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Ib-Biology Sem II Final Exam Study Guide 2024

Total questions: 219

Worksheet time: 9hrs 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which major macromolecule is being represented in this image? 
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
protein
d)
nucleic acid
2.
Which of the following contains the genetic code for protein synthesis?
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
protein
d)
nucleic acid
3.
What type of macromolecule is being represented in this image? 
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
protein
d)
nucleic acid
4.
What are the building blocks of proteins?
a)
amino acid
b)
fatty acid
c)
nucleotide
d)
lipid
5.
What are the single sugars that are the building blocks of carbohydrates?
a)
monosaccharides
b)
disaccharides
c)
polysaccharides
d)
amino acid
6.
The element _______is found in all of the organic compounds.
a)
Iron
b)
Nitrogen
c)
Carbon
d)
Oxygen
7.
Proteins are made of monomers called ___________
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Glycerol and fatty acids
8.
DNA and RNA are examples of 
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
9.
Nucleotides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
10.
Waxes, oils and fats are examples of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
11.
The organic compounds that have many structural purposes and are used in many processes within the
cell are called ____________________.
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
12.

Which macromolecule is shown?

a)

lipid

b)

protein

c)

nucleic acid

d)

carbohydrate

13.
What type of macromolecule are enzymes?
a)
Protein
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Lipid
d)
Nucleic Acid
14.
Carbohydrates are made of... 
a)
C H O
b)
C H O N
c)
C H O N P
d)
C H O N S
15.
Lipids are made of... 
a)
C H O
b)
C H O N
c)
C H O N P
d)
C H O N S
16.
Proteins are made of... 
a)
C H O
b)
C H O N
c)
C H O N P
d)
C H O N S
17.
Which macromolecule stores energy, insulates us, and makes up the cell membrane?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
18.
Is found in the cell membrane as a bilayer. 
a)
lipids
b)
protein
c)
nucleic acid
d)
carbohydrate
19.
What is the primary function of carbohydrates in your body?
a)
Speed up chemical reactions.
b)
Give immediate energy.
c)
Help to store energy.
d)
Build cell walls in plants.
20.
Where does the energy from our food originally come from?
a)
the Sun
b)
chemical reactions
c)
carbohydrates
d)
mitochondria
21.
What is a protein: 
a)
A polymer composed of many sugars.
b)
A polymer composed of many amino acids. 
c)
A polymer composed of fatty acids. 
d)
A polymer composed of nucleotides. 
22.
How many different amino acids are there?
a)
15
b)
20
c)
25
d)
30
23.
This is one job proteins do NOT have in the body
a)
storing genetic information
b)
structure
c)
speed up chemical reactions
d)
transport things through cell membrane
24.
What is the monomer of proteins?
a)
amino acids
b)
polypeptides
c)
nucleotides
d)
monosaccharides
25.
The diagram shows the structure of an amino acid. Which type of molecule is formed from amino acids?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
26.
The diagram shows a bond forming between two amino acids. What is the name of this reaction?
a)
Dehydration Synthesis
b)
Hydrolysis
c)
Pepysis
d)
Oxidation
27.
Each amino acid is different from the other due to....
a)
The R group
b)
The amino group
c)
The carboxyl group
d)
The central carbon
28.

What is a long chain of amino acids called?

a)

Polysaccharide

b)

Lipid

c)

Carbohydrate

d)

Polypeptide

e)

Nucleic acid

29.

What is the name of the bond that joins two amino acids together?

a)

Ester bond

b)

Glycosidic bond

c)

Peptide bond

d)

Nucleic bond

30.

All proteins

a)

have a unique structure that determines their unique function.

b)

are exactly the same in function but different in structure.

c)

are exactly the same in structure but different in function.

d)

are enzymes.

31.

Proteins are made of

a)

CHO

b)

CHON

c)

CHONP`

d)

CHONS

32.

This is one job proteins do NOT have in the body

a)

insulation

b)

structure for tissues and organs

c)

speeds up chemical reactions

d)

transport things through cell membrane

33.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
34.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
35.

Which enzyme fixes the Okazaki fragments?

a)

Helicase

b)

Polymerase

c)

Ligase

d)

Primerase

36.

DNA polymerase is able to build the new DNA ______ along the leading strand.

a)

continuously

b)

only in short fragments

c)

very slowly

d)

prokaryotically

37.
Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides?
a)

Helicase

b)

DNA Polymerase

c)

Ligase

d)

Primase

38.
Based on the diagram, how many origins of replication are represented?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
39.
Based on the diagram, the enzyme (represented in gray) is most likely...
a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Ligase

c)

Primase

d)

Helicase

40.

Which enzyme is responsible for checking DNA for errors, and fixing it?

a)

DNA Polymerase

b)

Primase

c)

Helicase

d)

RNA Polymerase

41.

