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Y11 Physics

Total questions: 168

Worksheet time: 2hrs 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of these options would give a total resistance of 10 Ω (ohms)?

a)

A 2 ohm resistor and a 5 ohm resistor in series

b)

A 2 ohm resistor and a 5 ohm resistor in parallel

c)

Two 5 ohm resistors in series

d)

Two 5 ohm resistors in parallel

2.

What equipment do you need to measure the resistance of a component?

Choose from an ammeter, a voltmeter and a power supply.

a)

Just an ammeter

b)

Just a voltmeter

c)

Just a power supply

d)

All three

3.

In what unit is charge measured?

a)

Volts

b)

Amps

c)

Quarks

d)

Coulombs

4.

Look at this circuit.

What can you say about the total resistance of this combination of resistors?

a)

This parallel arrangement has less resistance than either R1 or R2

b)

This parallel arrangement has a resistance between that of R1 and R2

c)

This parallel arrangement has more resistance than R1 or R2

d)

This parallel arrangement has more resistance than R1 and R2 added together

5.

What unit is used to measure voltage (or potential difference)?

a)

Amps (A)

b)

Volts (V)

c)

Coulombs (C)

d)

Joules (J)

6.

How does an earth wire act as a safety feature?

a)

It provides more current

b)

It stops the appliance becoming live

c)

It stops the appliance from being dropped

d)

It slows the current if there is a fault

7.

Which is the most common type of wasted energy in the home?

a)

Kinetic

b)

Gravitational

c)

Thermal

d)

Chemical

8.

As a filament bulb gets brighter, what happens to its resistance?

a)

The resistance decreases

b)

The resistance stays the same

c)

The resistance increases

d)

The resistance becomes zero

9.

When does the resistance of a light-dependent resistor increase?

a)

When it gets darker

b)

When it gets lighter

c)

When it gets hotter

d)

When it gets colder

10.

How does friction cause static charge?

a)

By removing positive electrons

b)

By adding positive electrons

c)

By transferring negative electrons

d)

By a squeaky noise

11.

Which of these factors does NOT affect the resistance of a wire?

a)

The material the wire is made from

b)

The length of the wire

c)

The diameter of the wire

d)

The shape of the wire

12.

A car headlamp is rated as 12 V, 2 A.

What is its power rating?

a)

12 W

b)

14 W

c)

24 W

d)

122 W

13.

The correct form of Ohm's Law, linking potential difference V, current I and resistance R is…

a)

V = I × R

b)

V = I + R

c)

V = I/R

d)

V = R/I

14.

How can you describe a.c, or alternating current?

a)

A current with the same strength and direction all the time

b)

A current that varies in strength and swaps direction smoothly and regularly

c)

A current that has the same strength but changes direction regularly

d)

A current that changes strength regularly but always in the same direction

15.

A current of 0.5 A flows for 2 minutes in a circuit.

The charge flow is…

a)

1 C

b)

2 C

c)

60 C

d)

120 C

16.

What does this graph show?

a)

Resistance and length of wire are proportional

b)

Resistance and length of wire are directly proportional

c)

Resistance and length of wire are inversely proportional

d)

Resistance and length of wire are unrelated

17.

Why is distributing the same power through the National Grid more efficient at a lower current?

a)

Low voltages are safer

b)

High currents heat up the cables, wasting energy

c)

High currents get more electricity through to the consumer

d)

High voltages are safer

18.

Which statement describes a series circuit?

a)

A single loop with the same current passing through all components

b)

More than one loop with the same current passing through all components

c)

A single loop with different currents passing through various components

d)

More than one loop with different currents passing through various components

19.

What colour is the neutral wire in a plug?

a)

Blue

b)

Brown

c)

Yellow

d)

Green & Yellow

20.

A residual current device (RCD) switches off the electricity supply if…

a)

the live and neutral currents are equal

b)

the live current is greater than the neutral current

c)

the live current is less than the neutral current

d)

the live and neutral currents are zero

21.

Which statement is true if you increase the resistance of a variable resistor?

a)

A larger current flows through the resistor

b)

The better the resistor conducts

c)

The lower the current flows through the resistor

d)

The easier it is for electrons to pass through the resistor

22.

Which of the following pairs of objects would undergo repulsion?

a)

A positively charged object next to a negatively charged object

b)

A positively charged object next to a neutral object

c)

A negatively charged object next to a neutral object

d)

A negatively charged object next to a negatively charged object

23.

