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Worksheets

ch. 10-11 review

Total questions: 163

Worksheet time: 1hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In 1789, who had the right to vote in America?

a)

White male property owners

b)

All citizens over 18

c)

Only women

d)

African Americans

2.

What was the main cause of the expansion of voting rights in America?

a)

The elimination of suffrage restrictions

b)

The shift of power from the Federal Government to the States

c)

The increase in property ownership

d)

The decrease in the voting age

3.

Which amendment eliminated restrictions based on race in 1870?

a)

13th Amendment

b)

24th Amendment

c)

19th Amendment

d)

15th Amendment

4.

What is gerrymandering?

a)

The drawing of electoral district lines to limit a particular group's voting strength

b)

The practice of voter intimidation

c)

The process of counting votes

d)

The act of voting multiple times

5.

Which act set up the Civil Rights Commission to investigate voter discrimination claims?

a)

Civil Rights Act of 1964

b)

Voting Rights Act of 1965

c)

Civil Rights Act of 1957

d)

Civil Rights Act of 1960

6.

What did the Voting Rights Act of 1965 forbid?

a)

The extension of voting rights to all citizens over 18

b)

The use of injunctions to ensure voting rights

c)

Practices that prevented qualified voters from using the polls

d)

The application of the 15th Amendment to all elections

7.

What did the Voting Rights Act of 1965 give the Department of Justice the right to do?

a)

Approve new election laws

b)

Investigate voter discrimination claims

c)

Set up the Civil Rights Commission

d)

Apply the 15th Amendment to all elections

8.

In 2013, what did the Supreme Court invalidate from the Voting Rights Act?

a)

The use of injunctions to ensure voting rights

b)

The extension of voting rights to all citizens over 18

c)

The preclearance provision

d)

The application of the 15th Amendment

9.

What did the 19th Amendment add to the American electorate in 1920?

a)

White male property owners

b)

All citizens over 18

c)

Women

d)

African Americans

10.

What did the 24th Amendment dictate in 1964?

a)

States could not deny anyone eighteen or older the right to vote

b)

States could not make the payment of a tax a condition for voting

c)

States could not restrict suffrage based on race

d)

States could not deny women the right to vote

11.

What did the Civil Rights Act of 1964 emphasize?

a)

The use of injunctions to ensure voting rights

b)

The investigation of voter discrimination claims

c)

The prevention of eligible citizens from being kept from voting

d)

The application of the 15th Amendment to all elections

12.

What did the Civil Rights Act of 1960 call for?

a)

Federal referees to help all eligible people to register and vote in federal elections

b)

The application of the 15th Amendment to all elections

c)

The use of injunctions to ensure voting rights

d)

The prevention of eligible citizens from being kept from voting

13.

What did the Civil Rights Act of 1957 set up?

a)

The Civil Rights Commission to investigate voter discrimination claims

b)

The prevention of eligible citizens from being kept from voting

c)

The application of the 15th Amendment to all elections

d)

Federal referees to help all eligible people to register and vote in federal elections

14.

What did the 15th Amendment establish in 1870?

a)

The right to vote may not be denied because of race

b)

The right to vote may not be denied because of age

c)

The right to vote may not be denied because of gender

d)

The right to vote may not be denied because of property ownership

15.

What was the struggle to extend voting rights in the early 1800s?

a)

To shift power from the States to the Federal Government

b)

To prevent States from restricting suffrage

c)

To ensure African American voting rights

d)

To eliminate restrictions based on religion and property

16.

What are the three factors based on which a person must satisfy qualifications to vote?

a)

Citizenship, language, age

b)

Citizenship, residence, age

c)

Residence, education, age

d)

Citizenship, residence, literacy

17.

Who is generally denied the right to vote in the United States?

a)

Naturalized citizens

b)

Permanent residents

c)

Aliens

d)

Foreign-born residents

18.

What is the age at which a State may not deny a person the right to vote?

a)

21

b)

25

c)

18

d)

30

19.

How many States require voter registration?

a)

48

b)

49

c)

50

d)

47

20.

What is the act of signing up with local election officials called?

a)

Election enrollment

b)

Polling

c)

Voter registration

d)

Voter verification

21.

What do State officials periodically review and purge?

a)

Citizenship records

b)

Poll books

c)

Voter registration forms

d)

Residence documents

22.