Okazaki fragments are found on the _______________ strand

a)

Leading

b)

Lagging

42.

DNA is built in this direction

a)

5' to 3' (new nucleotides added to the 3' end)

b)

3' to 5' (new nucleotides added to the 5' end)

c)

3' to 5' (new nucleotides added to the 3' end)

d)

5' to 3' (new nucleotides added to the 5' end)

43.

DNA Replication occurs during which phase of the cell cycle?

a)

G 1 phase

b)

S phase

c)

G 2 phase

d)

Mitotic phase

44.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
45.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
46.

Which enzyme fixes the Okazaki fragments?

a)

Helicase

b)

Polymerase

c)

Ligase

d)

Primerase

47.

DNA polymerase is able to build the new DNA ______ along the leading strand.

a)

continuously

b)

only in short fragments

c)

very slowly

d)

prokaryotically

48.

What does the acronym CRISPR stand for?

a)

Controlled Reservative Image Spectacle Palindromic Recounts

b)

Clustered Regularly-Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats

49.

CRISPR can edit DNA. What organisms naturally has CRISPR?

a)

Viruses

b)

Humans

c)

Plants

d)

Bacteria

50.

Why do bacteria have CRISPR? Check all that apply.

a)

To be able to remember which viruses they have been infected with

b)

To be able to edit virus DNA

c)

To cut apart virus DNA thereby stopping the virus infection

d)

To be able to edit their own DNA

51.

A PAM is

a)

a 15-20 bp sequence snipped from a viral genome that serves as a tracer DNA to locate viruses later

b)

a 3 bp sequence that adjacent to viral DNA in a CRISPR array

c)

a girl's name popular in the 1960s

d)

where the DNA is cut

52.

What is the role of the guide RNA?

a)

It helps the cell repair the DNA

b)

ensures that the Cas9 enzyme cuts at the right point in the genome

c)

Recognizes PAM sequences and opens up the DNA

d)

makes a cut across both strands of the DNA

53.

How does the guide RNA help the cell know where to cut the DNA?

a)

Guide RNA helps to find the PAM

b)

Guide RNA is complementary to the DNA sequence

c)

Guide RNA always binds to the same sequence of DNA

d)

Like restriction sites, they are always palindromes

54.

The following sequence is a known GENE MUTATION that geneticists would like to remove. What would be the guide RNA they need to build into a CRISPR-Cas9 enzyme?


TTA CCG

a)

AAU GGC

b)

AAT GGC

c)

TTA CCG

d)

GCC ATT

55.

What does the cas9 protein do?

a)

Prevents viruses from entering bacteria

b)

Cut RNA

c)

Cut DNA

d)

Binds to RNA

56.

Bacteria have CRISPR as a tool to be able to remember what viruses they have been infected with and then get rid of those viruses if they see them again.


How does the bacteria remember what virus they have been infected with?

4 lines
57.

Bacteria have CRISPR as a tool to be able to remember what viruses they have been infected with and then get rid of those viruses if they see them again.


How does the bacteria identify a virus it has seen before?

4 lines
58.

Bacteria have CRISPR as a tool to be able to remember what viruses they have been infected with and then get rid of those viruses if they see them again.


How does the bacteria get rid of the virus infection once it has identified that it has seen the virus before?

4 lines
59.

The videos kept stating that CRISPR is "programmable" - that you can somehow tell the system which DNA to edit. How is CRISPR "programmable"?

4 lines
60.

We have been modifying DNA sequences for many years - ever since restriction enzymes were discovered in the early 1970's. CRISPR and restriction enzymes are essentially the same because they can both be used to cut DNA and can be used inside of living cells.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE - Restriction enzymes do not cut DNA

c)

FALSE - CRISPR does not cut DNA

d)

FALSE - Restriction enzymes cannot be used inside of living cells

61.

How does CRISPR edit DNA? Check ALL that apply.

a)

CRISPR chemically changes A's to C's

b)

CRISPR cuts the DNA and the cell makes errors when it tries to fix the broken DNA

c)

CRISPR cuts the DNA and the cell can use a similar DNA sequence as a template to try to fix the DNA

d)

CRISPR changes all PAM's so that they are no longer able to be recognized

62.

CRISPR involves "gene editing". Dr. Doudna distinguishes "gene editing" from "genetic modification" like we have been doing prior to CRISPR. Which of the following is a big difference between "gene editing" and "genetic modification"?

a)

Gene editing can move DNA from one organsim to another

b)

Genetic modification can move DNA from one organism to another

c)

Gene editing can only change A's to C's

d)

Gene editing can move DNA from one organism to another

63.

Describe one specific example of how CRISPR has been used already. Be sure to use detail. You have 3 minutes to answer this question.

4 lines
64.

Describe one ethical concern regarding the use of CRISPR. Use detail. You have 3 minutes to respond to this question.

