wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Semester 2 Final Review

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What phase of the cell cycle do cells spend 90% of their time?

a)

Interphase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Telophase

2.

Which stage of the cell cycle is characterized by the replication of DNA?

a)

G1 phase

b)

S phase

c)

G2 phase

d)

M phase

3.

During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes align at the cell's equator?

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

4.

What is the main purpose of the G2 phase in the cell cycle?

a)

DNA replication

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

Cell growth and preparation for mitosis

d)

Cell division

5.
Which is the correct order?
a)
C,D, B, A, F, E
b)
D,A,F,C,E,B
c)
B,E,C,F,A,D
d)
C,B,D,A E,F
6.

Label the parts of the Cell Cycle

a)

G1

b)

S phase

c)

G2

d)

Mitosis

1
2
3
4
1)
2)
3)
4)
7.
Question Image

Match the following

a)

Interphase

1.

The longest stage of a cell's life

b)

G1

2.

part of interphase where the cell is growing

c)

S phase

3.

DNA Synthesis

When the cell is making more DNA

d)

G2

4.

part of interphase where the cell prepares to divide

e)

Cell Division

5.

A small stage in the cell's life where the cell splits to make more cells

8.

Cancer is defined as the

a)

uncontrolled division of mutated cells

b)

normal division of cells

c)

normal DNA replication

d)

abnormal ATP synthesis

9.

The process used for asexual reproduction is

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

10.

Offspring that are produced by only one parent are

a)

genetically diverse

b)

clones

c)

gametes

11.

Asexual reproduction produces offspring with DNA that is _________ the parent.

a)

different from

b)

the same as

12.

Sexual reproduction requires two

a)

gametes

b)

blastocysts

c)

embryos

13.

A benefit of sexual reproduction is

a)

less energy is used

b)

greater genetic diversity in the species

c)

it is more efficient than asexual reproduction

14.
What process does a multi-cellular organism use to replace its damaged body cells?
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
replication
d)
transcription
15.
Which of these phases of mitosis take place first?
a)
anaphase
b)
telophase
c)
prophase
d)
metaphase
16.
Identify the stage of mitosis.
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
metaphase
d)
anaphase
17.

What is the image above:

a)

Chromosome

b)

Chromotid

c)

Centromere

d)

Centriole

18.

A chromosome is packaged

a)

DNA

b)

Protein

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Lipids

19.

Centrioles pull the chromosomes apart towards the opposite sides of the cell describes:

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Anaphase

20.

In which phase does a cell spend most of its life?

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

21.

The splitting of the cytoplasm and cell membranes is called?

a)

Interphase

b)

Telophase

c)

Centromere

d)

Cytokinesis

22.

In humans, the haploid number of chromosomes is ____.

a)

23

b)

46

c)

69

d)

92

23.

Which of the following is the best definition for MEIOSIS?

a)

the process of two haploid cells uniting

b)

the counting of chromosomes within a diploid cell

c)

a two-step process that reduces the number of chromosomes in half such that there is only one copy of all the chromosomes

d)

the equational division of a cell into two identical copies

24.

How many cells are formed at the end of Meiosis II?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

8

25.

The products of MEIOSIS have _______ number of chromosomes.

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

26.

What is the primary cause of genetic variation during meiosis?

a)

chromosomes lining up

b)

"crossing over" of chromosomes

c)

separation of chromosomes

d)

chromosomes pulling apart

27.

A pair of identical chromosomes (one inherited from mom and one inherited from dad) are called ______________________________.

a)

sister chromotids

b)

centromeres

c)

homologous chromosomes

d)

autosomes

28.

Which of the following is heterozygous?

a)

MM

b)

Mm

c)

mm

29.

Which of the following is homozygous dominant?

a)

RR

b)

Rr

c)

rr

30.

Which of the following is homozygous recessive?

a)

QQ

b)

Qq

c)

qq

31.

What term denotes the physical expression of a gene?

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

c)

appearance

d)

homologous

32.

What organism did Mendel study?

a)

pea plants

b)

onions

c)

mice

d)

cats

33.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
34.
Which is a true statements about this picture?
a)
Brown is recessive
b)
Brown is dominant
c)
Blue is dominant
d)
Blue is codominant
35.
What is NOT a possible genotype for someone with type B blood?
a)
IBIB
b)
IAIB
c)
IB i
36.

In the image above, what is the percentage of the offspring has the possibility of inheriting blood type O?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

37.

Aa, DD, Bb, yy are all examples of ---

a)

genotypes.

b)

phenotypes.

38.
What do we use pedigrees for?
a)
To look at families
b)
To make determinations about the offspring
c)
To track traits in families
d)
Nothing
39.

In a pedigree, which shape represents a male?

a)

circle

b)

square

40.
Is this trait (the shaded individuals) dominant or recessive?
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
41.

What molecules are in nucleotides?

a)

Phosphate group

b)

Protein

c)

Sugar

d)

lipid

e)

Nitrogenous base

42.

Thymine will bond with...

a)

Guanine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Adenine

d)

Uracil

43.