Which requirement is not needed for voting in any State?

a)

Residence

b)

Citizenship

c)

Poll tax

d)

Literacy

23.

Who is denied the right to vote in all States?

a)

People in mental institutions

b)

Foreign-born residents

c)

Transients

d)

Permanent residents

24.

What do most States deny the right to vote to anyone who has been convicted of?

a)

A misdemeanor

b)

A traffic violation

c)

A serious crime

d)

A civil offense

25.

Which State does not require voter registration?

a)

North Dakota

b)

South Dakota

c)

Nebraska

d)

Kansas

26.

What is the power to set suffrage qualifications left to by the Constitution's Framers?

a)

Federal government

b)

Local government

c)

Election officials

d)

State government

27.

What is the practice meant to give people time to get to know the State's issues and prevent outsiders from affecting local elections?

a)

Citizenship requirement

b)

Purging

c)

Residence requirement

d)

Voter registration

28.

What is the requirement to be a legal resident of the State in which a person wishes to vote?

a)

Citizenship

b)

Residence

c)

Age

d)

Literacy

29.

What is the requirement to have lived in a State for a certain period of time before being able to vote there meant to prevent?

a)

Political interference

b)

Election manipulation

c)

Voter fraud

d)

Outsiders from affecting local elections

30.

What is the tax paid for voting that is not required by any State?

a)

Income tax

b)

Property tax

c)

Sales tax

d)

Poll tax

31.

What is one reason for low voter turnout in off-year elections?

a)

Media bias

b)

Influence of special interest groups

c)

Lack of interest in politics

d)

Lack of feeling of political efficacy

32.

What is the phenomenon called when voters do not vote the entire ballot?

a)

Election fatigue

b)

Political disillusionment

c)

Voter apathy

d)

Ballot fatigue

33.

Which sociological factor influences a person's voting choices based on their occupation and income?

a)

Gender

b)

Education

c)

Religion

d)

Region of residence

34.

What is the term for loyalty to a political party?

a)

Political allegiance

b)

Party identification

c)

Political affiliation

d)

Party loyalty

35.

What is the practice called when a person votes only for candidates of one party?

a)

Split-ticket voting

b)

Nonpartisan voting

c)

Straight-ticket voting

d)

Independent voting

36.

What is the process by which people gain their political attitudes and opinions?

a)

Political persuasion

b)

Political conditioning

c)

Political indoctrination

d)

Political socialization

37.

What is the term for the measurable differences between the electoral choices of men and women?

a)

Voter disparity

b)

Gender gap

c)

Gender divide

d)

Electoral gender bias

38.

What is the perception of the candidates and issues considered as in voter behavior?

a)

Economic factor

b)

Political factor

c)

Psychological factor

d)

Sociological factor

39.

What is the term for people not identified with a political party?

a)

Independent

b)

Nonpartisan

c)

Neutral

d)

Bipartisan

40.

What is the term for voting for candidates from more than one major party in the same election?

a)

Straight-ticket voting

b)

Split-ticket voting

c)

Cross-party voting

d)

Multi-party voting

41.

What is the reason for many nonvoters to not feel that their votes make a difference?

a)

Media influence

b)

Political disillusionment

c)

Lack of interest in politics

d)

Special interest groups

42.

What is the term for government by the people being taken over by politicians, special interest groups, and the media?

a)

Political corruption

b)

Government control

c)

Political manipulation

d)

Political takeover

43.

What is the term for the process of gaining political attitudes and opinions?

a)

Political socialization

b)

Political indoctrination

c)

Political persuasion

d)

Political conditioning

44.

What is the device by which voters register their choices in an election?

a)

Polling place

b)

Precinct

c)

Secret ballot

d)

Voting machine

45.

When are most States elections for State offices held?

a)

First Tuesday in November

b)

Second Tuesday in November

c)

Last Tuesday in November

d)

First Monday in November

46.

What is the coattail effect in elections?

a)

When a strong candidate helps attract voters to other candidates on the party's ticket

b)

When a candidate's popularity has no impact on other candidates

c)

When a weak candidate attracts voters to other candidates on the party's ticket

d)

When a candidate's popularity only affects the top of the ballot

47.

What is a precinct in the context of elections?

a)

A voting machine

b)

A voting district

c)

A polling place

d)

A ballot

48.