4 lines
65.

CRISPR-Cas9 is a type of ________ system found in bacteria.

a)

digestive

b)

endocrine

c)

circulatory

d)

immune

66.

CRISPR-Cas9 was discovered in which of the following organisms?

a)

protists

b)

fungi

c)

bacteria

d)

viruses

67.

Scientists have adapted it to turn it into a biotechnology tool for _______ DNA.

a)

building

b)

editing

c)

destroying

d)

synthesizing

68.

The enzyme portion of this complex is called ________.

a)

CRISPR

b)

Replicase

c)

Lysozyme

d)

Cas9

69.

What type of RNA is used as a GPS of sorts, to find or locate specific genes?

a)

mRNA

b)

gRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

70.

What is PAM?

a)

a 3 letter sequence for binding on the target DNA

b)

the main gene portion of the DNA

c)

the cut site for Cas9

d)

a 10 letter sequence for binding on the target DNA

71.

Once the DNA and RNA are bound, Cas9 is activated to cut the DNA ____ upstream from the binding sequence.

a)

1 base

b)

3 bases

c)

6 bases

d)

10 bases

72.

After Cas9 cuts the target DNA, cellular enzymes attempt to repair the break. Which of the following types of repair mechanisms creates a mutation and inactivates the gene.

a)

HDR

b)

NHEJ

73.

After Cas9 cuts the target DNA, cellular enzymes attempt to repair the break. Which of the following repair mechanisms involves "editing" of the gene with insertion of a corrected sequence?

a)

HDR

b)

NHEJ

74.

A change in a gene, group of genes or chromosome that results in a change in the proteins

a)

Replication

b)

Mutations

c)

Translation

d)

Transcription

75.

One nucleotide base is changed so only one amino acid

is affected

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Point Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Inverse Mutation

76.

A point mutation where one nucleotide base replaces an original nucleotide base

a)

Inversion Mutation

b)

Chromosomal Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Substitution Mutation

77.

A substitution mutation that has no effect

on amino acids sequence

a)

Insertion Mutation

b)

Translocation

c)

Silent Mutation

d)

Deletion Mutation

78.

A mutation that results in an amino acid change

a)

Translocation

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Silent Mutation

d)

Expressed Mutation

79.

A nucleotide base is inserted or deleted shifting the entire DNA sequence. Entire protein will be changed.

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Silent Mutation

c)

Frameshift Mutation

d)

Translocation

80.

A frameshift mutation where a nucleotide base

is removed from the DNA sequence.

a)

Deletion Mutation

b)

Substitution Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Silent Mutation

81.

A frameshift mutation where a nucleotide base is added

to the DNA sequence

a)

Insertion Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Substitution Mutation

d)

Chromosomal Mutation

82.

Mutations that involve parts of or all of

a chromosome

a)

Replication

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Chromosomal Mutation

d)

Transcription

83.

A point mutation where DNA adenine (A)

is replaced by thymine (T) resulting in a single amino acid change during translation(affects blood cell

shape and function)

a)

Encephelitis

b)

Hemophilia

c)

Sickle Cell Anemia

d)

Influenza

84.
Are all mutations bad?
a)
Yes
b)
No
85.
What causes mutations?
a)
Mistakes in replication or environmental substances
b)
The amino acids
c)
Passed down by genetics
d)
It's how your born
86.

Mutations can be negative because

a)

They can cause cancer

b)

They can cause birth defects

c)

They can help an organism thrive in its environment.

d)

They can affect offspring.

87.

Mutations can benefit humans because they can:

a)

Cause illness

b)

Make an organism more suited to live in its environment.

c)

Make organisms live shorter lives

d)

Cause organisms to grow extra limbs.

88.

A mutation is defined as:

a)

A change in the cell's structure

b)

Anything that changes in an embryo

c)

Any change in the physical features of a human

d)

A change in the DNA sequence

89.
What causes mutations?
a)
Mistakes in replication or environmental substances
b)
The amino acids
c)
Passed down by genetics
d)
It's how your born
90.

Genetic Engineering is...

a)

The manipulation of an organism's genes

b)

The manipulation of an organism's chromosomes

91.

Mutations are random.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

Mutations are SOMETIMES helpful to the organism.

a)

true

b)

false

93.

