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Quiz for A level

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 2hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which element is in the f-block of the Periodic Table?

a)

Palladium

b)

Phosphorus

c)

Platinum

d)

Plutonium

2.

Which of these decreases down Group 2?

a)

First ionisation energy

b)

Atomic radius

c)

Number of protons

d)

Reactivity with water

3.

Which statement about barium sulfate is correct?

a)

It is soluble in water at a temperature of 100 °C.

b)

It is used in medicine because it does not dissolve in body fluids.

c)

It is a pale yellow solid.

d)

It reacts with acidified barium chloride solution.

4.

Which products are formed when magnesium reacts with steam?

a)

Magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen

b)

Magnesium hydroxide and oxygen

c)

Magnesium oxide and hydrogen

d)

Magnesium oxide and oxygen

5.

Sulfur dioxide (SO2) is produced when some fossil fuels are burned. Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Sulfur dioxide can be removed from waste gases in a power station by an acid-base reaction with calcium oxide.

b)

Sulfur dioxide is insoluble in water.

c)

Sulfur dioxide is a basic oxide.

d)

Sulfur dioxide is an ionic compound.

6.

Which one of the following is not a correct trend down Group VII?

a)

The first ionisation energy of the atom decreases.

b)

The oxidising power of the element increases.

c)

The electronegativity of the atom decreases.

d)

The boiling point of the element increases.

7.

Which statement about astatine is correct?

a)

Astatine has a greater electronegativity than bromine

b)

Astatine is a better oxidising agent than bromine

c)

Astatine has a greater boiling point than bromine

d)

Astatine has a greater first ionisation energy than bromine

8.

The boiling points of the halogens increase down Group VII because

a)

covalent bond strengths increase.

b)

bond polarities increase.

c)

the surface areas of the molecules increase.

d)

electronegativities increase.

9.

Which is the formula of the main aluminium-containing species present when aluminium oxide is added to an excess of water?

a)

[Al(H2O)6]3+(aq)

b)

Al(H2O)3(OH)3(s)

c)

[Al(H2O)2(OH)4]−(aq)

d)

Al2O3(s)

10.

Which element forms an ionic oxide that reacts with strong alkalis?

a)

Aluminium

b)

Magnesium

c)

Sodium

d)

Sulfur

11.

Which element is in the d-block of the Periodic Table?

a)

Selenium

b)

Antimony

c)

Tantalum

d)

Lead

12.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

a)

The first ionisation energies of the elements in Period 3 show a general decrease from sodium to chlorine.

b)

The electronegativities of Group 2 elements decrease from magnesium to barium.

c)

The strength of the intermolecular forces increases from hydrogen fluoride to hydrogen chloride.

d)

The ability of a halide ion to act as a reducing agent decreases from fluoride to iodide.

13.

Which of these elements has the highest second ionisation energy?

a)

Na

b)

Mg

c)

Ne

d)

Ar

14.

Which elements are shown in increasing order of the stated property?

a)

Atomic radius: phosphorus, sulfur, chlorine.

b)

First ionisation energy: sodium, magnesium, aluminium.

c)

Electronegativity: sulfur, phosphorus, silicon.

d)

Melting point: argon, chlorine, sulfur.

15.

Which is the correct order of melting points of these Period 3 elements?

a)

phosphorus > sulfur > chlorine > argon

b)

argon > chlorine > phosphorus > sulfur

c)

sulfur > phosphorus > chlorine > argon

d)

chlorine > phosphorus > sulfur > argon

16.

Which of the following is a correct statement about the trend in atomic radius across Period 3 of the Periodic Table?

a)

radius increases because the atoms have more electrons

b)

radius decreases because nuclear charge increases

c)

radius increases because shielding (screening) increases

d)

radius decreases because shielding (screening) decreases

17.

Which is the correct classification for the element yttrium (Y)?

a)

s block

b)

p block

c)

d block

d)

f block

18.

The diagram shows how a property of Period 3 elements varies across the period. What is the property?

a)

Atomic radius

b)

Electronegativity

c)

First ionisation energy

d)

Melting point

19.

Which of these Period 3 elements has the highest melting point?

a)

Aluminium

b)

Phosphorus

c)

Sodium

d)

Sulfur

20.

Which element has the highest first ionisation energy?

a)

Aluminium

b)

Phosphorus

c)

Silicon

d)

Sulfur

21.