What could a light-dependent resistor be used to control?

a)

The temperature of a fridge

b)

The temperature of the hot water in a water boiler

c)

The blood flow

d)

The timing for a streetlight

24.

Which statement describes a parallel circuit?

a)

A single loop with the same current passing through all components

b)

More than one loop with the same current passing through all components

c)

A single loop with different currents passing through each component

d)

More than one loop with different currents passing through each loop

25.

Which of these values is a power rating for a domestic lightbulb?

a)

230 V

b)

2000 W

c)

0.5 A

d)

11 W

26.

What colour is the earth wire in a plug?

a)

Blue

b)

Brown

c)

Yellow

d)

Green & Yellow

27.

Which of these materials would NOT act as an electrical insulator?

a)

Rubber

b)

Glass

c)

Copper

d)

Wood

28.

A student is attempting to measure the resistance of a component.

What should the student do to obtain a range of results?

a)

Adjust the variable resistor

b)

Swap the cells

c)

Reverse the ammeter

d)

Swap the ammeter and voltmeter

29.

A resistance of 33 Ω (ohms) has a current of 0.2 A passing through it.

What is the potential difference across the resistor?

a)

0.2 V

b)

0.66 V

c)

6.6 V

d)

33 V

30.

Which of these resistances conducts best?

a)

0.1 kilo-ohms

b)

1 mega-ohm

c)

10 ohms

d)

100 ohms

31.

The equation linking charge flow, Q, and current, I, is…

a)

Q = I/t

b)

Q = I × t

c)

Q = t/I

d)

Q = I + t

32.

The resistance of a thermistor is affected by…

a)

temperature

b)

moisture

c)

light levels

d)

pressure

33.

What type of fuse should be fitted to a kettle rated as 230 V, 2300 W?

a)

3 A

b)

5 A

c)

7 A

d)

13 A

34.

Look at this circuit.

What is the total resistance of this combination of resistors?

a)

2 Ohms

b)

8 Ohms

c)

15 Ohms

d)

35 Ohms

35.

Before being distributed through the National Grid, the output of a power station passes through a…

a)

step-out transformer

b)

step-in transformer

c)

step-down transformer

d)

step-up transformer

36.

An LED is an electrical device. What does 'LED' stand for?

a)

Low-energy device

b)

Light-efficient dimmer

c)

Low-efficiency diode

d)

Light-emitting diode

37.

Three cells, each of potential difference 4 V, are arranged in series.

They provide a potential difference of…

a)

1.3 V

b)

4 V

c)

7 V

d)

12 V

38.

Which colour wire connects to the fuse in a plug?

a)

Blue

b)

Brown

c)

Yellow

d)

Yellow & Green

39.

A 10 cm length of wire has a reistance of 25 Ω (ohms).

A 30 cm length of the same wire will have a resistance of…

a)

50 ohms

b)

100 ohms

c)

8 ohms

d)

75 ohms

40.

In the UK, the live wire is at an alternating potential difference of…

a)

0 V

b)

120 V

c)

230 V

d)

390 V

41.

What type of current do cells and batteries provide?

a)

a.c. only

b)

d.c. only

c)

a.c. and d.c.

d)

neither a.c. nor d.c.

42.

Which of these statements about a diode is true?

a)

A diode lets current through in only one direction

b)

A diode lets current through in both directions

c)

A diode has low resistance in all arrangements

d)

A diode has zero resistance

43.

Transformers in the National Grid are essential to distribute electricity…

a)

efficiently

b)

safely

c)

fairly

d)

quickly

44.

What is the frequency of a wave?

a)

# of oscillations produced in a certain amount of time

b)

The distance the wave oscillates from it's resting position

c)

The lowest point of a transverse wave

d)

Resting point of a wave - no wave movement

45.

What is the amplitude of a wave?

a)

Where there is no wave movement

b)

The distance the wave oscillates from it's resting position

c)

A disturbance that transfers energy from one place to another

d)

The distance between two corresponding parts of a wave

46.
The number of wavelengths that pass a point each second
a)
frequency
b)
wavelength
c)
pitch
d)
amplitude
47.

If the wavelength of a wave increased, what would happen to the frequency?

a)

decrease

b)

increase

c)

stay the same

48.

What property of this wave is represented by the letter "A"

a)

amplitude

b)

crest

c)

trough

d)

wavelength

49.
What property of the wave is represented by the letter "B"?
a)
amplitude
b)
crest
c)
trough
d)
wavelength
50.
Which wave in the diagram has the greatest frequency?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
51.