True or false, mutations create genetic diversity?

a)

True

b)

False

94.
How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though the look and perform completely different?
a)
The two different cells become mutated
b)
The proteins expressed in each cell are different
c)
They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.
d)
The genome of the different cells changes
95.
How is the information in a DNA molecule expressed in an organism?
a)
through plasmids
b)
through RNA polymerase
c)
through recombinant DNA
d)
through proteins
96.
Which of the following best explains the term gene expression?
a)
the production of proteins based on the genetic information in DNA
b)
the suppression of RNA polymerase
c)
the suppression of protein production
d)
the production of lipids based on the genetic information in DNA
97.
The lac operon genes only become expressed if:
a)
lactose binds to the repressor
b)
glucose binds to the repressor
c)
lactose binds to the operator
d)
the repressor binds to the operator
98.
In the lac operon model the genes within the operon will be expressed if:
a)
lactose is absent in the cell
b)
glucose is present in the cell
c)
lactose is present in the cell
99.
If an mRNA molecule has introns and exons in it, where is it?
a)
At a ribosome
b)
In the nucleus
c)
In a prokaryotic cell
d)
could be in the nucleus or the ribosome
100.
what is an operon?
a)
a part of a ribsome
b)
a part of a Rna
c)
a unit made up of linked genes that code for proteins needed to do a specific task
d)
needed for dna replication
101.
what does a promoter do?
a)
it allows a gene to be transcribed
b)
it creates a DNA segment
c)
it is another word for ribosomes
d)
it is another word for RNA
102.
In the lac operon model the genes within the operon will be expressed if:
a)
lactose is absent in the cell
b)
glucose is present in the cell
c)
lactose is present in the cell
103.

The DNA is tightly wrapped around the histone proteins and the gene is methylated.

a)

The gene is silenced.

b)

The gene is active.

c)

It is impossible to tell.

d)

The gene is on and off at various times.

104.

These chemical tags inactivate or silence a gene.

a)

acetyl groups

b)

methyl groups

c)

histones

d)

genes

105.

This term refers to the chemical tags that affect gene function and may be passed on through generations.

a)

genome

b)

methylation

c)

epigenome

d)

autosomes

106.

Why do identical twins begin to look different as they age?

a)

Their environment causes mutations that interfere with gene function.

b)

Mutations accumulate which deactivates histone proteins.

c)

The addition of epigenetic tags result in changes in gene function.

d)

The DMNT gene is silenced.

107.
The difference between DNA code and the epigenome is that the DNA code is
a)
flexible, while the epigenome is fixed for life
b)
fixed for life, while the epigenome is flexible
c)
determined by the environment, while the epigenome is not
d)
determined by one's stress level, while the epigenome is not
108.
Which factor can affect the epigenome?
a)
nutrition
b)
exercise
c)
stress 
d)
all of these factors can affect the epigenome
109.

If a cells Ψp\Psi p = 3 bars and its  Ψs\Psi s = -4.5 bars, what is the resulting  Ψ\Psi  ?

a)

-7.5

b)

7.5

c)

-1.5

d)

1.5

110.

The cell from question 1 is placed in a beaker of sugar water with Ψs\Psi s  = -4.0 bars.  In which direction will the net flow of water be?

a)

Out of the cell

b)

Into the cell

c)

Both into and out of the cell

d)

Neither into nor out of the cell

111.

The original cell from question 1 is pllaced in a beaker of sugar water with  Ψs\Psi s  = -0.15 MPa (megapascals).  We know that 1 MPa = 10 bars.  In which direction will the net flow of water be?

a)

Into the cell

b)

Out of the cell

c)

No net flow of water

112.

The value for  Ψ\Psi  in root tissue was found to be -3.3 bars.  If you take th root tissue and place it in a 0.1 M solutin of sucrose at 20 °\degree C in an open beaker, what is the  Ψ\Psi  of the solution, and in which direction would the net flow of water be?

a)

Ψs\Psi s  = -3.3, net flow into the root

b)

Ψs\Psi s  = 3.3, net flow out of the root (into the solution)

c)

Ψs\Psi s  = -2.43, net flow into the root

d)

Ψs\Psi s  = 2.43, net flow out of the root (into the solution)

113.

NaCl dissociates into 2 particles in water: Na+ and Cl-. If the solution in question 4 contained 0.1M NaCl instead of 0.1M sucrose, what is the  Ψ\Psi  of the solution, and in which direction would the net flow of water be?

a)

-3.3 bars, net flow out of the root (into the solution)

b)

3.3 bars, net flow into the root

c)

-4.87 bars, net flow out of the root (into the solution)

d)

4.87 bars, net flow into the root

114.

A plant cell with a Ψs\Psi s  of -7.5 bars keeps a constant volume when immersed in an open-beaker solution that has a  Ψs\Psi s  of -4 bars.  What is the cells  Ψp\Psi p  ?

a)

-4

b)

-7.5

c)

-3.5

d)

3.5

115.

At 20 °\degree C, a cell containing 0.6M glucose is in equilibrium with its surrounding solution containing 0.5M glucose in an open container.  What is the cell's  Ψp\Psi p  ? 

a)

2.4

b)

0.1

c)

-12.2

d)

-14.6

116.

At 20 °\degree C, a cell with  Ψp\Psi p  of 3 bars is in equilibrium with the surrounding 0.4M solution of sucrose in an open beaker.  What is the molar concentration of sucrose in the cell?

a)

0.4

b)

-9.7

c)

-12.7

d)

0.5

117.

