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3rd Geo End of Year Review 2024

Total questions: 112

Worksheet time: 1hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which is NOT a reason for the decreasing death rate?
a)
Better health care
b)
Greater food supply
c)
Cleaner water
d)
More pollution
2.

Number of deaths each year per 1,000 people

a)

population growth

b)

population density

c)

birth rate

d)

death rate

3.

All of the people in a particular area

a)

migration

b)

demographics

c)

population

d)

census

4.

Study of population patterns and change

a)

census

b)

demographics

c)

migration

d)

death rate

5.

Number of births each year per 1,000 people

a)

birth rate

b)

population growth

c)

population density

d)

migration

6.

Which is true about population density? Click ALL that are correct--there can be more than just one answer

a)

urban areas are more crowded

b)

population density is how many people there are per square mile

c)

the size of the area helps determine population density

d)

A country that has a high population density means that they have a high population.

7.

Why did the earth's population begin to rise dramatically in the 1800s and continue?

a)

better medicines and healthcare were available

b)

better farming techniques allowed for more food production

c)

the Industrial Revolution allowed for technology to assist humans in transportation and mass production of goods

d)

All of these factors led to population growth

8.

What are characteristics of countries that have higher life expectancies? You will choose more than one answer

a)

they value education

b)

they are at war

c)

easier access to medical care and medicines

d)

good government; democratic; freedoms

e)

lack of sanitation and access to clean water

9.

A country with slow or negative growth is usually...

a)

Developed

b)

Developing

10.

All of the following are characteristics of a developing countries EXCEPT...

a)

A large rural population

b)

A low life expectancy

c)

Lack of access to education

d)

Advanced technology

11.

Which state has the greatest population density?

a)

New Jersey

b)

Rhode Island

c)

Connecticut

d)

Vermont

12.

The average number of people living in an area

a)

population distribution

b)

population density

c)

urbanization

d)

population rate

13.

Birth Rate + Migration - Death Rate =

a)

population growth

b)

population density

14.

Population divided by Area =

a)

population density

b)

population growth

15.

Birth rates tend to be higher in

a)

less developed countries

b)

developed countries

c)

industrialized countries

16.
17) Which country is the less developed of the two?
a)
A) Kenya
b)
B) Japan
c)
C) Both are of equal development
d)
D) None of the above
17.
18) What is a possible reason for Kenya having a “bottom heavy” pyramid?
a)
A) Industrialization is at its peak
b)
B) There is a significant lack of quality medical care
c)
C) Higher education is readily available to the population
d)
D) Migratory populations have negative immigration issues
18.

3. The population pyramid of Japan shows two bulges. What age groups make up those bulges?

a)

35-39 and 60-64

b)

25-29 and Over 80

c)

50-54 and 0-4

d)

30-34 and Over 80

19.

How would you describe the population of this country?

a)

They are experiencing stable population growth

b)

They are experiencing negative population growth

c)

They are experiencing rapid population growth

20.
There are approximately 17,620 people per square mile in New York City. If New York City is 468 square miles, approximately how many people live in New York City?
a)
17,620
b)
8,246,160
c)
37
d)
.027
21.
A city has a population of 8792 people. The area of the city is approximately 6.5 square miles. Approximately, how many people per square mile live in the city?
a)
57148
b)
208
c)
1353
d)
135
22.

Which state has the largest population?

a)

New Hampshire

b)

Pennsylvania

c)

New Jersey

d)

New York

23.

Which state has the population density of 41 people per square mile?

a)

Connecticut

b)

Maryland

c)

Maine

d)

New York

24.

What type of growth is shown in the diagram?

a)

exponential growth

b)

logistic growth

c)

predator-prey cycle

d)

boom-bust curve

25.

Largest number of individuals of a population that the environment can support...

a)

carrying capacity

b)

population

c)

biome

d)

mutualism

26.

Imagine the city of Springfield has a population density of 5000 people per square mile and currently has a population of 2,500,000. What would be the area of Springfield in square miles?

a)

500 square miles

b)

400 square miles

c)

300 square miles

d)

250 square miles

27.

If the city of Springfield covers an area of 100 square miles and has a population density of 3000 people per square mile, what is its population?

a)

300,000 people

b)

200,000 people

c)

400,000 people

d)

500,000 people

28.

The city of Metropolis has a population of 1,000,000 and a population density of 2500 people per square mile. What is the area of the city in square miles?

a)

400 square miles

b)

500 square miles

c)

600 square miles

d)

250 square miles

29.