What is the Australian ballot?

a)

A ballot printed at public expense

b)

A ballot given out only at the polls

c)

A ballot listing candidates in a group by office

d)

A ballot marked in secret

49.

What is absentee voting in elections?

a)

Voting by those unable to get to their regular polling places

b)

Voting by those who are not registered voters

c)

Voting by those who are out of the country

d)

Voting by those who are under 18 years old

50.

What is the purpose of early voting in elections?

a)

To allow voters to cast ballots before the official election day

b)

To allow voters to cast multiple ballots

c)

To allow voters to cast ballots after the official election day

d)

To allow voters to change their ballots after casting them

51.

What is the percentage of votes cast on some type of voting machine in national elections?

a)

Exactly 100%

b)

Less than 25%

c)

Around 50%

d)

Over 75%

52.

What is mail-in balloting in elections?

a)

Voting at the polling place

b)

Voting using a voting machine

c)

Voting by filling out a ballot at home and mailing it back to election officials

d)

Voting by sending a representative to cast a ballot

53.

What does federal law regulate in presidential and congressional elections?

a)

State and local elections

b)

Voting districts and precincts

c)

Candidates and their campaigns

d)

Dates and some other aspects

54.

What is the role of Congress in setting the date for national and Congressional elections?

a)

It sets the date for national and Congressional elections

b)

It has no role in setting the date

c)

It only regulates the use of secret ballots

d)

It sets the date for State elections

55.

What is the purpose of the use of secret ballots in elections?

a)

To protect the right to vote

b)

To allow voters to change their ballots after casting them

c)

To prevent voters from knowing the election results

d)

To ensure that only registered voters can cast their ballots

56.

What is the function of a polling place in elections?

a)

To count the votes

b)

To locate the precinct

c)

To register voters

d)

To allow voters to cast their ballots

57.

What is the purpose of a party-column ballot in elections?

a)

To list candidates in a group by office

b)

To list candidates by party

c)

To mark the ballot in secret

d)

To give out only at the polls

58.

What is the method of casting a ballot that does not require any type of voting machine?

a)

Absentee voting

b)

Early voting

c)

Mail-in balloting

d)

Voting at the polling place

59.

What is the process by which people learn ideas and develop opinions about political issues?

a)

Political segregation

b)

Political manipulation

c)

Political socialization

d)

Political revolution

60.

Which of the following is NOT an important factor in developing political opinions?

a)

Race

b)

Occupation

c)

Family

d)

None of the above

61.

What are the means of communication that have a huge impact on the formation of public opinion?

a)

Billboards and posters

b)

Television and the Internet

c)

Newspapers and radio

d)

Books and magazines

62.

Who are the groups of people with whom one regularly associates and usually share political opinions?

a)

Political parties

b)

Peer groups

c)

Family members

d)

Interest groups

63.

Who are the people who can strongly influence the views of others and hold public office?

a)

Public officials

b)

Media personalities

c)

Political analysts

d)

Opinion leaders

64.

What are the private organizations that work to shape public policy?

a)

Public officials

b)

Interest groups

c)

Media outlets

d)

Political parties

65.

What is the term used to describe instructions from the constituency based on election results?

a)

Constituency resolution

b)

Political consensus

c)

Government directive

d)

Public mandate

66.

What are devices that collect information through questioning to measure public opinion?

a)

Public opinion polls

b)

Opinion surveys

c)

Political debates

d)

Public forums

67.

What is the process of breaking the polling process into steps to ensure accuracy?

a)

Straw voting

b)

Quota sampling

c)

Random sampling

d)

Scientific polling

68.

Which type of sample is one in which members of the chosen universe are equally likely to be picked?

a)

Random sample

b)

Convenience sample

c)

Quota sample

d)

Judgment sample

69.

What are the most difficult things to measure in public opinion polls?

a)

Intensity, stability, and relevance of opinions

b)

Accuracy, precision, and consistency of responses

c)

Influence, persuasion, and manipulation of attitudes

d)

Consensus, diversity, and variability of views

70.

What can polls create when some voters jump on the bandwagon to be with the candidate who is ahead in the polls?

a)

Primacy effect

b)

Halo effect

c)

Confirmation bias

d)

Bandwagon effect

71.

What are the most useful tools for measuring public opinion despite criticisms?

a)

Public forums

b)

Opinion surveys

c)

Political debates

d)

Public opinion polls

72.

