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Quiz 3.2-Science10

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 3570secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?

a)

ribose sugar and phosphate

b)

deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond

c)

deoxyribose sugar and the bases

d)

deoxyribose sugar and phosphate

2.

What is the difference between DNA and RNA in terms of bases?

a)

RNA contains uracil in place of thymine

b)

RNA contains uracil in place of adenine

c)

RNA contains uracil in place of guanine

d)

RNA contains uracil in place of  cytosine

3.

Which type of RNA functions as a blueprint of the genetic code?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

4.

During DNA replication, a DNA strand that has the bases CTAGGT produces a complementary strand with the bases

a)

GAUCCA

b)

AGCTTG

c)

GATCCA

d)

TCGAAC

5.

What does the figure show?

a)

anticodons

b)

codons

c)

the genetic code

d)

the central dogma

6.

A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.

a)

Replication

b)

Translation

c)

Transcription

d)

Gene therapy

7.

How many nucleotide bases occur in nucleic acid?

a)

four

b)

five

c)

six

d)

infinite

8.

Where can DNA be found?

a)

cytoplasm

b)

endoplasmic reticulum

c)

nucleus

d)

ribosome

9.

Which of the following is the correct base pairing?

a)

A-C, G-T

b)

G-A, T-C

c)

C-T, G-A

d)

A-T, G-C

10.

What is the PRIMARY function of nucleic acids?

a)

store energy (long-term)

b)

store genetic information

c)

build skin, hair, nails, muscles

d)

store energy (short-term)

11.

Which is the correct sequence in central dogma?

a)

replication, translation, transcription

b)

transcription, replication, translation

c)

replication, transcription, translation

d)

transcription, translation, replication

12.

What is the process that makes a complementary mRNA strand from a DNA strand?

a)

protein synthesis

b)

transcription

c)

translation

d)

polypeptide

13.

What best explains the interaction between tRNA and mRNA during translation?

a)

anticodons on the mRNA line up with complementary codons on the tRNA

b)

anticodons on the tRNA line up with complementary codons on the mRNA

c)

tRNA attach amino acids to the complementary mRNA sequence

d)

mRNA attach amino acids to the complementary tRNA sequence

14.

How many nucleotides make up a single codon?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

4

d)

1

15.

What is shown in the picture?

a)

replication

b)

transcription

c)

mitosis

d)

translation

16.

Identify No. 2

a)

nitrogen base

b)

phosphate group

c)

deoxyribose sugar

d)

nucleotide

17.

What are the three components of a nucleotide?

a)

sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base

b)

sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base

c)

sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base

d)

sugar, phosphate, protein

18.

What describes a change in the DNA sequence?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

d)

Mutation

19.

What type of mutation involves substituting a DNA base with a different base?

a)

gene/point mutation

b)

chromosomal mutation

c)

silent mutation

d)

nonsense mutation

20.

What type of mutation involves substituting a DNA base with a different base but still forms the same protein?

a)

point mutation

b)

silent mutation

c)

nonsense mutation

d)

missense mutation

21.

What type of mutation involves adding or deleting bases from the DNA, which results in new codons (a shift in the reading of the codons)?

a)

point mutation

b)

silent mutation

c)

nonsense mutation

d)

missense mutation

22.

Original DNA = TAC GAC TTG AAT

Mutated DNA = TAC GAC TCG AAT

What type of mutation has occurred?

a)

Deletion

b)

Substitution

c)

Insertion

d)

Inversion

e)

Duplication

23.

Original DNA = TAC GAC TTG AAT

Mutated DNA = TAC GTA CTT GAA T

What type of mutation has occurred?

a)

Deletion

b)

Substitution

c)

Insertion

d)

Inversion

e)

Duplication

24.

Original DNA = TAC GAC TTG AAT

Mutated DNA = TAC ACT TGA AT

What type of mutation has occurred?

a)

Deletion

b)

Substitution

c)

Insertion

d)

Inversion

e)

Duplication

25.

Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription? 

a)

AUGCUU

b)

ATGCTT

c)

GCATCC

d)

GCAUCC

26.

A change in one DNA triplet that may result in a new triplet that codes for a stop codon instead of an amino acid is known as _____

a)

missense

b)

nonsense

c)

frameshift

d)

silent

27.

A type of substitution in which no  amino acids change is called ____

a)

missense

b)

nonsense

c)

silent

d)

deletion

28.

In a point mutation, this would have the worst effect on the function of the protein.

a)

an insertion or deletion near the end of a gene

b)

an insertion or deletion at the beginning of the gene

c)

an insertion at the middle of the gene

d)

a base substitution

29.

Which of the following can increase the rate of mutation?

a)

UV Radiation

b)

viruses

c)

toxic chemicals

d)

all choices are correct

30.

Notice the abnormal 23rd chromosome.  This individual suffers from which chromosomal genetic disorder?

a)

Klienfelter's Syndrome

b)

Down Syndrome

c)

Cris-du-Chat Syndrome

d)

Edward's syndrome

31.

What makes up the "rungs of the ladder" in a DNA molecule?

a)

Sugar and phosphate

b)

Nitrogen base pairs

c)

Nucleotides

d)

Protein

32.

What is the shape of DNA called?

a)

Twisted ladder

b)

Double helix

c)

Spiraled molecule

d)

Ladder Helix

33.

DNA contains hereditary information for life. How would the following components of DNA be arranged, smallest to largest?

a)

genes, chromosomes, nucleus, nitrogen bases

b)

chromosomes, nitrogen bases, genes, nucleus

c)

nitrogen bases, genes, chromosomes, nucleus

d)

nucleus, chromosomes, genes, nitrogen bases

34.

