wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

BIO EXAM #4 PREP

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the Central Dogma Theory, all cells store their genetic information in -

a)

Polysaccharides

b)

Steroid

c)

DNA

d)

Triglyceride (Triacylglycerol)

2.

The Genetic Code is based on genetic code words called codons. Each codon (triplet) consists of 3 consecutive -

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Fatty Acids

c)

Nucleotides

d)

Phospholipids

e)

Steroids

3.

A codon in a protein-coding gene instructs the cell to place a specific _______ at a precise site in the protein.

a)

Monosaccharide

b)

Amino Acid

c)

Fatty Acid

d)

Steroid

e)

Cofactor

4.

A receptor in your white blood cell recognized a Coronavirus. This cell will respond by expressing a gene that codes for an -

a)

Anti-bacterial protein

b)

Anti-fungal protein

c)

Anti-viral protein

d)

Anti-prion protein

e)

None of the above

5.

All cells use the same rules to store genetic information in DNA and use this information to make proteins. This set of rules is the -

a)

Protooncogene Code

b)

Tumor Suppressor Gene Code

c)

Genetic Code

d)

Cell Cycle Code

e)

All of the above

6.

Which highly regulated process enables your cells to activate a Gene when your cells need to make the protein the gene encodes?

a)

Active Transport

b)

Facilitated Diffusion

c)

Endocytosis

d)

Osmosis

e)

Gene expression

7.

To begin expressing a gene, which process in the Nucleus makes an RNA copy of the coding strand of the gene?

a)

Active Transport

b)

Facilitated Diffusion

c)

Endocytosis

d)

Transcription

e)

Translation

8.

Which Enzymes synthesize mRNA (Transcript) during Transcription?

a)

Proteasomes

b)

DNA Polymerases

c)

Ribosomes

d)

RNA Polymerases

e)

Kinases

9.

The Transcription initiation phase is the first part of Transcription. Which proteins align and activate RNA Polymerase on the Gene's Promoter?

a)

Cyclins

b)

Transcription Factors

c)

Kinases

d)

Histones

e)

All of the above

10.

At which nucleotide sequence in the gene does RNA Polymerase begin to make mRNA?

a)

Promoter

b)

Transcription start site (+1 Nucleotide)

c)

Exon

d)

Intron

e)

Centromere

11.

During the Transcription Elongation Phase, RNA Polymerase makes a mRNA whose sequence is identical to the Gene's -

a)

Promoter

b)

Transcription Stop Site

c)

Coding Strand

d)

Template Strand

e)

All of the above

12.

During the Transcription Elongation phase, which monomers does RNA Polymerase bond together to make mRNA?

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Fatty Acids

c)

Monosaccharides

d)

Ribonucleotides

e)

Steroids

13.

Which nucleotide sequence is part of the Transcription stop site of a gene that instructs RNA Polymerase to end Transcription

a)

Promoter

b)

Intron

c)

Chromatin

d)

Exon

e)

Poly-Adenylation Signal (AATAA)

14.

After a gene in the nucleus has been transcribed, in which organelle is the messenger RNA processed?

a)

Proteasome

b)

Fat storage organelle

c)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Nucleus

e)

Golgi Apparatus

15.

Which molecule does the capping enzyme complex add to the 5'end of the mRNA?

a)

Triglyceride (Triacylglycerol)

b)

Essential Amino Acid

c)

Steroid

d)

GTP

e)

Phospholipid

16.

The chemical structure attached to the 3' end of the mRNA is called the -

a)

ATP

b)

5' G Cap

c)

Poly-A Tail

d)

Carrier Protein

e)

Channel Protein

17.

The function of the 5' G-Cap & 3' Poly-A Tail is to -

a)

Increase mRNA stability

b)

Enable mRNA export from the Nucleus

c)

Enable mRNA to be translated by Ribosomes in the Cytoplasm

d)

All the above

18.