The units of frequency are...

a)

metres

b)

seconds

c)

Hertz

d)

degrees

52.

Light is an example of a transverse wave

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Sound is an example of a transverse wave

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Which of the following statements describes the period of a wave?

a)

Number of waves per second

b)

Distance from crest to crest

c)

Distance from resting position to top of the wave

d)

Time taken to produce one wave

55.

One use of radio waves is...

a)

Broadcasting and communications

b)

Heating

c)

Observing internal structure of objects

d)

Sterilising food and medical equipment

56.

The following image demonstrates...

a)

Reflection

b)

Refraction

c)

Interference

d)

Diffraction

57.
Electromagnetic waves are:
a)
A.  Transverse waves.
b)
B.  Longitudinal waves.
c)
C.  Longitudinal and transverse waves
d)
D.  Sound waves
58.
Microwaves are used in
a)
A.  Satellite communications.
b)
B.  The transmission of television signals.
c)
C.  Electrical heaters
d)
D.  Medical Imaging.
59.
As objects get warmer they always emit
a)
A.   More infra red radiation
b)
B.   More visible radiation
c)
C.  Less infra red radiation
60.
From which two combinations of mediums will light bend the most?
a)
A.   water to air
b)
B.   air to glass
c)
C.   glass to water
d)
D.   water to glass
61.
Which of the following lists of electromagnetic waves are in order of increasing energy?
a)
A.   UV, IR, Radio waves, microwaves.
b)
B.   Radio, IR, Visible, gamma.
c)
C.   Gamma, X rays, UV, visible.
d)
D.   Radio, gamma, visible, microwaves.
62.
Radio waves are used in
a)
A.  Satellite communications.
b)
B.  The transmission of television signals.
c)
C.  Electrical heaters
d)
D.  Medical Imaging.
63.
Infra red waves are
a)
A.  Higher frequency than UV but lower than visible.
b)
B.  Lower frequency than UV and shorter wavelength than microwaves.
c)
C.  Longer wavelength than radio waves and higher frequency than microwaves.
d)
D.  Shorter wavelength than gamma rays and a lower frequency than gamma rays.
64.
Hot drinks cool down quicker in black cups than white ones because:
a)
A.  White is a good absorber and poor emitter of radiation
b)
B.  Black is a good absorber and emitter of radiation.
c)
C.  Black is a good absorber and poor emitter of radiation.
d)
D.  White is a good absorber and emitter of radiation.
65.
The electromagnetic waves with the highest energy have:
a)
A.   The longest wavelength
b)
B.   The largest amplitude
c)
C.  The highest frequency
d)
D.  The slowest speed
66.
X rays are used in
a)
A.  Satellite communications.
b)
B.  The transmission of television signals.
c)
C.  Electrical heaters
d)
D.  Medical Imaging.
67.

Which type of wave as oscillations that are parallel to the direction of energy transfer?

a)

Transverse

b)

Light

c)

Longitudinal

d)

S-Wave

68.

A material has a high optical density. What will this do to the speed of light when it enters?

a)

Speed it up

b)

Slow it down

c)

Stays the same

69.

Electromagnetic waves are made up of oscillating..

a)

particles.

b)

protons.

c)

electric and magnetic fields.

d)

electric fields.

70.
The loudness of the sound depends on
a)
wavelength
b)
amplitude
c)
frequency
71.
The pitch of the sound depends on
a)
frequency
b)
amplitude
c)
wavelength
72.
When an electron absorbs a photon of light, it also...
a)
gains positive charge
b)
gains negative charge
c)
increases energy level
d)
decreases energy level
73.

Which type of radio waves is reflected off the ionosphere?

a)

Long-wave

b)

Short-wave

74.

Which type of radio wave can diffract (bend) around curved surfaces such as hills?

a)

Long-wave

b)

Short-wave

75.

How are Electromagnetic waves different from Mechanical waves?

a)

EM waves have very short wavelengths

b)

EM waves transmit energy instead of matter

c)

EM waves can travel through the vacuum of space (without particles)

d)

EM waves can change direction by reflection

76.

Which is true about the speed of radio waves compared to light waves? They are...

a)

less energy & frequency, but still the SAME speed as the speed of light (300,000,000 m/s)

b)

less energy & frequency, so LESS than the speed of light (300,000,000 m/s)

c)

smaller wavelength, so LESS than the speed of light (300,000,000 m/s)

d)

more energy & frequency, so MORE than the speed of light (300,000,000 m/s)

77.

