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Pre-AP Biology Unit 4: Genetics

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 2hrs 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Chargaff observed a 1:1 ratio between _____ and Thymine (T) in DNA.

a)

Adenine (A)

b)

Guanine (G)

c)

Cytosine (C)

d)

Thymine (T)

2.

Chargaff observed a 1:1 ratio between _____ and Cytosine (C) in DNA.

a)

Adenine (A)

b)

Guanine (G)

c)

Cytosine (C)

d)

Thymine (T)

3.

_________ is the genetic material found in all living organisms.

a)

DNA

b)

Protein

c)

Lipids

d)

Carbohydrates

4.

What are the three components of a nucleotide?

a)

Sugar, phosphate, nitrogenous base, hydrogen

b)

Sugar, phosphate, nitrogenous base, sulfur

c)

Sugar, phosphate, nitrogenous base, oxygen

d)

Sugar, phosphate, nitrogenous base, carbon

5.

Who accurately described the structure of DNA in 1953?

a)

Francis Crick and Rosalind Franklin

b)

James Watson and Francis Crick

c)

Rosalind Franklin

d)

James Watson and Rosalind Franklin

6.

What is the primary enzyme responsible for synthesizing new DNA strands during replication?

a)

Topoisomerase

b)

RNA primase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

DNA helicase

7.

Which strand of DNA replication is synthesized continuously?

a)

Template strand

b)

Lagging strand

c)

Leading strand

d)

Complementary strand

8.

What is the function of DNA ligase in DNA replication?

a)

Unzips the DNA

b)

Removes RNA primers

c)

Staples the DNA fragments together

d)

Synthesizes new DNA strands

9.

What is the sugar present in RNA nucleotides?

a)

Fructose

b)

Ribose

c)

Deoxyribose

d)

Glucose

10.

What is the term for the process by which a cell copies its DNA?

a)

Mutation

b)

Replication

c)

Translation

d)

Transcription

11.

Name this structure

a)

double helix

b)

nucelotide

c)

twisted ladder

d)

hydrogen bond

12.
What does DNA stand for?
a)
Deoxyribonucleic acid
b)
Denitrogenous acid
c)
Deribonucleic acid
d)
Diribonucleic acid
13.

Which of the following describes the shape of a DNA molecule?

a)

double helix

b)

sphere

c)

pyramid

d)

rectangle

14.
This picture is illustrating the ____ nature of DNA.
a)
anti-parallel
b)
deoxyribosic
c)
helical
d)
radioactive
15.

Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand

CAT TCA CTG

a)

ATG TGA CAG

b)

TAC ACT GTC

c)

GTA AGT GAC

d)

CAT TCA CTG

16.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
17.

Each of the two strands of DNA serves as a template for a new complementary strand in a _________ process of DNA replication.

a)

conservative

b)

semiconservative

c)

dispersive

18.

DO YOU REMEMBER?!

What is the nitrogen base ONLY found in DNA?

a)

adenine

b)

uracil

c)

guanine

d)

cytosine

e)

thymine

19.

What determines the sequence of amino acids to build a protein?

a)

DNA

b)

Glucose

c)

Fatty Acids

d)

Enyzme

20.

What is the sequence of events that occurs in your cells to make a trait, also known as the Central Dogma?

a)

Transcription > Translation > Expression

b)

Translation > Expression > Transcription

c)

Expression > Transcription > Translation

d)

Translation > Transcription > Expression

21.

Where does Transcription occur?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

22.

What is the purpose of transcription?

a)

To copy DNA into a molecule of mRNA.

b)

To read a copy of mRNA to build a protien.

23.

When the mRNA sequence leave the nucleus, what organelle does it travel to?

a)

mitochondria

b)

smooth ER

c)

ribosome

d)

vacuole

24.

What best explains the interaction between tRNA and mRNA during translation?

a)

anticodons on the mRNA line up with complementary codons on the tRNA

b)

anticodons on the tRNA line up with complementary codons on the mRNA

c)

tRNA attach amino acids to the complementary mRNA sequence

d)

mRNA attach amino acids to the complementary tRNA sequence

25.

What does tRNA "transfer"?

a)

amino acids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

nucleotides

d)

AUG

26.