Which virus mRNA would avoid destruction and retain its ability to infect its human host cell?

a)

The mRNA of virus 1 has no 5' G-Cap

b)

The mRNA of virus 2 has a 5' G-Cap

c)

The mRNA of virus 3 has no 3' Poly-A Tail

19.

During Messenger RNA processing in the Nucleus, which process removes Introns from the messenger RNA to make mature mRNA?

a)

Active Transport

b)

Facilitated Diffusion

c)

Endocytosis

d)

Splicing

e)

Translation

20.

After splicing, which nucleotide sequences in the mature mRNA determine the sequence of Amino Acids in the protein the gene encodes?

a)

Introns

b)

Polyadenylation Signal

c)

Exons

d)

Promoter

e)

All the above

21.

Which structure removes the Introns from the mRNA and bonds the remaining Exons together to form the Mature mRNA?

a)

Capping Enzyme Complex

b)

Polyadenylate Polymerase

c)

Spliceosome

d)

Proteasome

e)

Telomerase

22.

The types (versions) of proteins that your ells can make from one gene is increased by -

a)

Cytoplasmic streaming

b)

Active Transport

c)

Endocytosis

d)

Alternative Splicing

e)

Chromatin

23.

A defect in the splicing process in the nucleus causes which medical condition?

a)

Beta-Thalassemia

b)

Colorectal Cancer

c)

Neurological disorders possibly including some types of Autism Spectrum disorder

d)

All the above

24.

The Translation process that occurs in the Cytosol enables your cells to synthesize -

a)

DNA

b)

Messenger RNA

c)

Proteins

d)

Steroid

e)

All the above

25.

Messenger RNA molecules made in the Nucleus are translated by the Ribosomes in which cellular location?

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Golgi Apparatus

c)

Cytosol

d)

Mitochondrion

e)

All the above

26.

The small subunit and large subunit of the Ribosome, which performs Translation, are formed from -

a)

Ribosomal DNA & Steroids

b)

Ribosomal RNA & Steroids

c)

Ribosomal RNA & Ribosomal Proteins

d)

Ribosomal DNA & Ribosomal Proteins

27.

Which type of Biological Molecule is the product of Translation?

a)

Messenger RNA (Transcript)

b)

Gene

c)

Protein

d)

Chromosome

e)

Spindle

28.

Which complex molecular machine reads the linear sequence of codons in mRNA to make a protein with a specific Amino Acid sequence?

a)

RNA Polymerase

b)

Polyadenylate (Poly-A) Polymerase

c)

Capping Enzyme Complex

d)

Ribosome

29.

The Ribosome requires the 20 types of Amino Acids to make Proteins. Which specialized RNA molecules deliver the amino acids to the ribosomes during Translation?

a)

7 s RNA

b)

Ribosomal RNA

c)

Transfer RNA

d)

Messenger RNA

e)

Proteasome

30.

Which Enzyme attaches the proper Amino Acid to the proper transfer RNA (tRNA)?

a)

RNA Polymerase

b)

Peptidyl Transferase

c)

Spliceosome

d)

Aminoacyl tRNA Synthetase

e)

Kinase

31.

Which additional proteins are required to form the Translation initiation complex during the initiation phase?

a)

Release factors

b)

Initiation factors

c)

Elongation factors

d)

Histones

e)

All the above

32.

Which codon informs the Ribosome where to begin Translating the mRNA (Transcript)?

a)

Promoter

b)

Ribosomal RNA

c)

Transfer RNA

d)

Start Codon

e)

Messenger RNA

33.

Which Enzyme (Ribozyme) in the large Ribosomal Subunit bonds the amino acids together during the Elongation Cycle?

a)

Spliceosome

b)

RNA Polymerase

c)

Peptidyl Transferase

d)

Aminoacyl tRNA Synthetase

e)

DNA Polymerase

34.

Which protein interacts with the stop codon to initiate the translation termination phase?

a)

Initiation Factor

b)

Cyclin

c)

Release Factor

d)

Elongation Factor

e)

GTP

35.

Which energy-rich molecule fuels all three phases of Translation?

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Triglyceride

c)

Histone

d)

GTP

e)

Phosphatase

36.

