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Bio 112 Final Review

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a lipid?

a)

Fat

b)

Carbs

c)

Meat

d)

DNA/RNA

2.

What would you use a line graph for?

a)

To show comparisons

b)

To symbolize something

c)

To create a pictorial form

d)

To show change over time

3.

A potato is an example of which macromolecule?

a)

Lipid

b)

Protein

c)

Carbohydrate

d)

Nucleic Acid

4.

What is so important about graphs? (select all right answers)

a)

Good visual representation of data

b)

Shows energy transfer

c)

Shows trends

d)

Explains relationships

5.

Bar graphs show change over time

a)

True

b)

False

6.

If ___, then ___

a)
If IV, then DV
b)

If DV, then IV

c)

If constant, then DV

d)

If control group, then IV

7.

Pick the correct definition for QUALITATIVE data

a)

Numerative

b)

Chronologically

c)

Statistically Descriptive

d)

Describing

8.

What is an experimental group?

a)

What stays the same throughout the experiment

b)

What receives nothing

c)

What receives different variations of an IV

d)

The expected outcome

9.

Which of the following macromolecules is the body's main source of energy?

a)

Lipid

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Nucleic Acid

d)

Protein

10.

What is the monomer of a nucleic acid?

a)

Nucleotides

b)

Amino Acids

c)

Monosaccharides

d)

Fatty Acids

11.

RNA is single stranded while DNA is double stranded

a)

True

b)

False

12.

What is a double ring base that always bonds with a single ringed pyrimidine?

a)

Thymine

b)

Adenine

c)

Guanine

d)

Purine

13.

Deoxyribonucleic acid has 2 oxygens while ribonucleic acid is missing an oxygen

a)

True

b)

False

14.

What are the base pairing rules for nitrogenous bases?

a)

Adenine-Guanine

Cytosine-Thymine

b)

Thymine-Guanine

Adenine-Cytosine

c)

Uracil-Guanine

Thymine-Cytosine

d)

Thymine-Adenine

Cytosine-Guanine

15.

Thymine exists in RNA only

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Pick the two major kinds of cells

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

Nucleyotic

d)

Bacteryotic

17.

Which of the following do the two major kinds of cells have in common? (select all)

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Genetic Material

18.

All living things are made up of:

a)

Golgis

b)

Nucleuses

c)

Centrioles

d)

Cells

19.

The middle area of the nucleus that carries rRNA & builds ribosomes is called:

a)

Rough ER

b)

Cell Membrane

c)

Nucleolus

d)

Nucleus

20.

Does not have ribosomes; builds lipids

a)

Cilia

b)

Smooth ER

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Rough ER

21.

What does the mitochondria do? (select all)

a)

Makes brain cells

b)

Makes muscle cells

c)

Makes sex cells

d)

Creates ATP

22.

Which organelle(s) is NOT in plant cells? (select all if applicable)

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Central Vacuole

d)

Lysosomes

23.

Which is an example of positive feedback in homeostasis?

a)

Blood Pressure

b)

Childbirth

c)

Blood Sugar

d)

Temperature

24.

Negative feedback is (select all):

a)

When cells are trying/needing to maintain homeostasis

b)

Impulses & signals amplify or reduce the process to maintain in the safe range

c)

More common than positive feedback

d)

Less common that positive feedback

25.

The cell membrane is:

a)

Permeable

b)

Made of water

c)

Made of proteins

d)

Semipermeable

26.

The type of cell transport that requires energy and goes from low to high concentration

a)

Passive

b)

Active

27.

Osmosis is (select all):

a)

Movement of water

b)

Movement of small molecules

c)

Passive

d)

3 different types

28.

Hypotonic swells while hypertonic shrivels

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Which of the following is the correct cell cycle pattern?

a)

Cytokinesis, Telophase, Anaphase, G2, G1, Metaphase, S phase, Prophase

b)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis, G1, S phase, G2

c)

The cell doesn't follow a cycle

d)

Scientists haven't figured it out yet

30.