What is the Ψs\Psi s   of a 1.0M sugar solution at 22 °\degree C under standard atmospheric conditions?

a)

-24.5 bars

b)

24.5 bars

c)

-2.45

d)

2.45

118.

At 22 °\degree C, zucchini cores are measured and determined to have a sucrose concentration of 0.36M. What is the Ψs\Psi s   of these cells and in which direction will the net flow of water be?

a)

0.64 net flow of water out of the cell

b)

-0.36 net flow of water into the cell

c)

8.17 net flow of water out of the cell

d)

-8.83 net flow of water into the cell

119.

Which of the following is not true about the first living things?

a)

A.The first living things may have used oxygen.

b)

B.The first living things were prokaryotic.

c)

C.The first living things were unicellular.

d)

D. The first living things had a cell membrane.

120.

Which two cell structures work together in the process of making proteins?

a)

A.Nucleus and chloroplast

b)

B.Ribosome and Vacuole

c)

C.Nucleus and ribosome

d)

D.Mitochondria and cell membrane.

121.

Hormones are proteins that regulate many functions in the body such as growth and cell differentiation. Which of the following does not describe a function of proteins in living organisms?

a)

A. They catalyze biochemical reactions

b)

B. They provide support for connective tissues

c)

C. They serve as a short-term energy source for the body

d)

D. They carry molecules from one place to another in the body

122.

Proteins are one of four classes of biological macromolecules. Which of the following statements about proteins is not correct?

a)

Enzymes are specific types of proteins

b)

There are 20 amino acids that make up proteins

c)

All R chains on the amino acids that make up proteins are polar and acidic

d)

Peptide bonds form between amino acids in a dehydration reaction, creating proteins

123.

How do enzymes speed up the rate of biological reactions?

a)

Enzymes increase the activation energy of the reaction

b)

Enzymes provide a site where reactants can be brought together

c)

Enzymes become reactants and are used up in the chemical reaction

d)

Enzymes change the temperature of the surrounding to be suitable for the reaction

124.

Which of the following statement regarding carbohydrates is true?

a)

a. They contain fatty acids and glycerol

b)

b. They are made of monomers called amino acids

c)

c. They are used as living things as the main source of energy

d)

d. They are not used for structural support in living organisms

125.

Which types of organisms developed first due to the early environmental conditions on Earth?

a)

A. prokaryotic and aerobic

b)

B. prokaryotic and anaerobic

c)

C. eukaryotic and aerobic

d)

D. eukaryotic and anaerobic

126.

Which type of biomolecule is it?

a)

A. Proteins

b)

B. Carbohydrates

c)

C. Nucleic Acids

d)

D. Lipids

127.

Which of the following is not true about the first living things?

a)

A.The first living things may have used oxygen.

b)

B.The first living things were prokaryotic.

c)

C.The first living things were unicellular.

d)

D. The first living things had a cell membrane.

128.

Which two cell structures work together in the process of making proteins?

a)

A.Nucleus and chloroplast

b)

B.Ribosome and Vacuole

c)

C.Nucleus and ribosome

d)

D.Mitochondria and cell membrane.

129.

Hormones are proteins that regulate many functions in the body such as growth and cell differentiation. Which of the following does not describe a function of proteins in living organisms?

a)

A. They catalyze biochemical reactions

b)

B. They provide support for connective tissues

c)

C. They serve as a short-term energy source for the body

d)

D. They carry molecules from one place to another in the body

130.

Proteins are one of four classes of biological macromolecules. Which of the following statements about proteins is not correct?

a)

Enzymes are specific types of proteins

b)

There are 20 amino acids that make up proteins

c)

All R chains on the amino acids that make up proteins are polar and acidic

d)

Peptide bonds form between amino acids in a dehydration reaction, creating proteins

131.

How do enzymes speed up the rate of biological reactions?

a)

Enzymes increase the activation energy of the reaction

b)

Enzymes provide a site where reactants can be brought together

c)

Enzymes become reactants and are used up in the chemical reaction

d)

Enzymes change the temperature of the surrounding to be suitable for the reaction

132.

Which of the following statement regarding carbohydrates is true?

a)

a. They contain fatty acids and glycerol

b)

b. They are made of monomers called amino acids

c)

c. They are used as living things as the main source of energy

d)

d. They are not used for structural support in living organisms

133.

Which types of organisms developed first due to the early environmental conditions on Earth?

a)

A. prokaryotic and aerobic

b)

B. prokaryotic and anaerobic

c)

C. eukaryotic and aerobic

d)

D. eukaryotic and anaerobic

134.

Which type of biomolecule is it?

a)

A. Proteins

b)

B. Carbohydrates

c)

C. Nucleic Acids

d)

D. Lipids

135.