What ratio does the mass spectrometer detect?

a)

mass of main radical

b)

mass of molecular ion

c)

charge to mass ratio

d)

mass to charge ratio

22.

In Mass spectrometry molecules are bombarded with high energy

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

X-ray beams

d)

Electrons

23.
What do the peaks on the mass spectrum represent?
a)
anions
b)
different isotopes
c)
atoms with differing numbers of electrons
d)
numbers of electrons
24.
Which element does this mass spectrum most likely represent?
a)
neon
b)
scandium
c)
boron
d)
sodium
25.
What do the heights of the peaks represent in the mass spectrum?
a)
number of isotopes
b)
relative abundance of each isotope
c)
average atomic mass
d)
charge:mass ratio
26.
How many isotopes are shown in this mass spectrum?
a)
1
b)
84
c)
86
d)
4
27.
What do you expect the molar mass to be for this element?
a)
91.4 g/mol
b)
90.0 g/mol
c)
4 g/mol
d)
50. g/mol
28.
How many isotopes of this element are shown in the mass spectrum?
a)
98
b)
7
c)
100
d)
95.9 g/mol
29.
A sample of pure chlorine gas is analyzed in the MS. Which of the following is a correct interpretation?
a)
Chlorine has an isotope with a mass of 70 amu
b)
Chlorine has three known isotopes
c)
Chlorine is diatomic
d)
Chlorine is highly reactive
30.
Based on the mass spectrum, which isotope of chlorine is most abundant?
a)
35Cl
b)
37Cl
c)
70Cl
d)
72Cl
31.
Use your periodic table.  There are two isotopes of rubidium: 85Rb and 87 Rb. Which is more abundant?
a)
equally abundant
b)
rubidium-85
c)
rubidium-85.47
d)
rubidium-87
32.
Carbon has three known isotopes. Which is the most abundant?
a)
carbon-12.011
b)
carbon-12
c)
carbon-13
d)
carbon-14
33.
What is the average atomic mass for this element?
a)
10 amu
b)
10.8 amu
c)
19.9 amu
d)
11 amu
34.
The average atomic mass rhenium, Re, is 186.21 amu. If 37.1% of rhenium has mass# = 185, what is the other stable isotope?
a)
Rhenium-183
b)
Rhenium-181
c)
Rhenium-187
d)
Rhenium-189
35.
The average atomic mass for nitrogen is 14.0067 amu.  If you have a sample of nitrogen atoms, what is the chance that one randomly selected atom will have a mass of 14.0067 amu?
a)
0.0%
b)
0.0067%
c)
90%
d)
100%
36.

What is the IUPAC name of the major product of the reaction between 2-ethylbut-1-ene and hydrogen bromide?

a)

1-bromo-2-ethylbutane

b)

2-bromo-2-ethylbutane

c)

2-bromo-2-methylpentane

d)

3-bromo-3-methylpentane

37.

In which reaction does the inorganic reagent act initially as an electrophile?

a)

bromoethane with ethanolic potassium hydroxide

b)

chloroethane with aqueous sodium hydroxide

c)

ethane with chlorine

d)

ethene with concentrated sulfuric acid

38.

What is the minimum volume of 0.0500 mol dm–3 aqueous bromine needed to react completely with 0.0200 g of buta-1,3-diene?

(Mr of buta-1,3-diene = 54.0)

a)

7.40 cm3

b)

14.8 cm3

c)

29.6 cm3

d)

67.5 cm3

39.

Which has E-Z isomers?

a)

C2H2Br2

b)

C2H3Br

c)

C2H4Br2

d)

C2H5Br

40.

Which compound reacts with hydrogen bromide to give 2-bromo-3-methylbutane as the major product?

a)

(CH3)2C=CHCH3

b)

CH3(CH2)2CH=CH2

c)

CH3CH2C(CH3)=CH2

d)

(CH3)2CHCH=CH2

41.

Which statement is not correct about CH2═C(CH3)CH2Br?

a)

It displays E-Z isomerism.

b)

It forms an addition polymer.

c)

It reacts with electrophiles.

d)

It decolourises bromine water.

42.

Which polymer has hydrogen bonding between its chains?

a)

Kevlar

b)

Polythene

c)

PVC

d)

Terylene

43.