To calculate the frequency of an electromagnetic wave, you need to know the speed of the wave and its

a)

wavelength.

b)

intensity.

c)

refraction.

d)

amplitude.

78.

A radio wave has a frequency of 12.0 x 106 Hz. Find its wavelength. (the speed of radtio waves in air is 3.0 x 108 m/s).

(a)  

79.
The word "atom" means what?
a)
"indivisible"
b)
"Adam"
c)
"extremely small"
d)
"indestructible"
80.
All atoms consist of mostly empty space.
a)
True
b)
False
81.
Almost all of the mass of an atom is found in what part?
a)
The electron cloud
b)
The nucleus
c)
The protons
d)
The charge
82.
How do gases behave in a container?
a)
Cluster together
b)
form a solid
c)
They take the shape of their container
d)
leak out 
83.
Which states allow easy flow of particles
a)
Gas and Solid
b)
Gas and Liquid
c)
Solid and Liquid
d)
Gas only
84.
Can Solids be compressed?
a)
No
b)
Yes
c)
Sometimes (it depends what it's made of)
d)
Generally no
85.
Which states allow easy flow of particles
a)
Gas and Solid
b)
Gas and Liquid
c)
Solid and Liquid
d)
Gas only
86.
How do materials change from one state of matter to another?
a)
They gain or lose energy
b)
They break appart
c)
The particles get stickyer
d)
They are magnetised to themselves
87.
What term describes a solid changing to a gas?
a)
Deposition
b)
Sublimation
c)
Evaporation
d)
Freezing
88.

What happens to particles as they heat up?

a)

Kinetic energy decreases

b)

Energy stays the same

c)

They don't move

d)

Kinetic energy increases

89.

Which state of matter has molecules that vibrate the least?

a)

solid

b)

water

c)

gas

90.

Who is this?

a)

Black Panther

b)

Iron man

c)

Thanos

d)

Thor

91.

How many days does a moon cycle last?

a)

22

b)

24

c)

28

d)

32

92.

Marie Curie was the first woman to win the Nobel Prize for her work in radioactivity but what elements did she discover?

a)

Radium & Polonium

b)

Radion & Argon

c)

Manganese & Polodium

d)

Radon & Radium

93.

Which reactor of the Chernobyl Power Plant caused the Chernobyl disaster?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

94.

How is alpha radiation used non-medically?

a)

In smoke alarms

b)

In thickness gauges

c)

In medical tracers

d)

In detecting leaks in pipes

95.

How is beta radiation used medically?

a)

In smoke alarms

b)

In thickness gauges

c)

In medical tracers

d)

In detecting leaks in pipes

96.

How is gamma radiation used?

a)

Smoke alarms

b)

Medical tracers

c)

Sterilising equipment

d)

Communication

97.
What is the formula for density?
a)
density = mass x volume
b)
density = mass / volume
c)
density = mass + volume
d)
density = mass - volume
98.
Why do ice cubes float in a  glass of water?
a)
the ice cubes are more dense than the water
b)
the water is more dense than the ice cubes
c)
the water is more dense than the glass
d)
the ice is more dense than the glass
99.
What is the density of water?
a)
0 g/ml
b)
1 g/ml
c)
10 g/ml
d)
100 g/ml
100.
What is the density of a substance that has a mass of 30g and a volume of 6 liters?
a)
24 g/l
b)
5 g/l
c)
36 g/l
d)
180 g/l
101.
Helium balloons rise on earth because
a)
helium is less dense than air
b)
helium is more dense than air
c)
helium is cooler than air
d)
helium is warmer than air
102.
The unit(s) for heat are?
a)
calories
b)
joules
c)
calories or joules
103.

What does c represent?

a)

Mass

b)

Specific heat

c)

Temperature

104.

What does m represent?

a)

Mass

b)

Specific heat

c)

Temperature

105.
The amount of energy required to raise the temperature 1ºC for every kilogram is called____?
a)
Thermal Energy
b)
Specific Heat capacity
c)
Temperature
d)
Kinetic Energy
106.

the symbol for specific latent heat is

a)

c

b)

L

c)

Q

d)

m

107.

What is the formula to calculate specific latent heat of vaporisation?

a)

L = Q/m

b)

c = Q/(mΔƟ)

c)

Q = mcΔƟ

d)

Q = mL

108.
Ice melting
a)
Chemical Change
b)
Physical Change
109.
Wood burned in a fireplace
a)
Chemical Change
b)
Physical Change
110.
Cake batter baked in an oven
a)
Chemical Change
b)
Physical Change
111.
Rust on an iron fence
a)
Chemical Change
b)
Physical Change
112.
Boiling water
a)
Chemical Change
b)
Physical Change
113.