Which type of macromolecule is made up of Hydrogen (H), Carbon (C), Nitrogen (N) and Oxygen (O)

a)

A. Proteins

b)

B. Carbohydrates

c)

C. Nucleic Acids

d)

D. Lipids

136.

Plant cells are different from animal cells. Compared to the structures in animal cell, which of the following structures is found only in a plant cell?

a)

A. Mitochondria

b)

B. Cell Wall

c)

C. Cytoplasm

d)

D. Nucleus

137.

Which of the following is a major difference between plant and animal cells?

a)

A. Animal cells have a cell membrane and plant cells do not.

b)

B. Only animal cells have a nucleus.

c)

C. Animal cells have much larger vacuoles than plant cells.

d)

D. Plant cells have a cell wall and animal cells do not.

138.

Which cell organelle directs all the activities of the cell?

a)

A. Chloroplast

b)

B. Nucleus

c)

C. Mitochondria

d)

D. Vacuole

139.

A cell can be seen looking through a microscope. Seeing which of these organelles would let you know that you are looking at a plant cell?

a)

A. mitochondria

b)

B. chloroplast

c)

C. cell membrane

d)

D. nucleus

140.

Which type(s) of cells have genetic material that is contained in a nucleus?

a)

A. Bacteria

b)

B. Only animal cells

c)

C. Protists

d)

D. Both Plants and Animal Cells

141.

A membrane that allows some substances to pass across and others not is called

a)

a. non-permeable

b)

b. permeable

c)

c. semi-permeable

d)

d. permanently permeable

142.

The diffusion of water through a semi-permeable membrane is called.

a)

a. Osmosis

b)

b. Cell wall

c)

c. Diffusion

d)

d. Respiration

143.

1. A person should never drink salty water because their cells would

a)

a. shrink

b)

b. expand

c)

c. increase in size

d)

d. explode

144.

1. The movement of molecules against a concentration gradient

a)

a. simple diffusion

b)

b. facilitated diffusion

c)

c. active transport

d)

d. osmosis

145.

Movement of SOLUTE through the cell membrane from high to low concentration is called....

a)

a. diffusion

b)

b. active transport

c)

c. facilitated diffusion

d)

d. osmosis

146.

Earth’s atmosphere today is very different from its early atmosphere. Which of the following processes changed Earth’s early atmosphere to its current form?

a)

A. release of water vapor and carbon dioxide by volcanoes

b)

B. formation of amino acids from simple nonliving molecules

c)

C. photosynthesis by cyanobacteria

d)

D. cellular respiration by eukaryotic cells

147.

The early Earth had many active volcanoes, which contributed to the atmosphere. How did that early atmosphere differ from Earth’s atmosphere today?

a)

A. The early atmosphere contained more oxygen, which was harmful to many organisms.

b)

B. The early atmosphere contained far less oxygen, but higher levels of other, toxic gases.

c)

C. The early atmosphere contained more water vapor and not enough oxygen to support life.

d)

D. The early atmosphere contained far less carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, methane, and ammonia.

148.

Which is NOT considered a possible location on primitive Earth where conditions would have allowed the synthesis of complex organic compounds?

a)

A. near volcanoes

b)

B. dry, hot deserts

c)

C. deep ocean vents

d)

D. shallow seashores

149.
What can only be found in plant cells?
a)
Cell membrane
b)
Vacuole
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Mitochondrion
150.
The powerhouse of the cell is the...
a)
Mitochondrion
b)
Golgi body
c)
Nucleus
d)
Ribosomes
151.
Where are proteins made?
a)
Golgi body
b)
Mitoichondrion
c)
Chromosomes
d)
Ribosomes
152.
The _________ are the power houses of the cell. They are in both plants and animals.
a)
Chloroplasts
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Nucleus
d)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
153.
What are the tiny structures that carry out jobs inside cells called?
a)
membranes
b)
nucleus
c)
organelles
d)
animalicules
154.
This is the cell's "control center."
a)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
b)
Golgi Body
c)
Nucleus
d)
Cell Wall
155.
This structure is a storage area for the cell.
a)
Lysosome
b)
Vacuole
c)
Ribosome
d)
Golgi Body
156.
Plant and animal cells both have vacuoles?
a)
True
b)
False
157.
I am located in the nucleus – I’m the genetic material of a cell
a)
cytoplasm
b)
membrane
c)
chromosomes/DNA
d)
vacuole
158.
I am found in plant cells. I am rigid, strong & stiff. I give support to the plant cell.  I give the cell it's box shape
a)
cell membrane
b)
cell wall
c)
chlorophyll
d)
mitochondria
159.

Which Cellular Structure allows nutrients to pass into the cell?

a)
mitochondrion
b)
nucleus
c)
membrane
d)
chloroplast
160.