Two organisms that are closely related would have ____.

a)

very similar DNA sequence

b)

exactly the same DNA sequences

c)

no proteins in common

d)

completely different DNA sequence

35.

The two most important things that the fossil record tells us about the history of life on Earth are...

a)

some species go extinct, and it is impossible for new species to take their place

b)

some species go extinct, and new species appear over time

c)

species usually never go extinct, but somehow dinosaurs did go extinct

d)

Earth never changes, and changes to life on Earth happen very quickly

36.

A bird's wing and a butterfly's wing have the same function, but they have very different structures. These structures are classified as follows:

a)

homologous structures

b)

analogous structures

c)

vestigial structures

d)

embryological homologues

37.

The process by which populations slowly change over time is called ___.

a)

selective breeding

b)

adaptation

c)

speciation

d)

evolution

38.

Which of the following would be an example of homologous structures?

a)

the trunk of an elephant, the snout of a pig, and the nose of a dog

b)

the wings of a bat and the wings of a butterfly

c)

the tale of a dolphin and the hump on a camel’s back

d)

the arm bones of an ape and the front leg bones of a horse

39.

Evolutionary biologists say that similarities between different species are evidence of which of the following?

a)

Organs shrinking and losing their function

b)

Formation of the first cell in an organic soup

c)

The presence of a common ancestor in a species

d)

The concept that life comes only from life

40.

The tail bone, wisdom teeth, and appendix are all parts of the human anatomy that would be considered..

a)

homologous structures

b)

vestigial structures

c)

fossils

d)

extinct

41.

If species A and B have very similar genes and proteins, what is probably TRUE?

a)

species A and B share a relatively recent common ancestor

b)

species A evolved independently of species B for a long period

c)

species A is younger than species B

d)

species A is older than species B

42.

A species could go extinct if ____

a)

food becomes more plentiful.

b)

members of the species have adaptations to enhance survival.

c)

the environment changes drastically and no one can adapt.

d)

there is less competition for resources.

43.

These are any part, remnant or evidence left by an organism in a rock.

a)

evidences

b)

fossils

c)

artifacts

d)

collections

44.

Which of the following is not an evidence of evolution?

a)

Fossil records

b)

Comparative Anatomy

c)

asteroid

d)

Genetic Information

45.

This refers to the variety and extent of differences among living things.

a)

Biodiversity

b)

Geodiversity

c)

Biomes

d)

Ecosystem

46.

Which layer/structure is the oldest?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

47.

A process in which an organisms adapts to its environment through selectively reproducing changes in its genotype.

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Evolution

c)

Radioactive Dating

d)

Relative Dating

48.

The oldest known animal fossils that is segmented.

a)

cyanobacterai

b)

trilobites

c)

roaches

d)

dinosaurs

49.

The science that investigates the development of organisms from fertilized egg to time of birth or hatching.

a)

embryonic development

b)

molecular biology

c)

fossil records

d)

anatomical structure

50.

The scientist that published the book "Origin of Species" in 1859.

a)

Charles Darwin

b)

Alfred Russel Wallace

Gregor Mendel

c)

Gregor Mendel

d)

Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

51.

This theory stated that organisms can reshape or alter their traits depending on the

importance of those traits to the organisms. Lamarck believed that giraffes before having

short necks, but because of the need to survive and to reach tall trees for food. they kept

stretching their necks until these became longer and able to reach taller trees.

a)

Theory of Use and Disuse

b)

Theory of Need

c)

Theory of Acquired Traits

d)

Theory of Natural Selection

52.

If a giraffe was successful in acquiring the trait of having a long neck, then the trait would

be passed on to its offspring.

a)

Theory of Use and Disuse

b)

Theory of Need

c)

Theory of Acquired Traits

d)

Theory of Natural Selection

53.

The _____ states that organisms change over generations in response to their environment at the same time evolved because they must. Their ability to survive helped them develop characteristics necessary for them to adapt in each environment.

a)

Theory of Use and Disuse

b)

Theory of Need

c)

Theory of Acquired Traits

d)

Theory of Natural Selection

54.

Giraffe species originally had varying neck lengths, but ___ favored the survival of

giraffes with longer necks that can feed on taller trees that were available.

a)

Theory of Use and Disuse

b)

Theory of Need

c)

Theory of Acquired Traits

d)

Theory of Natural Selection

55.

It is also called the "survival of the fittest."

a)

Theory of Use and Disuse

b)

Theory of Need

c)

Theory of Acquired Traits

d)

Theory of Natural Selection

56.

What word describes a trait that helps an organism survive in its environment?

a)

natural selection

b)

mutation

c)

camouflage

d)

adaptation

57.

If a new trait DOES help an organism survive, what may happen to it?

a)

It dies and its DNA is not passed on

b)

It survives and its DNA is passed on

c)

It changes its traits to adapt and survive

58.

The trees these moths used to live on were white, but have been covered in soot from coal factories. Which moth will be more successful in this environment?

a)

Dark moth

b)

Light moth

c)

Both will be equally successful

d)

Neither will be successful

59.

Which best describes "natural selection"?

a)

inherited characteristic that increases chances of survival

b)

organisms with traits well suited to their environment survive and reproduce at a greater rate

c)

a growing population causes a scarcity of resources

d)

differences in the DNA sequence

60.

Which of the following statements does NOT represent the idea of heritability by acquired characteristics?

I. A body builder develops stronger muscles during the course of his life, so his son will be strong as well.

II. A cat that lost its tail will produce offspring with shorter tails.

III. Over time, a population of heavily striped zebras increased over those without as much striping, as the heavily striped ones had a competitive advantage over the zebras with fewer stripes, and were, therefore, better able to reproduce.

a)

I and III

b)

I

c)

III

d)

II