Which of the following is true about cancer? (select all)

a)

Causes tumors that can be malignant or benign

b)

Develops in 4 stages

c)

Can be genetic or be caused by carcinogens

d)

Can metastasize and spread throughout the body

31.

What is ATP? (select all)

a)

A molecule that transfers water from the breakdown of hydrogen molecules

b)

Adenosine Triphosphate

c)

A molecule that transfers energy from the breakdown of food molecules

d)

Ribonucleic Acid

32.

How many molecules of ATP does the breakdown of simple sugar glucose yield?

a)

32

b)

34

c)

25

d)

36

33.

Which macromolecule yields the most ATP?

a)

Lipids

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Proteins

34.

Organisms break down carbon-based molecules to produce ATP

a)

True

b)

False

35.

What is the photosynthesis formula?

(a)  

36.

What is chemosynthesis?

a)

A process that captures energy through sunlight to make sugars that store chemical energy

b)

A process that captures energy through water to make sugars that store chemical energy

c)

A process that captures energy through chemical energy to make sugars that store chemical energy

d)

A process that captures energy through food to make sugars that store chemical energy

37.

Where is chlorophyll found?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Chloroplasts

c)

Grana

d)

Stroma

38.

What is true of light dependent reactions? (select all)

a)

Capture energy from sunlight

b)

Take place w/ and across the thylakoid membrane

c)

Need CO2 molecules

d)

Need water and sunlight

39.

Plants need the simple sugars to build starch and cellulose molecules

a)

True

b)

False

40.

The first stage of photosynthesis:

a)

captures and transfers water

b)

captures and transfers CO2

c)

captures and transfers oxygen

d)

captures and transfers energy

41.

NADPH and ATP:

a)

Go in the early stages of photosynthesis

b)

Go in the later stages of photosynthesis

c)

Are not present in photosynthesis

d)

Are present in only chemosynthesis

42.

The Calvin Cycle (select all)

a)

Cannot take place in ADP

b)

Cannot take place in ATP

c)

Is named after a random man

d)

Is named after the scientist who discovered it

43.

Simple sugars from photosynthesis are bonded to form complex lipids

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Which of the following is the principle product of photosynthesis; used within the chloropast for starch synthesis, or transported to the cytosol where they are used to fuel sucrose synthesis?

a)

Hexose Phosphates

b)

Lipogenesis

c)

Triose Phosphates

d)

Metabolic Pool

45.

Plants make sugar using photosynthesis and cells cannot use this sugar as an energy source to produce ATP

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Which of the following are true of gametes? (select all)

a)

Haploid

b)

Are produced by mitosis.

c)

Sex cells

d)

Are created by meiosis

47.

Diploid cells are (select all)

a)

1 set of chromosomes

b)

2 sets of chromosomes

c)

A homologous pair

d)

Either your mom's set or your dad's set

48.

Mitosis:

a)
Mitosis is the process of cell division where a single cell divides into three daughter cells.
b)
Mitosis is the process of cell division where a single cell divides into two identical daughter cells.
c)
Mitosis is the process of cell division where a single cell divides into non-identical daughter cells.
d)
Mitosis is the process of cell division where a single cell divides into plant cells.
49.

Autosomes are:

a)

The first 20 pairs of chromosomes that code for all of your traits and make you human (besides biological sex).

b)

The first 21 pairs of chromosomes that code for all of your traits and make you human (besides biological sex).

c)

The first 22 pairs of chromosomes that code for all of your traits and make you human (besides biological sex).

d)

The first 23 pairs of chromosomes that code for all of your traits and make you human (besides biological sex).

50.

Sex chromosomes:

a)

Are XX for male

b)

Are XY for female

c)

Are XX for female

d)

Are XY for male

51.

On what type of chart would you analyze the chromosomes of a person?

a)

Karyotype

b)

Karyote

c)

Karate

d)

Karrat

52.