Which of the following is NOT a criticism of public opinion polls?

a)

Reflecting total population

b)

Inaccurate measurement

c)

Creating bandwagon effect

d)

Shaping opinions

73.

What is the term used to describe the population the poll aims to measure?

a)

Category

b)

Sample

c)

Universe

d)

Segment

74.

What is the plural form of the word 'medium'?

a)

Mediums

b)

Medias

c)

Mediumies

d)

Media

75.

Which mass media has the most influence in American politics?

a)

Newspapers

b)

Radio

c)

Magazines

d)

Television

76.

What has dramatically altered the way Americans acquire news?

a)

Television

b)

Newspapers

c)

Internet

d)

Radio

77.

Which of the following has become an important tool for fundraising and mobilizing supporters in American politics?

a)

Magazines

b)

Newspapers

c)

Social media networks

d)

Television

78.

What is the term used for focused, snappy statements that can be aired in thirty-five or forty-five seconds?

a)

Excerpts

b)

Clips

c)

Quotes

d)

Sound bites

79.

What has reduced the importance of political parties in American politics?

a)

Internet

b)

Television

c)

Radio

d)

Magazines

80.

What has reemerged in the last decade or so in American politics?

a)

Partisan press

b)

Nontraditional cable television news channels

c)

Conservative talk radio

d)

All of the above

81.

What do few people actually follow carefully in the media?

a)

Sports news

b)

Political issues

c)

Celebrity news

d)

Entertainment news

82.

What do many Democrats and Republicans tend to do regarding their media consumption?

a)

None of the above

b)

Watch, listen to, or read sources with contrary opinions

c)

Watch, listen to, or read their favorite sources

d)

Avoid watching, listening to, or reading any news

83.

What is the central role of the media in elections?

a)

All of the above

b)

Setting the public agenda

c)

Mobilizing supporters

d)

Fundraising

84.

What has disappeared as news became more nationalized in the early part of the twentieth century?

a)

Radio

b)

Internet

c)

Partisan press

d)

Television

85.

What has the Internet taken a step further in transforming the way Americans acquire news?

a)

Television

b)

Newspapers

c)

Radio

d)

Social networking sites

86.

What has become important in uniting political activists worldwide?

a)

Social media networks

b)

Television

c)

Newspapers

d)

Radio

87.

What has a large part in setting the public agenda?

a)

Books

b)

Political parties

c)

Mass media

d)

Social media networks

88.

What has a limited influence in some ways?

a)

The media

b)

Newspapers

c)

Radio

d)

Television

89.

What is the main goal of interest groups?

a)

To influence public policy

b)

To select policy makers

c)

To organize public demonstrations

d)

To form political parties

90.

What is the primary concern of political parties?

a)

What the government does

b)

Who takes part in government

c)

How to influence public policy

d)

How to organize interest groups

91.

What is the controversial role of interest groups in politics?

a)

Limiting each other's extremes

b)

Stimulating interest in public affairs

c)

Providing useful information to the government

d)

Having more influence than they deserve

92.

What is the purpose of interest groups reaching out to the public?

a)

To gain support for their causes

b)

To build a positive image for their group

c)

To promote the public policies they favor

d)

All of the above

93.

What is the direct approach used by interest groups to influence public officials?

a)

Grass-roots pressures

b)

Propaganda

c)

Lobbying

d)

Campaign contributions

94.

What is the primary means by which the American Civil Liberties Union seeks to influence public policy?

a)

Legal action

b)

Lobbying

c)

Grass-roots pressures

d)

Campaign contributions

95.

What is the term for organized pressure from citizens at large to influence public officials?

a)

Campaign contributions

b)

Grass-roots pressures

c)

Propaganda

d)

Lobbying

96.

What technique of persuasion aimed at influencing individual or group behaviors do interest groups often use?

a)

Grass-roots pressures

b)

Propaganda

c)

Lobbying

d)

Campaign contributions

97.

What do interest groups use to raise campaign funds for candidates whom they think will further their goals?

a)

Political action committees

b)

Lobbying

c)

Legal action

d)

Grass-roots pressures

98.

What is the term for an interest group filing a brief in a case to which it is not itself a party but in which it does have a stake?

a)

Grass-roots pressures

b)

Lobbying

c)

Amicus curiae brief

d)

Legal action

99.