Which organelle in plant cells captures sunlight and converts the energy into food?

a)
nucleus
b)
chloroplast
c)
cell membrane
d)
cell wall
161.

In a Eukaryotic cell which organelle contains the DNA and acts as the control center for the cell?

a)
mitochondria
b)
ribosomes
c)
nucleus
d)
nucleolus
162.

How do cell membranes differ from cell walls?

a)
Cell membranes are fluid and able to stretch and move as needed. 
b)
Cell membranes are composed of cellulose which make them rigid.
c)
Cell walls control the movement of materials into and out of the cell.
d)
Cell walls are constructed of a lipid bilayer with proteins embedded. 
163.

The human body processes and eliminates food waste. Which organelle is responsible for doing the same task at cellular level?

a)
mitochondrion
b)
endoplasmic reticulum
c)
lysosome
d)
Golgi complex
164.

Which statement describes the primary function of the cell wall of a plant cell?

a)
The cell wall performs photosynthesis.
b)
The cell wall stores DNA.
c)
The cell wall provides structural support.
d)
The cell wall manufactures proteins. 
165.

Which cellular structure in animal cells helps maintain homeostasis by controlling the transport of substances in and out of the cell?

a)
vacuole
b)
cell wall
c)
mitochondrion
d)
cell membrane
166.

If the ribosome of the cell stops working, what process will most likely be interrupted?

a)
The cell's ability to make proteins.
b)
The cell's ability to release energy.
c)
The cell's ability to control what enters and leaves.
d)
The cell's ability to store excess water and nutrients. 
167.

Which of these cell parts contains instructions for passage of traits from one generation to the next?

a)
cell membrane
b)
Golgi apparatus
c)
chromosomes
d)
endoplasmic reticulum
168.
This organelle acts like a gatekeeper, allowing some materials to pass through it, but not others. 
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Vacuole
169.
What structure is in plant cells but not animal cells?
a)
Cell Membrane
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Cell Wall
d)
Vacuole
170.
This organelle is a gel-like fluid that takes up most of the space inside the cell. 
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Vacuole
d)
Golgi Body
171.
Where is the genetic material found in the cell? 
a)
Nucleolus
b)
Cytoplasm
c)
Nucleus
d)
Chloroplast
172.
In many cells, this is the structure that controls the cell's activities.
a)
Cell membrane
b)
Organelle
c)
Nucleolus
d)
Nucleus
173.
What distinguishes a eukaryotic cell from a prokaryotic cell is the presence of 
a)
A cell wall
b)
A nucleus
c)
DNA
d)
Ribosomes
174.
In eukaryotic cells, chromosomes carrying genetic information are found in the
a)
Ribosomes
b)
Lysosomes
c)
Nucleus
d)
Cell Membrane
175.
Which one of the following is not part of the cell theory?
a)
all living things are made of cells
b)
cells are the basic units of structure and function of living things
c)
new cells are produced from existing cells
d)
cells never die
176.
What structure is responsible for making proteins?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Golgi Apparatus
d)
Ribosome
177.
This organelle moves materials throughout the cell. 
a)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
b)
Ribosomes
c)
FedEx
d)
Golgi Complex
178.
Which organelle packages up waste to be eliminated?
a)
Golgi Complex
b)
ribosomes
c)
nucleus
d)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
179.
What is the difference between rough and smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum?
a)
There is no difference.
b)
Plants have rough ER, animals have smooth ER.
c)
What type of injuries the Doctors treat.
d)
Rough has ribosomes, smooth does not.
180.
A microscope is an instrument that.
a)
makes faraway objects look closer.
b)
makes small objects appear larger.
c)
decreases the size of small objects.
d)
increases the size of small objects.
181.
If you move the slide left while viewing, in which direction will it appear to move?
a)
right 
b)
left
c)
up 
d)
down
182.
If your teacher asks you to move a microscope to table, how do you carry it?
a)
by the body tube and the eyepiece
b)
with one hand
c)
one hand on the arm and the other under the base
d)
with one hand on the base and the other on the eyepiece.
183.
Which part of the microscope controls the amount of light available?
a)

coarse focus

b)
diaphragm
c)
objective lens
d)
revolving nosepiece
184.
Which part lets you turn up the power of magnification, such increasing from 40x to 100x?
a)
coarse adjustment knob
b)
diaphragm
c)
field-of-view
d)
revolving nosepiece
185.
What is part 1?
a)

eye piece/ocular lens

b)
body tube
c)
arm
d)
coarse adjust
186.
What part is 3?
a)
eye piece
b)
base
c)
arm 
d)

coarse focus

187.
What part is 5?
a)

coarse focus

b)

fine focus

c)
diaphragm
d)
stage
188.
What is part 2?
a)
arm
b)
base
c)
body tube
d)
illuminator
189.
What is part 11?
a)

coarse focus

b)
fine adjustment
c)
diaphragm
d)
stage
190.