If a person has three copies of the 21 chromosome, what disorder do they have?

a)
Turner syndrome
b)
Klinefelter syndrome
c)
Down syndrome
d)
Fragile X syndrome
53.

Homologous chromosomes:

a)

Have the same genes located on the same place

b)

Come from your mom and dad (1 from each)

c)

Have different alleles which are different versions of a gene

d)

All of the above

54.

A dominant allele is represented by:

a)

uppercase letter

b)
lowercase letter
c)
number
d)
special character
55.

A phenotype is:

a)
The process of natural selection
b)
Observable physical or biochemical characteristics of an organism
c)
The genetic makeup of an organism
d)
The environment in which an organism lives
56.

When you determine the likelihood of 2 parents having a particular phenotype or genotype children

a)

Non-Mendelian Genetics

b)

Dihybrid Cross

c)

Monohybrid Cross

d)

Parental Genetics

57.

A dihybrid cross is:

a)
Genetic cross between two individuals differing in three traits.
b)
Genetic cross between two individuals differing in two traits.
c)

Represented by 4 squares

d)

Represented by 16 squares

58.

Incomplete Dominance:

a)
Incomplete dominance is when one allele is completely dominant over the other allele.
b)
Incomplete dominance occurs when both alleles are expressed equally in the phenotype.
c)
Incomplete dominance is a form of intermediate inheritance where one allele for a specific trait is not completely dominant over the other allele, resulting in a phenotype that is a blend of the two alleles.
d)
Incomplete dominance results in a phenotype that is a mix of the two alleles but not necessarily intermediate.
59.

Codominance:

a)
Codominance is when one allele is dominant over the other.
b)
Only one allele is expressed in the phenotype.
c)
Codominance results in a blending of traits.
d)
Both alleles are fully expressed in the phenotype.
60.

If a foal is born from a black mare and a white stallion and comes out with black and white spots, it is an example of what type of non-Mendelian genetics?

a)
Complete dominance
b)
Codominance
c)
Incomplete dominance
d)
Polygenic inheritance
61.

Which of the following is an example of multiple alleles?

a)

Blood type

b)

Body temperature

c)
Hemophilia A gene
d)
Sickle cell anemia
62.

Evolution is:

a)
Evolution is the process by which species of organisms develop and diversify over time through genetic engineering.
b)
Evolution is the process by which species of organisms develop and diversify over time through natural selection and adaptation to their environment.
c)
Evolution is the process by which species of organisms remain unchanged over time.
d)
Evolution is the process by which species of organisms develop and diversify over time through artificial selection.
63.

Adaptations are a choice

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Who developed the theory of natural selection?

a)
Charles Darwin
b)
Galileo Galilei
c)
Albert Einstein
d)
Isaac Newton
65.

Which of the following is correct of the bottleneck effect?

a)
A small group of individuals from a larger population colonizing a new area
b)
Natural selection favoring a specific trait in a population
c)
Genetic drift leading to increased genetic diversity
d)
A large group of individuals from a smaller population colonizing a new area
66.

Genetic drift is:

a)
A predictable pattern of allele distribution in a population
b)
Random fluctuation in allele frequencies in a population due to chance events.
c)
A process that intentionally alters allele frequencies in a population
d)
A phenomenon that only occurs in small populations
67.

Divergent evolution can be defined as:

a)
The process by which two or more related species become more similar over time due to similar environmental pressures.
b)
The process by which two or more related species become more dissimilar over time due to the same environmental pressures.
c)
The process by which two or more unrelated species become more dissimilar over time due to similar environmental pressures.
d)
The process by which two or more related species become more dissimilar over time due to different environmental pressures.
68.

Survival of the Fittest is

a)

The idea that the least adapted organism will survive

b)

Is not real

c)

A false theory

d)

The idea that the most adapted organism will survive

69.