What are particles X, Y and Z?

a)

X: electron, Y: proton, Z: neutron

b)

X: proton, Y: electron, Z: neutron

c)

X: proton, Y: neutron, Z: electron

d)

X: electron, Y: neutron, Z: proton

114.
In a correctly written symbol what would be located in the "A" position?
a)
number of neutrons
b)
atomic number
c)
number of electrons 
d)
mass number
115.

Which of the following accurately describe isotopes?

a)

Isotopes are elements that are beside each other in the periodic table.

b)

Isotopes are atoms that has the same number of protons but different number of electrons.

c)

Isotopes have similar physical properties but different chemical properties.

d)

Isotopes are atoms that has the same number of protons but different number of neutrons.

116.

Who won the Best Pop Vocal Album at the Grammys this year (2019)?

a)

Kelly Clarkson

b)

Taylor Swift

c)

Shawn Mendes

d)

Ariana Grande

117.

What are the four houses at Hogwarts?

a)

Ravenclaw, Slytherin, Hufflepuff & Gryffindor

b)

Ravenclaw, Slytherin, Muggle & Gryffindor

c)

Ravenclaw, Slytherin, Death Eaters & Gryffindor

d)

Ravenclaw, Slytherin, Nargles & Gryffindor

118.

What is special about a snake's vision?

a)

They can see in colour

b)

They have no pupils

c)

They can see infrared

d)

They are blind

119.

An electric motor transfers 24 J of energy usefully, but wastes 16 J of energy in doing so. What is the efficiency of the motor?

a)

16 J ÷ 24 J = 0.67

b)

24 J ÷ 16 J = 1.5

c)

16 J ÷ 40 J = 0.4

d)

24 J ÷ 40 J = 0.6

120.

If the speed of an object is increasing, its (a)   energy store is increasing.

121.

As an object falls it gains kinetic energy as its _______________ ___________ energy store decreases.

(a)  

122.

Which of the following is not a use of ultrasound?

a)

Cleaning machinery

b)

Sterilising medical apparatus

c)

Scanning in hospitals

d)

Range-finding

123.

The three types of fossil fuel are natural gas, coal and ...

a)

methane

b)

oil

c)

uranium

d)

wood

124.

Nuclear power is...

a)

renewable

b)

non-renewable

125.
What characteristic do all renewable resources share?
a)
Produced by waste products
b)
Form underground from dead organisms.
c)
Replaced in a short period of time
d)
Allow energy to pass through them easily
126.

One disadvantage of geothermal energy is that ________________________________.

a)

a plant cannot be built ANYWHERE

b)

it doesn't cost a lot of money to build

c)

it can provide power 24 hours a day

d)

it doesn't harm ecosystems where it's built

127.

What is the half life of this radioactive element

a)

100s

b)

40s

c)

50s

d)

10s

128.

The correct notation to complete this nuclear equation for beta decay is

a)
b)
c)
d)
129.

I am a fast moving electron stopped by aluminium - what am I?

a)

alpha

b)

beta

c)

gamma

130.

I am a high frequency electromagnetic wave stopped by thick lead - what am I?

a)

alpha

b)

beta

c)

gamma

131.

I am two neutrons and two protons, and stopped by paper - what am I?

a)

alpha

b)

beta

c)

gamma

132.

What is this symbol?

a)

Thermistor

b)

Resistor

c)

LED

d)

Diode

133.

The law of conservation of energy states that …

a)

energy is always constant

b)

energy cannot be transferred or created, only destroyed

c)

energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transferred

d)

energy cannot be transferred, only created and destroyed

134.

Select the non-magnetic element

a)

Iron

b)

Cobalt

c)

Nickel

d)

Copper

135.

Which rule applies the direction of a magnetic field created from an electrical current flowing through a wire?

a)

Right hand rule

b)

Left hand rule

c)

Neither

136.

Which of these factors can increase the strength of an electromagnet?

a)

Number of coils of wire

b)

Strength of electrical current flowing through wire

c)

Having an iron core

d)

Potential difference

e)

All of the above

137.

What is magnetic flux density measured in?

a)

Teslas

b)

Amps

c)

Musks

d)

Pascals

138.

What are the units of power?

a)

Joules

b)

Newtons

c)

Amps

d)

Watts

e)

Kilowatt-hours

139.