Adenine can bond with... (CAREFUL!!!)

a)

Guanine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Thymine

d)

Uracil

44.

Guanine will bond with...

a)

Thymine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Adenine

d)

Uracil

45.

What is the name of the model that Watson and Crick came up with to describe a DNA molecule?

(a)  

46.

DNA replication occurs during ​ (a)   .

Choose from the below words
interphase
metaphase
telophase
anaphase
prophase
47.

Match the following

a)

Polymerase

1.

builds the complimentary DNA strand

b)

Ligase

2.

bonds DNA fragments together

c)

Primase

3.

Indicates whee DNA replication begins

d)

Helicase

4.

"unzips" the DNA

48.

Reorder the following

a)

DNA is unzipped

b)

Primase marks region to begin replication

c)

Polymerase builds complimentary DNA strand

d)

Ligase bonds DNA fragments

1)
2)
3)
4)
49.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
50.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
51.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

52.

When these bond together, they form a protein

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Ribose

d)

Nucleotides

53.

mRNA occurs during this process

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Replication

d)

Delivery

54.
The process where mRNA is read and made into an amino acid chain.
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Transportation
d)
Transient
55.
What is the three base sequence of mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
56.
Which of these nitrogenous bases is NOT in RNA?
a)
Uracil
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Guanine
57.
DNA holds the code for
a)
lipids
b)
carbohydrates
c)
protein
d)
sugar
58.

What is the amino acid sequence for the following mRNA strand:


UCG-GAA-CAC-AAU

(a)  

59.

A phenotype that improves an organism’s chance of survival in their environment is considered a(n) ____________.

a)

natural selection

b)

adaption

c)

speciation

60.

Many different groups of organisms have wings, even though they do not share a recent common ancestor. This is because they evolved in environments with similar selective pressures. Wings are an example of a(n) ______________ structure.

a)

vestigial

b)

analogous

c)

homologous

61.

Which best describes the phrase survival of the fittest?

a)

strongest in a population are most successful

b)

fastest in a population are most successful

c)

those that can survive and reproduce are most successful

d)

those that can live the longest are most successful

62.

Match the following pictures with the words they represent

a)
1.

Analogous Structure

b)
2.

Homologous Structure

c)
3.

Artificial selection

d)
4.

Natural selection

63.
The diagram shows fossils in different rock layers. Which of these statements about the age of these fossils is most likely correct?
a)
Fossil A and C are the same age
b)
Fossil B is older than fossil C
c)
Fossils A is older than fossil B
d)
Fossil D is older than fossil C
64.
Comparing human hemoglobin of chimpanzees, horses, kangaroos, and chickens, reveal that humans have the fewest amino acid differences with 
a)
Kangaroos
b)
Horses
c)
chickens
d)
chimpanzees
65.

Charles Darwin observed that finches of different species on the Galápagos Islands have many similar physical characteristics, this supports the hypothesis that these finches

a)

are twins

b)

acquired traits through use and disuse.

c)

all eat the same type of food.

d)

descended from a common ancestor.

66.

In a population of ladybugs, black bugs are more successful in escaping predators. Overtime, this gene becomes more popular in the population and the ladybug population loses its red color. This is an example of?

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Mutation

c)

Genetic Drift

d)

Gene Flow

67.

According to the diagram, crocodiles evolved from dinosaurs and birds.

a)

True

b)

False

68.
This scientist came up with the idea of natural selection.
a)
Jean Baptiste Lamarck
b)
Gregor Mendel
c)
Charles Darwin
d)
Thomas Malthus
69.
Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?
a)
the wings of a red-tailed hawk
b)
the hind limbs of a house cat
c)
the fins of sharks
d)
the tailbone of a human
70.

What do we call a change in a species over time?

a)

Adaptation

b)

Evolution

c)

Extinction

d)

Environmental influences

71.
The environment around Manchester, England, changed during the Industrial Revolution.  How did this change affect peppered moths living in the area?
a)
Natural selection favored moths with dark wings because predators could not see them on the soot-colored trees.
b)
Natural selection favored moths with white wings that were easy for predators to see.
c)
Natural selection favored moths with white wings because predators could not see them on the soot-colored trees.
d)
Natural selection caused moths with white wings to become extinct.
72.
The disappearance of a species.
a)
Evolution
b)
Extinction
c)
Migration
d)
Mutation

Similar Resources on Wayground

Protein Synthesis milestone

74 questions

Protein Synthesis milestone

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

Exam 8 Review - Animals

75 questions

Exam 8 Review - Animals

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

Segment 2 Test

73 questions

Segment 2 Test

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Genetics

71 questions

Genetics

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

B - 4.1 - Cell Energy -- HS-LS1-5 & HS-LS1-7

68 questions

B - 4.1 - Cell Energy -- HS-LS1-5 & HS-LS1-7

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Pre-AP Biology Cellular Respiration

70 questions

Pre-AP Biology Cellular Respiration

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

EOY Biology Practice

75 questions

EOY Biology Practice

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Semester 1 Exam 2022

70 questions

Semester 1 Exam 2022

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade