resistance against the flat paper.
c)
the crumpled paper is more massive
d)
the crumpled paper is less massive.
56.
According to Newton’s first law of motion, a moving object that is not acted on by an unbalanced force will
a)
remain in motion.
b)
eventually come to a stop.
c)
change its momentum.
d)
accelerate.
57.
If a force of 26 N is exerted on two balls, one with a mass of 0.52 kg and the other with a mass of 0.78 kg, which ball will have the greater acceleration?  (F=ma)
a)
The one with a mass of .78 kg will have the greatest acceleration.
b)
The one with a mass of .52 kg will have the greatest acceleration.
c)
They will both accelerate at the same rate.
58.
Who is the scientist who came up with the Laws of Motion?
a)
Sir Issac Newton
b)
The Greeks
c)
John Dalton
d)
Sir John Newt
59.
What law states an object at rest stays at rest unless acted upon by a net force or a moving object at a contant speed will continue to move in a straight at a constant speed?
a)
First
b)
Second
c)
Third
d)
Fourth
60.
What law describes how acceleration, mass and net force are related?
a)
First
b)
Second
c)
Third
d)
Fourth
61.
F=M X A goes with which law of motion?
a)
First
b)
Second
c)
Third
d)
Fourth
62.
Which law states that when one object exerts a force on a second object, the second object exerts a force on the first object?
a)
First
b)
Second
c)
Third
d)
Fourth
63.
Pushing on a wall is an example of which law of motion?
a)
First
b)
Second
c)
Third
d)
Fourth
64.
Kicking a football is an example of which law of motion?
a)
First
b)
Second
c)
Third
d)
Fourth
65.
Forces always act in equal and opposite pairs.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
Newton's 4th Law
66.
A(n) __________ is a push or pull.
a)
newton
b)
acceleration
c)
force
d)
momentum
67.
A ____ force is the total force felt by an object.
a)
sum
b)
net
c)
strong
d)
balanced
68.
In order to be ____ forces, their effects must cancel each other out and not cause a change in an object's motion.
a)
balanced
b)
strong
c)
weak
d)
normal
69.

The unit of Force is

a)

Kilogram metre per second square

b)

Kilogram metre per second

c)

Kilogram metre

d)

Metre per second

70.

Which theory is Albert Einstein's

a)

Theory of relativity

b)

First law of motion

c)

Universal Law of gravitation

d)

Second law of motion

71.

Velocity is a vector quantity

a)

True

b)

False

72.

We can hear sound in space

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Speed is velocity with direction

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Light year is a unit to measure

a)

Time

b)

Distance

c)

Mass

d)

Gravity

75.

Acceleration is rate of change of

a)

Velocity

b)

Distance

c)

Time

d)

Displacement

76.

Mass is a universal constant

a)

True

b)

False

77.

What type of wave is light wave

a)

Electromagnetic

b)

Plastic

c)

Molecular

d)

Not predictable

78.

Pressure is

a)

Thrust upon Area

b)

Force times displacement

c)

Area times height

d)

Volume times density

79.

How is the periodic table of elements arranged?

(a)  

80.

The atomic number gives us

a)

protons

b)

electrons

c)

mass

d)

neutrons

e)

nucleus

81.

Match the following

a)

proton

1.

lives in the nucleus & positively charge

b)

electron

2.

lives in the cloud & negatively charge

c)

neutron

3.

lives in the nucleus & no charge

d)

valence electron

4.

lives in the last ring & negatively charge

e)

nucleus

5.

where protons & neutrons are found and largest mass

82.

Label the correct subatomic particles

83.

Label the metals, nonmetals and metalloids

84.

Match the following

a)

metalloids

1.

characteristics of both metals and nonmetals

b)

metals

2.

generally shiny, malleable, ductile, and good conductors of heat and electricity

c)

nonmetals

3.

generally dull, brittle, and poor conductors of heat and electricity

d)

groups/family

4.

vertical columns on the Periodic Table that contain elements with similar properties

e)

period

5.

the horizontal rows of elements on the Periodic Table

85.

Describe TWO things that the groups/families lets us know about the elements.

4 lines
86.

How many periods does the periodic table have AND what do each period tell us about the elements?

4 lines
87.

Valence electrons live in the ​ (a)   ring of the atomic structure. It tells us how ​ (b)   the elements are. Group 1 are the ​ (c)   whereas group 18 are the ​ (d)  

Choose from the below words
outermost
reactive
most reactive
least reactive
innermost
88.