Which of these is not a force?

a)

Kinetic

b)

Thrust

c)

Tension

d)

Drag

e)

Friction

140.

Which of these are measured in Joules? Tick all that apply (two answers).

a)

Kinetic energy

b)

Weight

c)

Thrust

d)

Power

e)

Work done

141.

Describe the motion in the graph:

a)

Constant Speed (positive slope)

b)

Stopped (at rest)

c)

Acceleration (increasing speed)

d)

Return Home (negative slope)

142.

Describe the motion in the graph:

a)

Constant Speed (positive slope)

b)

Stopped (at rest)

c)

Acceleration (increasing speed)

d)

Return Home (negative slope)

143.

Select the description of motion from A - B.

a)

Slowing down away from the origin

b)

Speeding up away from the origin

c)

Constant velocity away from the origin

d)

Constant velocity towards the origin

144.

Use the picture above to choose the most accurate description of the object's motion

a)

object is at rest

b)

object is slowing down

c)

object is moving at a constant speed

d)

object is speeding up

145.

At what time does the object switch directions?

a)

15 minutes

b)

40 minutes

c)

10 minutes

d)

30 minutes

146.
Heat transfer in the image.
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
147.

What happens when the ball goes from the highest position to the lowest position

a)

PE and KE increases and decreases together

b)

Impossible to know without knowing the mass of the object

c)

the PE decreases while KE increases

148.

The thermal energy of a substance is called the........

a)

Maternal energy

b)

External energy

c)

Paternal energy

d)

Internal energy

149.

What is the melting point of iron?

a)

0 oC

b)

1500 oC

c)

2800 oC

d)

3300 oC

150.

At what point do the particles have the most kinetic energy?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

D

d)

F

151.

What state is iron in between C and D?

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

d)

plasma

152.

During which two sections of the graph does the temperature stay constant? (You must choose two answers)

a)

A to B

b)

B to C

c)

C to D

d)

D to E

e)

E to F

153.

Between which two points is iron a solid?

a)

A to B

b)

B to C

c)

C to D

d)

D to E

e)

E to F

154.

Example of a transverse wave?

a)

Electromagnetic wave

b)

Sound

c)

P-Waves

155.

Example of a longitudinal wave?

a)

P-waves

b)

S-waves

c)

Radio waves

d)

Ultraviolet light

156.

In a transverse wave, oscillations are ____ to direction of energy transfer

a)

Parallel

b)

Perpendicular

157.

What device would you use for viewing oscillations in waves?

a)

Oscilloscope

b)

Stroboscope

c)

Frequency generator

d)

Wave detector

158.

Which type of electromagnetic wave has the second highest frequency?

a)

X-Ray

b)

Gamma Rays

c)

Ultra Violet

d)

Micro waves

159.

Look at the following equation E = m c ΔθE\ =\ m\ c\ \Delta\theta  What does the c stand for?

a)

Mass

b)

change in temperature

c)

Latent heat

d)

specific heat capacity

160.

Look at the equation: E=mLE=mL  What does the L stand for?

a)

Latent Heat

b)

Mass

c)

Energy

d)

Specific Heat Capacity

161.

A gas is kept at a constant volume, but it is heated up. What happens to the pressure of the gas?

a)

Pressure increases because particles hit the sides of the container more frequently (they have more KE)

b)

Pressure increases because particles hit the sides each other more frequently (they have more KE)

c)

Pressure decreases because particles have more room to move so don't hit the sides of the containers as often.

d)

Pressure decreases because particles have more room to move so don't hit each other as often.

162.

What is the unit for pressure?

a)

Pa

b)

J

c)

kg/m3

d)

N

163.

Which letter(s) represents the wavelength of the wave?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

e)

e

164.

What is the amplitude of this wave?

a)

0.20 m

b)

0.40 m

c)

2.0 s

d)

4.0 s

165.

What is the time period of this wave?

a)

0.20 m

b)

0.40 m

c)

2.0 s

d)

4.0 s

166.
How far does the car travel before it reaches a steady speed?
a)
10m
b)
20m
c)
100m
d)
200m
167.

Which of the following do all regions of the electromagnetic spectrum have in common?

a)

Travel at the speed of light (3.0 x 10 8 m/s)

b)

Cannot travel in a vacuum

c)

Can be reflected, refracted and polarised

d)

Need a medium to travel in

168.
To convert cm to m...
a)
divide the cm by 100
b)
multiply the cm by 100
c)
multiply the cm by 1000
d)
divide the cm by 1000

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