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EOC Part 2 Review

Total questions: 64

Worksheet time: 2hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which strand is the complementary strand of DNA?

a)

3' - TAA CGC TAA - 5'

b)

3' - AUU CGC AUU - 5'

c)

3' - ATT GCG ATT - 5'

d)

3' - AUU GCG AUU - 5'

2.

Which is the complementary DNA strand?

a)

AAA-CAG-CTG-CTA

b)

ATC-GTC-CTG-AAA

c)

TAG-CAG-GAC-TTT

d)

CGA-TGA-AGT-CCC

3.

Which occurs during the process of DNA replication?

a)

The parental DNA strand serves as the template for the daughter strands.

b)

The daughter DNA strands serve as the source for nucleotides for the parental strand.

c)

The daughter strands are identical to each other but different from the parental strand.

d)

The parental DNA strand repairs itself after producing new daughter strands.

4.

Which mRNA sequence codes for the same amino acid sequence as the mRNA sequence CGU-CUG-AGC?

a)

GCU-UCG-CGA

b)

AAU-CCC-AGU

c)

AGA-CUA-UCA

d)

CGG-UUG-GGA

5.

Which statement explains the process of protein synthesis in humans?

a)

Transcription and translation both occur in the cytoplasm. Transcription results in an mRNA strand, and translation results in the production of a protein.

b)

Transcription and translation both occur in the nucleus. Transcription results in a protein, and translation results in the production of tRNA.

c)

Transcription occurs in the nucleus, resulting in the production of an mRNA strand. Translation occurs in the cytoplasm, resulting in the production of a protein.

d)

Transcription occurs in the cytoplasm, resulting in the production of a protein. Translation occurs in the nucleus, resulting in the production of tRNA.

6.

Which three statements correctly describe the roles of RNA molecules in the process of transcription and translation in animal cells?

a)

Small RNA molecules in the RNA polymerase catalyze the formation of phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides in the growing messenger RNA.

b)

Messenger RNA molecules carry genetic information from the gene in the nucleus to the ribosome in the cytoplasm.

c)

Transfer RNA molecules carry the appropriate amino acid to the growing polypeptide.

d)

Genomic RNA molecules store genetic information and transmit it to an individual's offspring.

e)

Ribosomal RNA molecules function in the assembly of the ribosome-mRNA complex and in the formation of peptide bonds between the amino acids in the growing polypeptide.

7.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
8.

Which molecules store and transmit genetic information?

a)

Proteins and lipids

b)

Carbohydrates and ATP

c)

DNA and RNA

d)

Enzymes and hormones

9.

RNA has what base that is instead of thymine?

a)

guanine

b)

adenine

c)

thymine

d)

uracil

10.
RNA has how many strands?
a)
one
b)
two
11.

What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUG-CCA-GUA-UGA

a)
Met-Pro-Ala-Val
b)
Met-Pro-Val
c)
Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
12.
Translation is important because it __________.
a)
Converts mRNA into a polypeptide
b)
Replicates the genetic information in DNA
c)
Produces RNA from DNA molecules
d)
Recycles tRNA molecules for reuse
13.

Use your codon chart to match the DNA sequence GAA to the correct amino acid

a)

VAL

b)

TYR

c)

LEU

d)

PHE

14.
Nucleotides are made up of a sugar, phosphate, and..?
a)
nitrogenous base
b)
nucleic acid
c)
cholesterol
d)
fatty acid
15.

What is the function of chromosomes in the human body?

a)

Chromosomes contain genetic information

b)

Chromosomes regulate body temperature

c)

Chromosomes store energy in the human body

d)

Chromosomes produce hormones in the human body

16.

In genetics, what does the term "homozygous" refer to?

a)

Having two different alleles for a trait

b)

Having two identical alleles for a trait

c)

The study of genes and their roles in inheritance

d)

A type of genetic cross

17.

Which of the following mechanisms is primarily responsible for the introduction of new alleles into a population's gene pool?

a)

Genetic drift

b)

Gene flow

c)

Natural selection

d)

Mutation

18.

What change is associated with mitosis?

a)

replication of cellular DNA

b)

increase in the size of the cell

c)

splitting of genetic material between the daughter cells

d)

formation of 2 genetically different daughter cells

19.

What is the role of cell differentiation?

a)

Expression of identical genes in daughter cells results in the faster cell replication

b)

Expression of specific genes in daughter cells results in faster cell replication

c)

Expression of identical genes in daughter cells results in new cell types

d)

Expression of specific genes in daughter cells results in new cell types

20.

Which cell cycle progression points represent the S phase of the cell cycle?

a)

Between points 0 to 1; the amount of DNA in the cell is at the lowest.

b)

Between points 1 to 2; the amount of DNA doubles within the cell.

c)

Between points 2 to 3; the amount of DNA has reached its maximum.

d)

Between points 3 to 4; the amount of DNA will be reduced as the cell splits.

21.