What do interest groups try to influence political parties to do?

a)

Limit each other's extremes

b)

Select policy makers

c)

Get policy makers elected who favor their position

d)

Promote public policies

100.

What do some interest groups form to raise campaign funds for candidates?

a)

Lobbying groups

b)

Legal action committees

c)

Political action committees

d)

Grass-roots pressures

101.

What is the term for the process by which organized interests attempt to affect the decisions and actions of public officials?

a)

Lobbying

b)

Legal action

c)

Grass-roots pressures

d)

Campaign contributions

102.

What do lobbyists do to persuade public officials to do those things that interest groups want them to do?

a)

All of the above

b)

Write speeches

c)

Provide information

d)

Make campaign contributions

103.

What is the primary interest represented by most interest groups?

a)

Environmental interests

b)

Labor interests

c)

Business interests

d)

Veterans interests

104.

What are the two major political parties in the United States?

a)

Labour and Conservative

b)

Whigs and Tories

c)

Republicans and Democrats

d)

Green and Libertarian

105.

What is the primary function of the national convention of a political party?

a)

Conducting election campaigns

b)

Drafting party manifestos

c)

Organizing local party units

d)

Selecting the party's presidential and vice-presidential nominees

106.

What is the main purpose of political parties in a democratic government?

a)

Controlling government by winning elections

b)

Suppressing public participation

c)

Eliminating opposition parties

d)

Promoting dictatorship

107.

What is the impact of minor parties on American politics?

a)

Acting as critics and innovators

b)

Strengthening the major parties

c)

Supporting the status quo

d)

Promoting bipartisanship

108.

What is the weakness of a multiparty system?

a)

It promotes extreme ideologies

b)

One party is often unable to win the support of a majority of the voters

c)

It leads to excessive government control

d)

It discourages political participation

109.

What is the role of economic protest parties in American politics?

a)

Advocating for socialist reforms

b)

Supporting the economic policies of the major parties

c)

Promoting economic inequality

d)

Criticizing the economic actions and plans of the major parties

110.

What is the main reason for the existence of a two-party system in the United States?

a)

Influence of foreign political systems

b)

Prevalence of single-member districts

c)

Strong government control

d)

Lack of political diversity

111.

What is the function of campaign committees in each house of Congress?

a)

Conducting foreign policy negotiations

b)

Reelecting incumbents and ensuring open seats remain in the party

c)

Drafting legislative bills

d)

Overseeing judicial appointments

112.

What is the purpose of single-issue parties in American politics?

a)

Supporting the major parties' agendas

b)

Focusing on one public policy matter

c)

Advocating for multiple policy issues

d)

Promoting bipartisan cooperation

113.

What is the impact of strong third-party candidates in elections?

a)

Strengthening the major parties' positions

b)

Encouraging voter turnout

c)

Playing the 'spoiler' role by weakening a major party's ability to win

d)

Promoting political stability

114.

What is the main function of political parties in nominating candidates for public office?

a)

Presenting candidates to the voters and gathering support for them

b)

Suppressing voter participation

c)

Promoting political apathy

d)

Selecting candidates based on personal preferences

115.

What is the role of parties in ensuring that their candidates and officeholders are qualified and of good character?

a)

Linking the people and their wishes to government action

b)

Performing well in office

c)

Acting as government watchdogs

d)

Informing and inspiring the people to participate in public affairs

116.

What is the main reason for the decentralized nature of the two major parties?

a)

Lack of party leadership

b)

Strong government control

c)

Influence of foreign political systems

d)

Result of the nominating process

117.

What is the primary role of the party out of power in a government?

a)

Keeping a close eye on the policies and behavior of the party in power

b)

Promoting the policies of the party in power

c)

Supporting the party in power

d)

Advocating for political extremism

118.

What is the main impact of splinter parties in American politics?

a)

Drawing attention to controversial issues

b)

Suppressing political diversity

c)

Promoting political conformity

d)

Strengthening the major parties

119.

What is the process of naming candidates who will seek office called?

a)

Selection

b)

Appointment

c)

Nomination

d)

Election

120.

Which of the following is NOT a way in which nominations are made in the United States?

a)

Caucus

b)

Referendum

c)

Direct primary

d)

Self-announcement

121.

In which type of primary can any voter vote in one party's primary?

a)

Open primary

b)

Closed primary

c)

Runoff primary

d)

Blanket primary

122.