Which Amino Acid Sequence of a protein acts as the "zip code" that ensures its delivery to the organelle that requires the proteins function?

a)

Gene

b)

Exon

c)

Centromere

d)

Signal Sequence

e)

Intron

37.

Some Antibiotics harm pathogenic bacteria by preventing protein synthesis. These antibiotics inhibit which process?

a)

Splicing

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Anaphase

e)

Cytokinesis

38.

Which type of cell division produces the Haploid (1N) Gametes (sex cells) that you require for sexual reproduction?

a)

Mitotic cell division

b)

transcription

c)

Meiotic cell division

d)

Spindle Formation

e)

Translation

39.

Where does Meiotic cell division occur in the human body?

a)

Heart

b)

Intestine

c)

Lungs

d)

Gonads (Ovaries & Testes)

e)

Anther & Ovule

40.

Meiotic Cell Division enables you to produce -

a)

Genetically-identical Diploid (2N) adult stem cells

b)

Genetically-Identical Diploid (2N) Gametes (Sex Cells)

c)

Genetically-variable Haploid (1N) Gametes

d)

Genetically-variable Tetraploid (4N) Adult stem cells

41.

When a human Haploid (1N) sperm fertilizes a human Haploid (1N) egg, the resulting Diploid (2N) Zygote has a total of -

a)

11.5 Chromosomes

b)

23 Chromosomes

c)

46 Chromosomes

d)

92 Chromosomes

e)

None of the above

42.

Meiotic Cell Division Increases the genetic variation in sexually reproducing populations. How is this beneficial?

a)

Increased risk of extinction

b)

Increased ability to adapt to new environmental conditions

c)

Decreased offspring production

d)

No offspring produced

43.

Which process generates Recombinant Chromosomes in Prophase I of Meiosis I?

a)

Splicing

b)

Alternative Splicing

c)

Crossing Over

d)

Transcription

e)

Translation

44.

The Spindle Separates the two pairs of attached Homologous Chromosomes during -

a)

Meiosis I

b)

Meiosis II

c)

Mitosis I

d)

Mitosis II

e)

DNA Replication

45.

The spindle separates each pair of sister chromatids and delivers one sister chromatid to opposite ends of the cell in -

a)

Meiosis I

b)

Meiosis II

c)

Mitosis I

d)

Mitosis II

e)

DNA Replication

46.

During Meiotic cell division, crossing over and the random assortment of Homologous Chromosomes increase -

a)

Mutation

b)

Transcription

c)

Genetic variation among gametes

d)

Alternative splicing

e)

Translation

47.

Due to spindle (M phase) checkpoint failure, which error can occur during Meiosis I or Meiosis II that results in Aneuploid Gametes?

a)

Transcription

b)

Nondisjunction

c)

Signal Transduction

d)

Alternative Splicing

48.

The species that researchers intentionally choose to facilitate the research process is a -

a)

Replication

b)

Experiment

c)

Virus

d)

Spindle

e)

Model System

49.

Which model system did Gregor Mendel select to facilitate his investigation of Heredity?

a)

Virus

b)

Bacterium

c)

Pea

d)

Fungus

e)

Mouse

50.

The results from Gregor Mendel's remarkable crossing (Mating) Experiments form the basis of Genetics Science

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Which types of traits do we inherit from our parents?

a)

Anatomical

b)

Physiological

c)

Behavioral Tendencies

d)

All the above

52.

The Nucleus of the Eukaryotic Cells of Potato contains four sets of chromosomes. This is an example of -

a)

True breeding

b)

Gene

c)

Homozygous

d)

Polyploidy (Tetraploidy)

e)

Heterozygous

53.

In the human population, there are several forms of a gene that regulate hair color. The versions of this gene that code for black hair, brown hair, or blond hair are examples of -

a)

Locus

b)

Proteasomes

c)

Alleles

d)

Traits

e)

Telomeres

54.

The Alleles of a gene contain different genetic information. This is because each allele has an -

a)

Identical nucleotide sequence

b)

Identical amino acid sequence

c)

Unique disaccharide sequence

d)

Unique nucleotide sequence

55.

The two alleles that a Diploid (2N) individual has for a specific Gene is this individual's -

a)

Polyploidy

b)

Genotype

c)

Phenotype

d)

Chromosome

e)

Telomere

56.

At the Gene that codes for flower color in a Diploid (2N) pea plant has two identical alleles that code for purple petals. This individual is -

a)

Homozygous

b)

Haploid

c)

Polyploid

d)

Mutates

e)

Heterozygous

57.

Which environmental factors can interact with your genotypes to affect your phenotypes including behavior?

a)

A) Conditions in the womb (in utero)

B) Conversation & learning

C) Culture

D) Formal Education

b)

A) Parenting

B) Nutrition

C) Social Interactions

D) Infections

E) Exercise

c)

All the above

58.

When did the conditions of your unique environment begin to influence your Phenotypes?

a)

In the womb (In utero) before birth

b)

Childhood

c)

Puberty

d)

Post-puberty

e)

Old age

59.

What is the minimum number of dominant alleles that a diploid (2N) individual must inherit to express the dominant phenotype?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

4

e)

5

60.

In a Heterozygote, the Allele that is not expressed in the Phenotype codes for the -

a)

Dominant Phenotype

b)

Recessive Phenotype

c)

Polyploid Phenotype

d)

Aneuploid Phenotype

e)

All the above

61.

What is the smallest Autosome in the Nucleus of your cells?

a)

#22

b)

#1

c)

X

d)

Y

e)

#12

62.

The different traits of each parent do not mix (blend) in the offspring. This is because each trait is regulated by a specific -

a)

Spindle

b)

Lysosome

c)

Gene (Allele)

d)

Proteasome

e)

Ribosome

63.

Gregor Mendel developed Models of Inheritance that explained the results he obtained from -

a)

His friends' Facebook accounts

b)

Carefully planned, executed, controlled, replicated experimentation

c)

His friends' X accounts

d)

All the above

64.

Gregor Mendel developed experiments to study the rules of inheritance. Which experiment enabled him to investigate the mechanisms that regulate the transmission of one trait from parent to Offspring?

a)

Test Cross

b)

Dihybrid Cross

c)

Monohybrid Cross

d)

Chloroplast Cross

65.

Each Diploid (2N) human has two alleles for every gene on the Autosomes (1-22). This is because we inherit -

a)

0 Alleles from each parent

b)

1 allele from each parent

c)

2 alleles from each parent

d)

4 alleles from each parent

66.

How many copies of each gene do diploid (2N) human males have on the X-chromosome?

a)

0

b)

1 (Hemizygous)

c)

2

d)

4

67.

How many copies of each gene on the Autosomes (#1-#22) do Diploid (2N) humans possess?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

4

e)

5

68.

Each Diploid (2N) Pea Plant transmits only one of the two alleles for each gene to its offspring. This is because only on allele enters each gamete during -

a)

Mitosis

b)

Transcription

c)

Meiotic Cell Division

d)

Splicing

e)

DNA Synthesis

69.

A trait is unexpressed in the phenotype of the previous generation. This trait is expressed in the phenotype of the next generation. This trait is -

a)

Dominant

b)

Recessive

c)

Cytoplasmic

d)

Polyploid

e)

Aneuploid

70.

What is the number of "Recessive Alleles" that a Diploid (2N) individual like you must inherit to express the recessive phenotype?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

4

e)

5

71.

All the F1 offspring produced from the testcross experiment express the dominant phenotype. What is the unknown genotype of the parent of interest?

a)

Homozygous Dominant (PP)

b)

Heterozygous (Pp)

c)

Homozygous Recessive (pp)

d)

Polyploidy

72.

Meiotic Cell Division ensures that each generation of humans inherits a total of -

a)

11.5 chromosomes

b)

23 chromosomes

c)

46 chromosomes

d)

92 chromosomes

e)

None of the above