Which phase during mitosis is characterized by the cell reforming the nucleus and beginning to split in two?

a)

anaphase

b)

metaphase

c)

prophase

d)

telophase

22.

Which cell type is replaced the fastest?

a)

heart cells

b)

intestinal cells

c)

liver cells

d)

skin cells

23.

Which conclusion is most consistent with the data in the table?

a)

Cells in the integumentary system divide faster than any other type of cell in the body.

b)

Cells in the digestive system are among the most rapidly dividing cells in the body.

c)

Cells of the respiratory and circulatory systems have faster replacement rates than cells of the digestive system.

d)

Cells in the reproductive and nervous systems are never replaced.

24.

Which example in the human body demonstrates mitosis?

a)

hair cells losing their nucleus as they age

b)

fat cells providing energy to the body

c)

cheek cells being removed during eating

d)

skin cells dividing to heal a wound

25.

How does cell differentiation impact the developing embryo?

a)

It helps divide a cell into many cells to form an embryo

b)

It helps make identical cells to form identical organs

c)

It helps increase the size of a cell during the embryo's development

d)

It helps cells become more specialized to form specific organs

26.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
27.
The division of the nucleus is known as:
a)
Synthesis
b)
Mitosis
c)
G1
d)
G2
28.
Diploid Cells are represented by
a)
2n
b)
n
c)
4n
d)
1/2 n
29.
Before the cell divides, what process needs to happen?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
d)
Protein synthesis
30.
In mitosis, if a parent cell has 46 chromosomes, each daughter cell will have ___ chromosomes.
a)
23
b)
46
c)
92
d)
184
31.
The cell membrane pinches in, dividing the cytoplasm into 2 cells
a)
Metaphase
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telephase
d)
Cytokinesis
32.
Chromsomes line up in the middle of the cell during:
a)
Anaphase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Telophase
33.
How many cells are created during Telophase II?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
34.
Which type of cell division creates exact copies of the original cell?
a)
Meiosis
b)
Mitosis
c)
Differentiation
d)
Stem cells
35.

A cellular process known as "crossing over" is shown. Which statement best describes the significance of this process?

a)

The process allows organisms to grow and heal.

b)

The process produces clones of the parent organism.

c)

The process copies DNA before cell division

d)

The process creates genetic variation in the resulting cells

36.
Which cellular process is shown?
a)
meiosis
b)
endocytosis
c)
mitosis
d)
phagocytosis
37.

Why do cells divide in humans?

a)

Growth and repair

b)

Making offspring

c)

Movement

d)

Creating Energy

38.
Chromosomes are made up of two identical sister _____________.
a)
chloroplasts
b)
nuclei
c)
chromatids 
d)
gens
39.

What are the THREE MAIN events in cell division

a)

INTERPHASE

b)

CYTOKINESIS

c)

PHOTOSYNTHESIS

d)

MITOSIS

40.
The daughter cells in mitosis are...
a)
Identical
b)
Unique
41.
Cancer is the uncontrolled division of cells.
a)
True
b)
False
42.
What is it called when a sperm and egg meet?
a)
meiosis
b)
fertilization
c)
cell division
d)
mitosis
43.

Bacteria reproduce by dividing through a process called binary fission. Which type of

reproduction is described above?

a)

Sexual

b)

Asexual

c)

Meiosis

d)

Fertilization

44.
What process, and which type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
45.

Cell division (mitosis and cytokinesis) is represented by the letter

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

46.
A diploid cell 
a)
is 2n
b)
has twice the chromosomes of a haploid cell
c)
results at the end of mitosis
d)
All of the above
47.

Which are two features of asexual reproduction that help in the continuation of a species?

a)

produces many offspring rapidly

b)

requires less energy

c)

occurs independently or with a mate

d)

generates genetic variety in offspring

e)

increases beneficial mutations

48.

Which change in DNA will cause a heritable germline mutation?

a)

The sugar phosphate backbone of DNA in bone cells breaks due to exposure to X-rays

b)

Thymine dimers form in the DNA of a skin cell due to exposure to UV light

c)

A DNA replication error occurs in a sperm producing cell

d)

An error occurs during transcription of a DNA in a liver cell

49.

Which three processes occur during meiosis?

a)

crossing over

b)

asexual reproduction

c)

formation of gametes

d)

independent assortment

e)

production of diploid cells

50.

A chemical has mutagenic effects on plants. A researcher is worried that the mutation may be passed to new plants produced from parent plants that have been exposed to the chemical.

How can the researcher investigate if the chemical causes a heritable mutation?

a)

Look at the sex cells of the exposed parent plants, and compare their genetic code to identical plants not exposed to the chemical

b)

Look at the leaf cells of the exposed parent plants, and compare them to unexposed plants

c)

Look at the root structure of the exposed parent plants, and compare them to plants grown at the same time

d)

Look at the height of the exposed parent plants, and compare it to the other plants to see if they are growing at the same rate

51.