What do amino acids come together to join?

a)

a growing polypeptide chain (protein)

b)

a growing lipid

c)

a growing carbohydrate

d)

a growing nucleic acid

27.

codons are located on __________

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

snRNA

28.

anti-codons are located on __________

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

snRNA

29.

The following codon is translated into which amino acid?


AUU

a)

Methionine

b)

Isoleucine

c)

Histidine

d)

Arginine

30.

The following codon is translated into which amino acid?


CAU

a)

Methionine

b)

Isoleucine

c)

Histidine

d)

Arginine

31.
The process of making proteins on the ribosome based on instructions from messenger RNA is called
a)
transcription
b)
transformation
c)
translation
d)
molecular biology
32.
How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:
ATG GGA ACT CCA
a)
4
b)
2
c)
6
d)
12
33.

Which process does this picture show?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

34.

Overall, protein synthesis consists of these steps

a)

DNA synthesis, RNA synthesis and transcription

b)

transcription and translation

c)

DNA synthesis, transcription and translation

35.

A permanent change in the DNA sequence

which can affect a single gene or group of genes

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Somatic Cell

c)

Chromosomal Mutation

d)

Gene Mutation

36.

What type of substitution mutation has no effect

on amino acids sequence

a)

Insertion Mutation

b)

Translocation

c)

Silent Mutation

d)

Deletion Mutation

37.

What mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-G-C-A

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

38.

Original: ATC CAT

Mutation: ATC GCAT

What mutation occurred?

a)

deletion

b)

insertion

c)

silent

d)

transverse

39.

DNA molecule segment is : TTA-CGC-AAG

The mutated DNA segment is TTC-GCA-AG. This is an example of ___ mutation.

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Inversion

40.

Mutations can be...

a)

Harmful

b)

Beneficial

c)

Neutral

d)

All of the Above

41.

What is the scientific term that refers to sex cells?

a)

autosome

b)

gamete

c)

karyotype

d)

chromosome

42.

This term refers to half the normal chromosome number

a)

haploid

b)

2N

c)

diploid

d)

3N

43.

The stage of meiosis where crossing over or the exchange of genetic information happens between pairs of chromosomes

a)

Prophase II

b)

Telophase I

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Prophase I

44.

The exchange of genetic information that insures that every gamete is unique is referred to as

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

reduction division

d)

crossing over

45.

The term that refers to a cell that has its full or complete number of chromosomes is

a)

diploid

b)

N

c)

gamete

d)

haplpoid

46.

What phase is this?

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Telophase I

d)

Anaphase II

47.

During the first division in meiosis, ________ chromosomes pair together in a tetrad and crossing-over occurs.

a)

Homologous

b)

Sister

c)

Sex

48.

At the end of the FIRST division of meiosis (meiosis I), homologous chromosomes are separated and ____ daughter cells are formed.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

8

49.

At the end of the SECOND division of meiosis (meiosis II), the two cells are separated into ____ genetically diverse haploid cells.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

8

50.

Sexual reproduction occurs via ______ when sperm and egg gametes fuse and form a zygote, restoring the diploid number of chromosomes.

a)

meiosis

b)

fertilization

c)

mitosis

51.

Most unicelluar and some multicelluar organisms can reproduce through _____ process that do not increase genetic variation in the population.

a)

asexual

b)

sexual

52.

______ reproduction can be performed without the need to find mates and can lead to rapid proliferation of a population over time.

a)

asexual

b)

sexual

53.

Alleles (example: H or h) are alternative forms of a gene. How many alleles does a baby guinea pig inherit from their mother?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

23

d)

whichever one is dominant

54.

A HETEROZYGOUS individual would have the genotype:

a)

Hh

b)

hh

c)

HH

d)

Hi

55.

In humans, blue eyes are a recessive trait. What genotype would a blue eyed child have?

a)

BB

b)

Bb

c)

bb

d)

None of the above, brown eyes are dominant.

56.

In pea plants, tall (T) plant alleles are dominant to short (t) plant alleles. If two tall plants (each with the genotype Tt) are crossed, what is the probability that the cross would result in a short pea plant?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

57.

Genes determine the characteristics, or __?__, that an individual can have.

a)

chromosomes

b)

cells

c)

genetics

d)

traits

58.

Sections of DNA on a chromosome are called:

a)

nuclei.

b)

RNA.

c)

genes.

d)

traits.

59.