What is the election held within a party to pick its candidates called?

a)

By-election

b)

General election

c)

Primary election

d)

Special election

123.

Which type of primary was ruled unconstitutional in 2000?

a)

Blanket primary

b)

Runoff primary

c)

Open primary

d)

Closed primary

124.

In which type of election are candidates not identified by party?

a)

Primary election

b)

Special election

c)

Partisan election

d)

Nonpartisan election

125.

Which type of nomination is found most widely at the local level?

a)

Nomination by petition

b)

Direct primary

c)

Convention

d)

Caucus

126.

In which type of primary must a candidate get more than half the votes to win?

a)

Runoff primary

b)

Blanket primary

c)

Open primary

d)

Closed primary

127.

Which type of election is used for filling most elected school and municipal offices?

a)

Nonpartisan election

b)

Primary election

c)

Partisan election

d)

Special election

128.

Which type of nomination requires a candidate to get a certain number of qualified voters to sign a petition?

a)

Nomination by petition

b)

Caucus

c)

Convention

d)

Direct primary

129.

In which type of primary can voters choose among all contenders, regardless of party?

a)

Closed primary

b)

Open primary

c)

Blanket primary

d)

Runoff primary

130.

Which type of nomination is used chiefly for nonpartisan school posts and municipal offices in medium-sized and smaller communities?

a)

Nomination by petition

b)

Caucus

c)

Convention

d)

Direct primary

131.

Which type of primary requires the two top vote-getters to hold a runoff primary if no candidate succeeds in getting more than half the votes?

a)

Blanket primary

b)

Closed primary

c)

Open primary

d)

Runoff primary

132.

Which type of primary generally only allows registered party members to vote?

a)

Open primary

b)

Closed primary

c)

Runoff primary

d)

Blanket primary

133.

Which type of nomination is made by a group of like-minded people nominating a candidate?

a)

Direct primary

b)

Convention

c)

Caucus

d)

Nomination by petition

134.

What is the purpose of a national convention for political parties?

a)

To target swing voters and battleground States

b)

To hold preference primaries

c)

To adopt a platform and vote for candidates

d)

To select the President and Vice President directly

135.

How do many States help decide which delegates will go to the national conventions?

a)

By holding preference primaries

b)

By using a district system to allot electoral votes

c)

By selecting delegates in local caucuses

d)

Through winner-take-all contests

136.

What is the purpose of a caucus in the presidential election process?

a)

To adopt a platform and vote for candidates

b)

To select the President and Vice President directly

c)

To hold preference primaries

d)

To select delegates to the national convention

137.

What is the role of swing voters in the presidential campaigns?

a)

To hold preference primaries

b)

To select the President and Vice President directly

c)

To adopt a platform and vote for candidates

d)

To target swing voters and battleground States

138.

When is the presidential campaign held?

a)

Every four years on the first Tuesday after the first Monday in November

b)

Every two years on the first Tuesday after the first Monday in November

c)

Every four years on the first Monday after the first Tuesday in November

d)

Every two years on the first Monday after the first Tuesday in November

139.

What happens if no candidate receives a majority of the electoral votes?

a)

The Supreme Court decides the President

b)

The Senate elects the President

c)

The House of Representatives elects the President

d)

The candidate with the most popular votes becomes President

140.

What is a problem with the electoral college system?

a)

The electoral votes are divided according to voter distribution

b)

The winner of the popular vote may not become President

c)

A strong third-party candidate cannot win enough votes

d)

The electoral votes are divided according to State population

141.

What is the district plan as a method of changing the electoral system?

a)

A plan to give a national bonus to the winning candidate

b)

A plan to allot electoral votes using a district system

c)

A plan to divide electoral votes according to State population

d)

A plan to bring about the direct popular election of the President

142.

What is the purpose of the national popular vote plan?

a)

To divide electoral votes according to State population

b)

To bring about the direct popular election of the President

c)

To allot electoral votes using a district system

d)

To give a national bonus to the winning candidate

143.

What is the role of the House of Representatives in the presidential election process?

a)

To select the President and Vice President directly

b)

To adopt a platform and vote for candidates

c)

To elect the President if no candidate receives a majority of the electoral votes

d)

To hold preference primaries

144.

What is the outcome of a winner-take-all contest in a State primary?

a)

The winner gets a share of delegate votes

b)

The winner becomes the President directly

c)

The winner gains the votes of all State delegates at the convention

d)

The winner gets a national bonus

145.