Clover plants that are heterozygous for both genes are crossed with clover plants that are homozygous recessive for both genes. They produce 300 seeds.

How many seeds can be expected to grow into plants that produce cyanide?

a)

0

b)

75

c)

150

d)

225

52.

In a controlled study, two parental plants are crossed and produce 240 F1 plants. All of the F1 plants produce the cyanide precursor molecule, but only half of the F1 plants produce linamarase.

What are the most likely genotypes of the parental plants?

a)

AALL and aall

b)

AaLl and AaLl

c)

Aall and aaLl

d)

AALl and Aall

53.

In the pedigree shown, each symbol represents an individual clover plant. If the shaded symbols represent plants that produce the enzyme linamerase, which pedigree accurately represents inheritance in clover plants?

a)

b)

c)

d)

54.

Which argument is true about the gametes formed at the end of meiosis 2?

a)

Meiosis produces gametes that have genetic material different from the parent cell

b)

Meiosis produces gametes that have genetic material identical to that of the parent cell

c)

Meiosis produces more gametes with the same amount of genetic material as in the parent cell

d)

Meiosis produces fewer gametes with double the amount of genetic material as in the parent cell

55.

Coat color in dogs is controlled in part by a gene that regulates the deposition of pigment. The patches of color in the dog shown in the figure are caused by a somatic mutation. The genotype in the different patches are indicated.

Which three statements are true about the mutation that caused the black coloring?

a)

The mutation did not affect the phenotype of the dog

b)

The mutation will affect only this dog

c)

The mutation occurred in a body cell after the formation of the embryo

d)

The mutation was present in the gametes of the dog's parents

e)

The mutation made a permanent change to the DNA of the affected cell

56.

A beetle species is known for having two different shell shapes: round or oval. The round shape (R) is completely dominant to the oval shape (r).

If a heterozygous female mates with the heterozygous male, what is the expected genotypic ratio?

a)

RR: 1, Rr: 1, rr: 2

b)

RR: 1, Rr: 1, rr: 1

c)

RR: 1, Rr: 2, rr: 1

d)

RR: 2, Rr: 1, rr: 1

57.

A person has a family history of hemophilia. The person creates a pedigree to show which members of the family have been tested for hemophilia and the results of the tests.

How should hemophilia be categorized, and why?

a)

Hemophilia is a dominant disorder because if a person has the trait, the person is likely to have the disorder

b)

Hemophilia is a recessive disorder because it requires two recessive alleles for the person to have the disorder

c)

Hemophilia is a codominant disorder because females are more likely to have two dominant alleles and have the disorder

d)

Hemophilia is a sex linked disorder because males are more likely to have the disorder and females can be carriers of the disorder

58.

Individual 5 marries a male who has hemophilia. They consult a genetic counselor to determine the likelihood of their children having the disorder.

Which table correctly labels the percent for each outcome?

a)

b)

c)

d)

59.

Which claim about reproduction in dogs can best be supported using a valid argument?

a)

Offspring produced by sexual reproduction are genetically identical

b)

Gametes from both dogs are needed to maintain the correct number of chromosomes in the offspring

c)

Phenotypic variation will occur in the offspring as a result of mitosis in the gametes

d)

Binary fission is required for sexual and asexual reproduction in dogs

60.

Antibiotics help treat bacterial infections. One antibiotic binds to a bacterium's ribosome, which stops the creation of new proteins and kills the bacterium. The image shows this mutation.

After the mutation, the bacterium can survive in the presence of the antibiotic. Which argument explains how the mutated bacteria are able to survive in the presence of the antibiotic?

a)

The mutation makes the ribosome bind more effectively to the antibiotic

b)

The mutation prevents the creation of ribosomes within the bacterium

c)

The mutation changes the ribosome structure so that the antibiotic cannot bind to it

d)

The mutation changes the shape of the antibiotic so that it cannot bind to the ribosome

61.

Which statement describes an advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?

a)

Sexual reproduction results in more genetic variation in organisms than asexual reproduction

b)

Sexual reproduction requires more time to produce organisms than asexual reproduction

c)

Sexually produced offspring are more dependent on their parents for survival than offspring produced through asexual reproduction

d)

Sexually produced organisms are more dependent on other organisms for reproduction than offspring produced through asexual reproduction

62.

ABO blood type is controlled by three alleles of a single gene. Blood type O is associated with the recessive "i" allele. Blood types A, B, and AB are associated with the codominant IA and IB alleles. The pedigree shows the inheritance of ABO blood types in a family.

Which two genotypes are possible for the individual indicated with the question mark?

a)

ii

b)

iIA

c)

IAIB

d)

iIB

e)

IBIB

63.
What is the function of a nucleic acid?
a)
Stores genetic information
b)
Stores energy
c)
Quick source of energy
d)
Builds structures
64.
Every organism must pass on its ________________, stored in DNA.
a)
metabolism
b)
response
c)
growth
d)
genetic code