A tool used to predict the probability of offspring inheriting certain traits is called a ...

a)

karyotype

b)

Punnett Square

60.

The physical expression of a trait is called the ...

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

61.

Which of the following is a PHENOTYPE for flower color in pea plants?

a)

Pp

b)

PP

c)

Purple

62.

Which statement below describes DOMINANT alleles?

a)

expressed when at least one is present

b)

only expressed when 2 are present

63.

The different forms or versions of a gene are called ...

a)

alleles

b)

gametes

64.

What type of inheritance do two alleles have if their traits blend together?

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Co-Dominance

c)

Mendelian Inheritance (Complete Dominance)

d)

Homozygous Inheritance

65.

Snap dragon color is a incomplete dominant trait. A red flower (RR) is crossed with white flower (WW)? What color are flowers that are RW?

a)

Red

b)

Red and White

c)

White

d)

Pink

66.

In Andalusian fowls, black individuals (BB) and white individuals (WW) are homozygous. Heterozygous individuals are grey (BW).

What is the genotype ratio for a cross between a grey fowl and a white fowl?

a)

2 BB: 2 BW: 0 WW

b)

0 BB: 4 BW: 0 WW

c)

0 BB: 2 BW: 2 WW

d)

1 BB: 2 BW: 1 WW

67.
This is an example of ___________.
a)
 Incomplete Dominance
b)
 Codominance
68.
A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co dominance
69.
Which of the following statements is true regarding blood types?
a)
A and O are codominant, B is recessive.
b)
B and O are codominant, A is recessive.
c)
A and B are codominant, O is recessive.
d)
A , B and O are all codominant with each other.
70.
In a pedigree, what shape represents a male?
a)
circle
b)
square
c)
triangle
d)
diamond
71.
What do we use pedigrees for?
a)
To look at families
b)
To make determinations about the offspring
c)
To track traits in families
d)
Nothing
72.
Give the genotype for person III-3
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
73.
 How many kids did the mother and father from the first generation have?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
74.
What percentage of the female offspring will be a carrier for this recessive disease?
a)
0%
b)
50%
c)
100%
d)
25%
75.
If two parents have type AB blood, what is the probability that their child will have type O blood?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
76.

GMO stands for

a)

Genetically Modeled Organisms

b)

Genetically Modified Organism

c)

I have no idea

77.

This is the practice of producing a genetically identical cell or organism

a)

Cloning

b)

Biotechnology

c)

Genetic Engineering

d)

I don't know

78.
What is the purpose of PCR?
a)

To produce billions of copies of a specific GENE

b)

To cut DNA

c)

To remove DNA from the nucleus

79.
What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis?
a)
helps cut DNA
b)
count the genes in DNA
c)
separates DNA based on size
d)
allows for an exact replicated organism
80.
Why do the fragments of DNA in gel electrophoresis travel away from the negative electrode?
a)
DNA is negatively charged so attracted to the positive end of the unit
b)
DNA is positively charged to attracted to the negative end of the unit
c)
the agarose gel in negatively charged
d)
the agarose gel is positively charged
81.
In gel electrophoresis, the largest DNA fragment will appear
a)
closest to the starting wells
b)
farthest from the starting wells
c)
three quarters away from the starting wells
d)
it depends on how many fragments there are
82.

If a restriction enzyme makes one cut in the gene, how many bands will appear on the gel?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

83.
Which suspect is likely guilty?
a)
Suspect #1
b)
Suspect #2
c)
Suspect #3
84.

By looking at the chromosomes how can you tell that this person is biologically female?

a)

Because there are two X chromosomes

b)

Because there are more chromosomes than in a male

85.

What is the mutation in this persons chromosomes?

a)

There is only one X

b)

7 is shaped like a hockey stick

c)

There's an extra 21

d)

1 is too curved

86.

This is called Turners syndrome, can you notice the mutation in the chromosomes?

a)

Both chromosomes 1 are bent

b)

There are too many chromosomes

c)

There are too many of chromosome 3

d)

There is no Y chromosome

87.
What process occurs during meiosis that can result in chromosomal disorders?
a)
crossing over
b)
non-disjunction
c)
anaphase I
d)
prophase II
88.

What process is represented by the image?

a)

Cellular Fertilization

b)

DNA Replication

c)

Translation

d)

Mutation