Which alkene reacts with hydrogen bromide to give 2-bromo-3-methylbutane as the major product?

a)

(CH3)2C=CHCH3

b)

CH3CH2CH=CHCH3

c)

CH3CH2C(CH3)=CH2

d)

(CH3)2CHCH=CH2

44.

Which statement is correct about poly(chloroethene)?

a)

It has the empirical formula CHCl

b)

It decolourises bromine water.

c)

Its brittleness is reduced by plasticisers.

d)

Its polymer chain contains alternate single and double bonds.

45.

Consider the reaction between propene and hydrogen bromide to form the major product.

Which species is formed in the mechanism of this reaction?

a)

CH3–C+H–CH2Br

b)

CH3–CHBr–C+H2

c)

CH3–C+H–CH3

d)

CH3–CH2–C+H2

46.

Which statement about E-1,2-dichloroethene is correct?

a)

It has the same boiling point as Z-1,2-dichloroethene.

b)

It forms a polymer with the same repeating unitas Z-1,2-dichloroethene.

c)

It has the same IR spectrum as Z-1,2-dichloroethenein the range 400–1500 cm−1.

d)

It has a molecular ion peak different from that ofZ-1,2-dichloroethene in its mass spectrum.

47.

What is the major product of the reaction between but-1-ene and DBr?(D is deuterium and represents 2H)

a)

CH2DCH2CH2CH2Br

b)

CH2DCH2CHBrCH3

c)

 CH3CH2CHBrCH2D

d)

CH3CH2CHDCH2Br 

48-62.
48.

What is the formula that shows the arrangement of atoms in the molecule of a compound?

a)

Displayed formula

b)

Structural formula

c)

Molecular formula

d)

Empirical formula

49.

In which type of reaction is a small molecule such as HCI or H₂O removed from a molecule?

a)

Addition

b)

Elimination

c)

Substitution

d)

Condensation

50.

What is the term for a species which donates pairs of electrons and is usually attracted to positive charge?

a)

Enantiomers

b)

Nucleophile

c)

Electrophile

d)

Chiral centre

51.

What is the enthalpy change when 1 mole of an ionic compound is formed from its gaseous ions under standard conditions?

a)

Electron affinity

b)

Lattice energy

c)

Standard enthalpy change of solution

d)

Standard enthalpy change of atomisation

52.

What is the measure of randomness or disorder of a system at a specific temperature?

a)

Bond energy

b)

Specific heat capacity

c)

Entropy

d)

Average bond energy

53.

What is the power to which the concentration of a particular reactant is raised in the rate equation?

a)

Half-life-time

b)

Order of reaction w.r.t. a particular reactant

c)

Overall order of reaction

d)

Rate of reaction

54.

What is the potential difference between a standard hydrogen electrode and a metal immersed in a solution containing metal ions at 1.0 mol dm³ concentration at 25°C and at 1 atmospheric pressure?

a)

Electrode potential

b)

Standard electrode potential

c)

Standard cell potential

d)

Standard reduction potential

55.

What is the mass of substance liberated at an electrode during electrolysis directly proportional to?

a)

The concentration of the electrolyte

b)

The number of charges on the ion

c)

The number of faradays required to discharge one mole of an ion at an electrode

d)

The quantity of electricity passed through the electrolyte

56.

What is the formula that shows the arrangement of atoms in the molecule of a compound?

a)

Displayed formula

b)

Empirical formula

c)

Molecular formula

d)

Structural formula

57.

In which type of reaction is a small molecule such as HCI or H₂O removed from a molecule?

a)

Elimination

b)

Substitution

c)

Condensation

d)

Addition

58.

What is the term for a species which donates pairs of electrons and is usually attracted to positive charge?

a)

Electrophile

b)

Nucleophile

c)

Enantiomers

d)

Chiral centre

59.

What is the enthalpy change when 1 mole of an ionic compound is formed from its gaseous ions under standard conditions?

a)

Electron affinity

b)

Lattice energy

c)

Standard enthalpy change of solution

d)

Standard enthalpy change of atomisation

60.

What is the measure of randomness or disorder of a system at a specific temperature?

a)

Bond energy

b)

Specific heat capacity

c)

Entropy

d)

Average bond energy

61.