Which of the following is an example of the founder effect?

a)

A population of rabbits with brown fur and white fur, white fur being the dominant allele. Only the brown population remain, with all the white ones eliminated

b)

The northern elephant seal, whose population fell to about 30 in the 1890s.

c)

Genetically inherited diseases like Ellis-van Creveld are more concentrated among the Amish because they marry within their own community

d)

A bee carrying pollen from one flower population to another

70.

Convergent evolution

a)
Convergent evolution is the process by which unrelated organisms evolve different traits due to similar environmental pressures.
b)
Convergent evolution is the process by which closely related organisms evolve different traits due to different environmental pressures.
c)
Convergent evolution is the process by which distantly related organisms evolve similar traits due to different environmental pressures.
d)
Convergent evolution is the process by which unrelated or distantly related organisms evolve similar traits due to similar environmental pressures.
71.

How did Charles Darwin develop his ideas of natural selection

a)
By studying ancient texts and artifacts
b)

While studying species on the Galapagos islands

c)
By consulting with other scientists in his field
d)
Through experiments conducted in a laboratory setting
72.

Evolution is ONLY the belief that humans came from monkeys & nothing else

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Which of the following are adaptations? (select all)

a)

Apposable thumbs

b)

Giraffes having long necks

c)

Thick stems to hold water

d)

Birds having wider beaks to open seeds

74.

Tree seeds have adapted to be spread throughout different ways. This is an example of:

a)

Evolution

b)

Commensalism

c)

Mutualism

d)

Cohabitization

75.

Adaptations happen overtime to:

a)
Remain static and unchanging over time
b)
Change rapidly in response to stable environments
c)
Adapt to stay the same in unchanging conditions
d)
Survive and reproduce in changing conditions
76.

Producers (select all) :

a)

Producers are entities that make their own glucose.

b)

Producers are entities that consume others for energy.

c)

Producers are entities that lay at the top of the trophic pyramid.

d)

Producers are entities that contain the most energy in a trophic pyramid or food chain.

77.

Detrivores are:

a)
Organisms that feed on living plants
b)
Organisms that feed on sunlight
c)
Organisms that feed on rocks
d)
Organisms that feed on dead and decaying plant and animal matter.
78.

Which of the following are consumers? (select all)

a)

Grasshoppers

b)

Robins

c)

Lions

d)

Leaves

79.

If a producer has a total of 1,512 calories of energy, how much will end up in the tertiary consumer of a food chain?

a)

1,512

b)

151.2

c)

15.12

d)

1.512

80.

In the food chain of grass, mouse, snake, and owl, which is a secondary consumer?

a)

Grass

b)

Mouse

c)

Snake

d)

Owl

81.

A trophic pyramid shows:

a)
The reproductive patterns of organisms in an ecosystem.
b)
The chemical composition of soil in an ecosystem.
c)
The geographical distribution of species in an ecosystem.
d)
The flow of energy through different trophic levels in an ecosystem.
82.

What is a population?

a)

A group of organisms of the same species living in the same place

b)

A group of organisms of different species living in the same place

c)

A group of organisms of the same species living in different places

d)

A group of organisms of different species living in different places

83.

Population decreases by (select all):

a)

Immigration

b)

Emigration

c)

Birth

d)

Death

84.

Which of the following examples would be uniform dispersion?

a)

Suburbs

b)

A big city

c)

Bird nests

d)

Bunny burrows

85.

Which survivorship curve shows late loss and heavy parental care?

a)

Type 1

b)

Type 2

c)

Type 3

d)

None

86.

What type of disaster would lead to primary succession?

a)

Fire

b)

Flood

c)

Volcano

d)

Hurricane

87.

Secondary succession:

a)

Begins without soil

b)

Begins with soil

c)

Is pionnered by moss and lichens

d)

Is pioneered by grass and weeds

88.

A stable ecosystem is:

a)

The first organism to grow

b)

The recovery of an old ecosystem

c)

One that remains relatively constant

d)

The creation of a brand new ecosystem

89.

A community is destroyed by ice melting. What type of succession is this?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

90.

A community is burnt down. What type of succession is this?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

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