The greater the ___________________, the smaller the field you are actually viewing.

a)

detail

b)

objective

c)

magnification

d)

body

191.

Moves stage up and down for focusing; locates the specimen

a)

Fine Focus Knob

b)

Large Focus Knob

c)

Course Focus Knob

d)

Small Focus Knob

192.
What will be the total magnification if ocular lens is 10X and objective lens is 4X?
a)
4X
b)
40X
c)
10X
d)
100X
193.
What will be the total magnification if the ocular lens is 10X and the objective lens is 40X?
a)
40X
b)
10X
c)
100X
d)
400X
194.
Lets light pass through an object and then through two or more lenses
a)
Binocular Microscope
b)
Compound Microscope
c)
Electron Microscope
d)
Simple Microscope
195.

Which objective lens should you start on to locate an image?

a)

scanning power

b)

low power

c)

high power

196.

What piece contains a high-power magnifying lens (40x)?

a)

HIgh-power Objective

b)

Eyepiece

c)

Low-power Objective

d)

Stage

197.

True of False: If the coarse and fine focus knobs are not turning, you should force them to turn.

a)

True

b)

False

198.

True of False: You should always store microscopes covered.

a)

True

b)

False

199.

My second favorite holiday is _______________. Halloween is my first.

a)

Christmas

b)

Thanksgiving

c)

Fourth of July

d)

Valentine's Day

200.
How many microns (µm)
= 1 mm?
a)
1,000
b)
1,000,000
c)
10,000
d)
100,000
201.
How many nanometers (nm)
= 1 micron (µm)?
a)
1,000,000
b)
1,000
c)
10,000
d)
100,000
202.
How many nanometers (nm)
= 1 mm?
a)
1,000
b)
10,000
c)
100,000
d)
1,000,000
203.
To calculate magnification we use......
a)
image size x actual size
b)
image size ÷ actual size
c)
actual size ÷ image size
204.
To calculate image size we use.....
a)
actual size x magnification
b)
magnification ÷ actual size
c)
actual size ÷ magnification
205.

To calculate actual size we use.....

a)

image size ÷ magnification

b)

image size x magnification

c)

magnification ÷ image size

206.
If the image measures 100 mm and the scale bar is is 50 µm, what is the magnification?
a)
2,000 x
b)
150 x
c)
5,000 x
d)
20 x
207.
If a scale bar measures 32 mm and it states it's length is 100 µm, what is the magnification?
a)
320 x
b)
3,200 x
c)
0.32 x
d)
32,000 x
208.
If a bacteria image measures 450 mm and the magnification is 15,000x, what is the actual size of the bacteria?
a)
30 µm
b)
0.3 µm
c)
300 µm
d)
3,000 µm
209.
An ant measures 2 mm in length.  If it is observed at 20x magnification, what length should the scale bar be drawn at?
a)
40 mm
b)
10 mm
c)
4 mm
d)
0.1 mm
210.

Josie measured the scale bar image to be 80 mm. What is the magnification of this electron micrograph?

a)

160X

b)

0.00625 X

c)

0.16X

d)

25,000X

211.

Serena measured the image of one of the bacterial cells to be 32 mm. If the magnification of the image is 8,000X, what is the actual size of the bacterial cell?

a)

4 μm

b)

0.004 μm

c)

256,000 μm

d)

0.25 μm

212.
If each division is 100 µm, what is the size of this organism?
a)
4 µm
b)
400 µm
c)
4,000 µm
d)
400 mm
213.

What steps should Burt use follow to calculate the actual size of each bacterial cell?

a)

Step 1: Calculate the magnification by measuring the scale bar image ÷ actual size

Step 2: Measure image of bacterial cell ÷ magnification

b)

Step 1: Calculate the magnification by measuring the scale bar image x actual size

Step 2: Measure image of bacterial cell ÷ magnification

c)

Step 1: Measure the image of the bacterial cell

Step 2: Divide the image size by the scale bar size

d)

He can't, it is impossible to calculate

214.
Which part is the ocular lens?
a)
1
b)
3
c)
4
d)
7
215.
Which part are the objective lenses?
a)
1
b)
3
c)
4
d)
7
216.
Magnification is determined by . . . .
a)
multiplying ocular and objective magnifications
b)
adding ocular magnification and stage height
c)
adding ocular and objective magnifications
d)
multiplying objective magnification and diaphragm power
217.
The higher the magnification, the ________ you see of the specimen.
a)
more
b)
less
c)
higher
d)
lower
218.
This is the term given to the area you can see under the microscope.
a)
field of view
b)
stage
c)
ocular lens
d)
objective lens
219.

A microscope that uses a stream of electrons to form magnified images of objects

a)

Optical Microscope

b)

Electron Microscope

c)

Compound Microscope

d)

Simple Microscope

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