Identify which are the products and reactants

89.

The Law of Conservation of Mass states that

a)

compounds and elements are the same

b)

elements can be destroyed

c)

matter cannot be created or destroyed, but can be transformed

d)

mass is the same for all the objects if they need to exist

90.

This change is a

a)

chemical reaction

b)

physical change

c)

musical change

d)

Ice Ice baby

91.

How is a chemical change different from a physical change?

a)

there is no difference

b)

a physical change creates a new substance

c)

a chemical change creates a new substance

92.
Is burning wood a chemical or physical change?
a)
chemical
b)
physical
93.

Is glass breaking a chemical or physical change?

a)
chemical
b)
physical
94.

A white tablet is dropped into water. The water becomes cloudy and bubbles are produced. What type of change has occurred?

a)

Physical change

b)

Chemical change

c)

No change

95.

The trends on the periodic table are dependent on..

a)

how attracted a valence electron is to the nucleus

b)

how attracted valence electrons are to each other

c)

how attracted a valence electrons is to a non valence electron

d)

how attracted a non valence electron is to the nucleus

96.

The trends on the periodic table are dependent on..

a)

how attracted a valence electron is to the nucleus

b)

how attracted valence electrons are to each other

c)

how attracted a valence electrons is to a non valence electron

d)

how attracted a non valence electron is to the nucleus

97.

What makes a valence electron more attracted to the nucleus?

a)

less distance between the nucleus and having less protons

b)

less distance between the nucleus and having more protons

c)

more distance between the nucleus and having less protons

d)

more distance between the nucleus and having more protons

e)

less distance and having more valence electrons

98.

What is the tendency of an atom to attract electrons towards itself in a bond?

a)

atomic radius

b)

ionization energy

c)

shielding

d)

Electronegativity

99.

The higher the ionization energy...

a)

the more attracted the valence electron is to the nucleus so it is harder to remove

b)

the less attracted the valence electron is to the nucleus so it is easier to remove

c)

the more attracted the valence electron is to another electron, so it is harder to remove

d)

the more repelled a valence electron is to another electron, so it is easier to remove

100.
Which is larger... P or P3- ?
a)
P3- because it gains an energy level
b)
P3- due to extra electron repulsion
c)
P because it loses an energy level
d)
P because of extra electron repulsion
101.

Why does ionization energy decrease going down a group?

a)

Adding more energy levels makes the ve- further from the nucleus so it is easier to remove

b)

There are more valence electrons in the outer shell so the ve- is easier to remove

c)

There are more protons in the nucleus so the ve- is easier to remove

d)

There are less protons in the nucleus so the ve- is easier to remove

102.
Why does electronegativity increase across a period?
a)
Adding more energy levels makes the ve- further from the nucleus
b)
There are more valence electrons in the outer shell
c)
There are more protons  in the nucleus
d)
There are less protons in the nucleus
103.
Which is smaller... Mg or Mg2+ ?
a)
Mg because it gains an energy level
b)
Mg due to extra electron repulsion
c)
Mg2+ because of extra electron repulsion
d)
Mg2+ because it loses an energy level
104.
List the following in order of weakest to strongest ionization energy.
P, Cs, Co, Sr
a)
P, Co, Sr, Cs
b)
Cs, Sr, Co, P
c)
Sr, Cs, Co, P
d)
P, Co, Cs, Sr
105.
List the following from largest to smallest atomic radius.
P, Cs, Co, Sr
a)
P, Co, Sr, Cs
b)
P, Cs, Co, Sr
c)
Cs, Sr, Co, P
d)
Sr, Cs, Co, P
106.

Why doesn't having more protons increase the attraction down a column?

a)

there are more valence electrons in the outermost energy level

b)

actually, there aren't more protons in the nucleus down the column

c)

as energy levels are added, non-valence electrons block the extra protons from attracting ve-

d)

more neutrons block the extra protons

107.

What happens to atomic radius across a period?

a)

the atoms get bigger because the nucleus is bigger as more protons are added

b)

the atoms get bigger because there are more ve-

c)

the atoms get smaller because with more attraction to the extra protons, the e- cloud moves closer to the nucleus

d)

the atoms get bigger because there are more energy levels

108.