What is the purpose of the keynote address at a national convention?

a)

To select the President and Vice President directly

b)

To adopt a platform and vote for candidates

c)

To give an opening speech glorifying the party and its leaders

d)

To hold preference primaries

146.

What is the role of the presidential electors in the electoral college system?

a)

To cast votes for a particular candidate based on the popular votes

b)

To adopt a platform and vote for candidates

c)

To hold preference primaries

d)

To select the President and Vice President directly

147.

What is the timing of the presidential primaries important for?

a)

To select the President and Vice President directly

b)

To adopt a platform and vote for candidates

c)

To hold preference primaries

d)

To determine the length of the election season

148.

What is the role of the Democratic Party in the presidential primaries?

a)

To select delegates in local caucuses

b)

To target swing voters and battleground States

c)

To hold winner-take-all contests

d)

To use a complex system of proportional representation

149.

Where do parties and candidates draw their money from?

a)

Federal and State treasuries

b)

Public treasury and political action committees

c)

Private contributors and public treasury

d)

Political action committees and individuals

150.

What are PACs in the context of campaign finance?

a)

Grants of money from federal or State treasuries

b)

Political arms of special-interest groups

c)

Public financing for presidential elections

d)

Unaffiliated with any political party

151.

What is the purpose of public subsidies received by presidential candidates?

a)

To raise and spend unlimited amounts

b)

To fund party-building activities

c)

To provide public financing for the presidential election process

d)

To disclose campaign finance data

152.

Which law attempted to close the 'soft money' loophole in the 1974 and 1976 statutes?

a)

McConnell v. FEC in 2003

b)

FECA Amendments of 1974

c)

Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act of 2002

d)

Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971

153.

What is the main responsibility of the Federal Election Commission (FEC)?

a)

To disclose campaign finance data

b)

To raise and spend unlimited amounts

c)

To administer all federal campaign laws

d)

To work directly with a candidate’s campaign

154.

What are Super PACs allowed to do that traditional PACs are not?

a)

Administer all federal campaign laws

b)

Work directly with a candidate’s campaign

c)

Reveal their donors

d)

Raise and spend unlimited amounts

155.

What is the purpose of the Presidential Election Campaign Fund?

a)

To disclose campaign finance data

b)

To raise and spend unlimited amounts

c)

To provide public financing for the presidential election process

d)

To place limits on campaign contributions

156.

What are 527 organizations allowed to do in terms of raising funds?

a)

Place limits on campaign contributions

b)

Work directly with a candidate’s campaign

c)

Reveal their donors

d)

Raise and spend unlimited amounts

157.

What was the controversial ruling in Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission?

a)

Unions and corporations are not allowed to spend money on federal elections

b)

Unions and corporations have a right to spend money on federal elections

c)

Unions and corporations have a right to raise unlimited sums of money

d)

Unions and corporations are not allowed to raise unlimited sums of money

158.

What trend is unlikely to be reversed any time soon in terms of campaign finance?

a)

The limits on campaign contributions

b)

The timely disclosure of campaign finance data

c)

The public financing for the presidential election process

d)

The exploitation of the soft-money loophole

159.

What is the main purpose of the Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971?

a)

To provide public financing for the presidential election process

b)

To place limits on campaign contributions

c)

To require the timely disclosure of campaign finance data

d)

To raise and spend unlimited amounts

160.

What is the main impact of the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act of 2002?

a)

To provide public financing for the presidential election process

b)

To place limits on campaign contributions

c)

To require the timely disclosure of campaign finance data

d)

To raise and spend unlimited amounts

161.

What is the main impact of the FECA Amendments of 1974 and 1976?

a)

To place limits on campaign contributions

b)

To raise and spend unlimited amounts

c)

To require the timely disclosure of campaign finance data

d)

To provide public financing for the presidential election process

162.

What is the main impact of the McConnell v. FEC ruling in 2003?

a)

To place limits on campaign contributions

b)

To require the timely disclosure of campaign finance data

c)

To raise and spend unlimited amounts

d)

To provide public financing for the presidential election process

163.

What is the main impact of the Revenue Act of 1971?

a)

To raise and spend unlimited amounts

b)

To require the timely disclosure of campaign finance data

c)

To provide public financing for the presidential election process

d)

To place limits on campaign contributions