What is the power to which the concentration of a particular reactant is raised in the rate equation?

a)

Rate of reaction

b)

Order of reaction w.r.t. a particular reactant

c)

Half-life-time

d)

Overall order of reaction

62.

What is the potential difference between a standard hydrogen electrode and a metal immersed in a solution containing metal ions at 1.0 mol dm³ concentration at 25°C and at 1 atmospheric pressure?

a)

Electrode potential

b)

Standard cell potential

c)

Standard electrode potential

d)

Standard reduction potential

63.

How many structural isomers exist for hexane

a)

three

b)

two

c)

five

d)

four

64.

A structural isomer of pentane is?

a)

2,2-dimethylbutane

b)

2-methylbutane

c)

1-methylpropane

d)

1-methylpentane

65.

Given a formula representing a compound:Which formula represents an isomer of this compound?

a)
b)
c)
d)
66.

Which is an isomer of

a)
b)
c)
d)
67.
Propane has no structural isomers
a)
True
b)
False
68.

What property can be assigned to a carbon atom that has four different atoms or structural groups attached to it?

a)

isomerity

b)

chirality

c)

chivalry

d)

geometry

69.

Chiral carbons will produce _____________.

a)

structural isomers

b)

optical isomers

c)

polymers

d)

monomers

70.

In a stereoisomer, ________ means "on the same side" and ______ means "across from."

a)

cis; trans

b)

cis; L

c)

D; L

d)

trans; cis

71.
A double bond between two carbon atoms consists of
a)
2 sigma bonds
b)
1 sigma bond and 1 pi bond
c)
2 pi bonds
d)
The bonding scheme varies depending on the molecule
72.
How many chiral center is found in C2H5CH(OH)CH2OH?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
73.

Can this compound can form optical isomers?

a)

No

b)

yes

c)

depends on whether it wants to or not

74.

Butanoic acid is:

a)

Optically active

b)

Non-optically active

c)

Basic

75.

The optical isomer of this compound is

a)
b)
c)
76.

Optical isomers

a)

reflect polarised light in opposite directions

b)

rotate polarised light in opposite directions

c)

reflect plane polarised light in opposite directions

d)

rotate plane polarised light in opposite directions

77.

Given the formula representing a compound:


Which formula represents an isomer of this compound?

a)
b)
c)
d)
78.

Which formulas represent compounds that are isomers of each other?

a)
b)
c)
d)
79.

Which pair of compounds are isomers?

a)

NO2 and N2O4

b)

P2O5 and P4O10

c)

HCOOH and CH3COOH

d)

CH3OCH3 and C2H5OH

80.

Which structural formula represents a molecule that is not an isomer of pentane?

a)
b)
c)
d)
81.
Which of the following is true about structural isomers?
a)
Have the same molecular formula
b)
Have different physical and chemical properties.
c)
Have the same number of elements
d)
all of the above
82.

Does this molecule exhibit optical isomerism?

a)

Yes

b)

No

83.

Does this molecule exhibit optical isomerism?

a)

Yes

b)

No

84.

Does this molecule exhibit optical isomerism?

a)

Yes

b)

No

85.

Does this molecule exhibit optical isomerism?

a)

Yes

b)

No

86.
Which of the following statement is FALSE about stereoisomerism?
a)
Same molecular formula
b)
Same structural formula
c)
Different structural arrangement or connectivity
d)
Different spatial arrangement
87.
Name the molecule using E/Z naming system
a)
[Z] 1,2 dichloroethene
b)
[E] 1,2 dichloroethene
c)
[Z] 1,2 dichloroethane
d)
[E] 1,2 dichloroethane
88.
Name the molecule using E/Z naming system
a)
[Z] 2-chlorobut-2-ene
b)
[E] 2-chlorobut-2-ene
c)
[Z] 1 chloro, 1,2-dimethylethene
d)
[E] 1 chloro, 1,2-dimethylethene
89.

Which molecule does not show stereoisomerism?

a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
90.
Optical isomers shown below is called
a)
isomers
b)
mirror images
c)
enantiomers
d)
racemic
91.

Enantiomers present in equimolar proportions are called

a)
optical isomers
b)
racemic mixture
c)
inactive isomers
d)
isotopes
92.

How to determine that a molecule exhibit cis-trans isomerism?

a)

Restricted rotation in a carbon-carbon single bond of alkenes

b)

Each carbon of a site of restricted rotation has 2 different atoms or groups attached to it

c)

Exist in cyclic compouds only

d)

Similar chemical properties

93.

Aqueous C2O42- ions react with MnO4- ions in acidic solution according to the equation

5 C2O42-+ 2MnO- + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2O

Under the same conditions Fe2+ ions also react with MnO4- ions. How many moles of MnO4- ions are required to react exactly with one mole of Fe(C2O4).2H2O?

a)

0.4

b)

0.6

c)

2.5

d)

7.5

94.

Which one of the following electronic configurations is that of a transition element?

a)

[Ar] 4s23d10

b)

[Ar] 4s23d9

c)

[Ar] 4s23d0

d)

[Ar] 4s23d104p1

95.

The oxidation of ethanedioate (oxalate) ions by manganate(VII) ions can be represented by the half equations:

C2O42-(aq) → 2CO2(g) + 2e−

MnO4- (aq) + 8H+(aq) + 5e− → Mn2+(aq) + 4H2O(l)

What volume (in cm3) of 0.02 M KMnO4 is required to oxidise completely a solution containing 0.02 mol of ethanedioate ions?

a)

25

b)

40

c)

250

d)

400

96.

When vanadium reacts with chlorine at 400°C, a brown compound is obtained. When an aqueous solution containing 0.193 g of this compound was treated with aqueous silver nitrate all the chlorine in the compound was precipitated as silver chloride. The mass of silver chloride (AgCl) produced was 0.574 g. Which one of the following could be the formula of the brown compound?

a)

VCl

b)

VCl2

c)

VCl3

d)

VCl4

97.

In which one of the following reactions does the metal species undergo reduction?

a)

MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2

b)

[Cu(H2O)6]2++ 4Cl− → [CuCl4]2− + 6H2O

c)

CrO72- + 2OH− → 2CrO42- + H2O

d)

TiO2 + 2C + 2Cl2 → TiCl4 + 2CO

98.

Which one of the following statements is true?

a)

A blue solution containing the ion [CoCl4]2− turns pink when added to an excess of water.

b)

A purple solution is formed when chlorine is bubbled into aqueous sodium bromide.

c)

A yellow precipitate is formed when aqueous silver nitrate is added to aqueous sodium chloride.

d)

A green solution containing the ion [CuCl4]2− turns blue when added to an excess of concentrated hydrochloric acid.

99.

Which of the species given below can behave as ligands?NH2- NH3 NH4+

a)

all three

b)

only NH3

c)

NH3 and NH4+

d)

NH2- and NH3

100.

The percentage of iron in a sample of impure iron(II) sulphate crystals can be determined by titrating solutions, made from separate weighed samples acidified with dilute sulphuric acid, against a standard solution of potassium manganate(VII).Which one of the following would lead to the greatest error in the calculation of the percentage of iron(II) in the sample?

a)

an error of 0.005 g made when weighing out a sample of mass 0.987 g

b)

an end-point error of 0.1 cm3 in 25.0 cm3

c)

an error of 5 cm3 when measuring out 25.0 cm3 of dilute sulphuric acid

d)

using the average of the titration values 25.4, 25.7 and 25.9 when the correct value is 25.5 cm3

101.

The percentage of iron in a sample of impure iron(II) sulphate crystals can be determined by titrating solutions, made from separate weighed samples acidified with dilute sulphuric acid, against a standard solution of potassium manganate(VII).Which one of the following statements explains why dilute hydrochloric acid is unsuitable for use in this titration?

a)

HCl will oxidise Fe2+ to Fe3+

b)

Cl− will reduce Fe3+ to Fe2+

c)

Cl− will reduce MnO4-

d)

HCl is a strong acid

102.

Which one of the following can act as an oxidising agent but not as a reducing agent?

a)

CH3CHO

b)

Fe2+

c)

I−

d)

MnO4-

103.

Which one of the following statements about the reaction below is false?

[Cu(H2O)6]2+ + EDTA4− [Cu(EDTA)]2- + 6H2O

a)

[Cu(EDTA)]2− is a more stable complex than [Cu(H2O)6]2+

b)

There is a redox reaction.

c)

Both [Cu(H2O)6]2+ and [Cu(EDTA)]2− are octahedral complexes.

d)

There is an increase in entropy when the reaction occurs.

104.

Which one of the following would not reduce an acidified aqueous solution of potassium dichromate(VI)?

a)

CH3COOH

b)

Zn

c)

CH3CHO

d)

Fe2+(aq)

105.

Which of these describes iodine?

a)

very pale yellow gas. It is highly reactive

b)

greenish, reactive gas, poisonous in high concentrations

c)

red liquid, that gives off dense brown/orange poisonous fumes

d)

shiny grey solid sublimes to purple gas.

106.

Which of these describes chlorine?

a)

very pale yellow gas. It is highly reactive

b)

greenish, reactive gas, poisonous in high concentrations

c)

red liquid, that gives off dense brown/orange poisonous fumes

d)

shiny grey solid sublimes to purple gas.

107.

Which of these describes bromine?

a)

very pale yellow gas. It is highly reactive

b)

greenish, reactive gas, poisonous in high concentrations

c)

red liquid, that gives off dense brown/orange poisonous fumes

d)

shiny grey solid sublimes to purple gas.

108.

Which of these describes flourine?

a)

very pale yellow gas. It is highly reactive

b)

greenish, reactive gas, poisonous in high concentrations

c)

red liquid, that gives off dense brown/orange poisonous fumes

d)

shiny grey solid sublimes to purple gas.

109.

Cl2 + 2Br- → 2Cl- + Br2 which one is the reducing agent?

a)

Br2

b)

Cl2

c)

Br-

d)

Cl-

110.

Which equation shows the displacement of bromine by chlorine?

a)

2NaBr + Cl2 → 2NaCl + Br-

b)

NaBr + Cl- → NaCl + Br2

c)

2NaBr + Cl2 → 2NaCl + Br2

d)

NaBr + 2Cl- → NaCl + 2Br-

111.

What is the trend for melting and boiling points of halogens?

a)

increases down the group

b)

decreases down the group

c)

increases up the group

d)

no change up the group

112.

The given table shows the results obtained when the halogens X2, Y2 and Z2 were added to separate aqueous solutions containing X-, Y- and Z-. which set correctly shows the strength (strongest first) of the ions X-, Y- and Z- as reducing agents?

a)

X- Y- , Z-

b)

X-, Z-, Y-

c)

Y-, Z-, X-

d)

Z-, X-, Y-,

113.

Choose two solutions that can be reacted together to produce a colour change

a)

KBr

b)

iodine

c)

KCl

d)

chlorine

114.

Chlorine compounds show oxidation states ranging from –1 to +7. What are the reagent(s) and conditions necessary for the oxidation of elemental chlorine into a compound containing chlorine in the +5 oxidation state?

a)

AgNO3(aq) followed by NH3(aq) at room temperature

b)

concentrated H2SO4 at room temperature

c)

cold dilute NaOH(aq)

d)

hot concentrated NaOH(aq)

115.

In redox reactions, what happens to the reducing agent?

a)

It is oxidised

b)

It does not participate in the reaction and remains unchanged

c)

It is reduced

116.

What is the species that gain electrons in a redox reaction?

a)

oxidizing agent

b)

reducing agent

c)

is oxidized

d)

increases in oxidation number

117.

What product/s are formed when chloride reacts with concentrated sulfuric acid?

a)

Cl2

b)

HCl

c)

SO2

d)

H2S

e)

S

118.

What product/s are formed when bromide reacts with concentrated sulfuric acid?

a)

Br2

b)

HBr

c)

SO2

d)

H2S

e)

S

119.

What product/s are formed when Iodide reacts with concentrated sulfuric acid?

a)

I2

b)

HI

c)

SO2

d)

H2S

e)

S

120.

What observations are seen when Iodide reacts with concentrated sulfuric acid?

a)

Misty fumes

b)

Purple fumes/black solid

c)

Colourless, choking gas

d)

Yellow solid

e)

Colourless gas, rotten egg smell

121.

What observations are seen when Bromide reacts with concentrated sulfuric acid?

a)

Misty fumes

b)

Brown fumes /

c)

Colourless, choking gas

d)

Yellow solid

e)

Colourless gas, rotten egg smell

122.

What observations are seen when Chloride reacts with concentrated sulfuric acid?

a)

Misty fumes

b)

Brown fumes /

c)

Colourless, choking gas

d)

Yellow solid

e)

Colourless gas, rotten egg smell

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