Element Z has more protons than element Y, but both have 4 energy levels. Which statement is true?

a)

Y is smaller and would attract electrons more in a bond

b)

Y is bigger and would attract electrons more in a bond

c)

Z is smaller and would attract electrons more in a bond

d)

Z is bigger and would attract electrons more in a bond

109.

Nitrogen is a _ so it will _ electrons when forming an ion.

a)

metal, lose

b)

metal, gain

c)

nonmetal, lose

d)

nonmetal, gain

110.

Nitrogen will gain _ ve- to have a charge of _.

a)

5 , -5

b)

3, +3

c)

3, -3

d)

5, +5

111.

A full valence shell is considered having _ ve-.

a)

0

b)

2

c)

6

d)

8

112.

Which of the following lose all their ve- when forming an ion?

a)

metals

b)

nonmetals

c)

metalloids

d)

depends on how many ve- the element has

113.

Which has a higher electronegativity.. Rb or Sr?

a)

Rb, because with more p+ in its nucleus it attracts e- more

b)

Sr, because with more p+ in its nucleus it attracts e- more

c)

Rb, because with more nrg levels the ve- are closer to/ more attracted to the nucleus

d)

Sr, because with more nrg levels the ve- are closer to/ more attracted to the nucleus

114.

Which has a higher ionization energy.. N or As?

a)

N, because with more p+ in its nucleus it attracts e- more making them harder to remove.

b)

As, because with more p+ in its nucleus it attracts e- more making them harder to remove.

c)

As, because with less nrg levels the ve- are closer to/ more attracted to the nucleus making them harder to remove.

d)

N, because with less nrg levels the ve- are closer to/ more attracted to the nucleus making them harder to remove.

115.

Look at the bohr models of Li and Be. Imagine the first valence electron was already removed from both atoms, and now you are going to remove the second valence electron. The energy required to remove the second valence electron is called second ionization energy. Would lithium or beryllium have a higher second ionization energy ?

a)

Li, because it has more protons

b)

Be, because it has more protons

c)

Li, because the second valence electron comes from an energy level closer to the nucleus

d)

Be, because the second valence electron comes from an energy level closer to the nucleus

e)

Li, because the beryllium has two valence electrons that repel each other

116.
reaction of an acid and a base
a)
indicator
b)
neutralization reaction
c)
solution
d)
solvent
117.
changes colors when acids come into contact with them; are used to detect acids/bases
a)
pH scale
b)
solubility
c)
pH indicator
d)
solvent
118.
composed of atoms of only one kind
a)
element
b)
compound
c)
base
d)
colloid
119.
heterogeneous mixture in which some of the particles settle out of the mixture upon standing
a)
solution
b)
colloid
c)
solvent
d)
suspension
120.
has the same composition throughout and does not vary from sample to sample
a)
pure substance
b)
compound
c)
solvent
d)
solution
121.
substance that dissolves
a)
solvent
b)
solution
c)
solute
d)
unsaturated
122.
contains less solute than a saturated solution
a)
unsaturated solution
b)
saturated solution
c)
supersaturated solution
123.
contains the maximum amount of dissolved solute
a)
unsaturated solution
b)
supersaturated solution
c)
saturated solution
124.
anything that has mass and takes up space
a)
matter
b)
mixture
c)
solution
d)
compound
125.
ionic compound that produces positive hydrogen ions when dissolved in water
a)
acid
b)
base
126.
mixture in which the composition is not uniform throughout
a)
homogeneous mixture
b)
heterogeneous mixture
127.
amount of solute that can dissolve in a given amount of solvent at a given temperature
a)
saturated solution
b)
solubility
c)
pure substance
d)
colloid
128.
substance that dissolves the solute
a)
solution
b)
solvent
c)
saturation
129.
contains more dissolved solute than a saturated solution
a)
unsaturated solution
b)
solubility
c)
supersaturated solution
130.
substance consisting of atoms or ions of two or more different elements joined by a chemical bond
a)
element
b)
mixture
c)
compound
131.
type of homogeneous mixture that doesn't separate on its own
a)
solution
b)
colloid
c)
suspension
132.
mixture of two or more substances; dissolved particles are spread evenly throughout the mixture
a)
solvent
b)
solute
c)
mixture
d)
solution
133.

When the molecules from the solvent pull apart the ions of the solute and surround them -

a)

dissociation

b)

solvation

c)

adaptation