Imagine a city named GreenVille that has a population of 450,000 people living in an area of 150 square miles. What is the population density of GreenVille?

a)

2000 people per square mile

b)

3000 people per square mile

c)

4000 people per square mile

d)

5000 people per square mile

30.

If the city of Springfield covers an area of 75 square miles and has a population of 150,000, what is the population density of Springfield?

a)

1000 people per square mile

b)

2000 people per square mile

c)

3000 people per square mile

d)

4000 people per square mile

31.

The city of Springfield has a population density of 1000 people per square mile and covers an area of 50 square miles. What is the total population of Springfield?

a)

25,000 people

b)

50,000 people

c)

75,000 people

d)

100,000 people

32.

What is the area of a city in square miles if it has a population of 800,000 and a population density of 4000 people per square mile?

a)

100 square miles

b)

200 square miles

c)

300 square miles

d)

400 square miles

33.

If the city of Springfield has a population density of 2500 people per square mile and a total population of 625,000, what is the total area of Springfield in square miles?

a)

150 square miles

b)

250 square miles

c)

350 square miles

d)

450 square miles

34.

Imagine a bustling city, Metropolis, covers an area of 120 square miles and has a population of 480,000. What is the population density of Metropolis?

a)

3000 people per square mile

b)

4000 people per square mile

c)

5000 people per square mile

d)

6000 people per square mile

35.

If New York City has a population of 1,200,000 and covers an area of 300 square miles, what is the population density?

a)

3000 people per square mile

b)

4000 people per square mile

c)

5000 people per square mile

d)

6000 people per square mile

36.

the pattern or spread of people in a given area

a)

census

b)

death rate

c)

population distribution

d)

demographics

37.

The following features are formed by wave erosion, except

a)

Spits

b)

Cliffs

c)

Caves

d)

Arches

38.

Which of the following is NOT formed by wave erosion?

a)

Cave

b)

Cliff

c)

Bar

d)

Stack

39.

The most common process occurring at the mouth of a river is

a)

Erosion

b)

Deposition

c)

Transportation

d)

None of the above

40.

Large masses of water moving horizontally in a specific direction from one point to another for a long period of time are called

a)

Waves

b)

Tides

c)

Ocean currents

41.

Linear deposits of material that are roughly parallel to the coast are known as

a)

Bars

b)

Tombolos

c)

Spits

d)

Beaches

42.

Attrition occurs when?

a)

Little rocks get picked up by the waves and smashed on to the cliffs

b)

Small rocks are smashed against each other, making smaller rocks.

c)

Chemicals in the sea water dissolve the rocks

d)

At low tide when animals enter the coastal environment.

43.

What wave type is associated with Erosion?

a)

Constructive Waves

b)

Destructive Waves

c)

Radio Waves

d)

Polar Waves

44.

What causes coral bleaching?

a)

oil spills

b)

warmer water temperatures

c)

overfishing

d)

red tide

45.
A ringed shaped reef
a)
fringing reef
b)
barrier reef
c)
atoll
d)
archipelago 
46.
Mangroves provide a _________________________for small fish before they swim out to the deeper ocean.
a)
Safe breeding ground
b)
Fresh water system
47.

How is the rise in global temperature affecting coral reefs?

a)

Increase in coral reefs

b)

Leads to the death of coral reefs

c)

Greater variety of coral reefs

d)

Improvement in breeding grounds for fish

48.

These trees are adapted to brackish water

a)

Rainforest

b)

Semi-Evergreen Forest

c)

Dry Woodland

d)

Tropical Montane Forest

e)

Mangrove

49.
Which is NOT a method of transportation?
a)
Abrasion
b)
Saltation
c)
Traction
d)
Suspension
50.
Where would you find a waterfall?
a)
Upper course
b)
Middle Course
c)
Lower Course
51.
What landform can you see in the picture?
a)
Floodplain
b)
Delta
c)
Waterfall
d)
Oxbow lake
52.
"Rocks rolled along the river bed" is what type of transportation?
a)
Saltation
b)
Suspension
c)
Traction
d)
Solution
53.
"When rocks scrape along the river bank and bed" is what type of erosion?
a)
Attrition
b)
Abrasion
c)
Solution
d)
Hydraulic Action
54.
"This is where plants, trees, or buildings collect the precipitation" What am I?
a)
Interception
b)
Infiltration
c)
Percolation
d)
Surface runoff
55.
"Where the water filters into the ground and into the tiny pores in the soil" What am I?
a)
Infiltration
b)
Percolation
c)
Precipitation
d)
Interception
56.
"I am the movement of water sideways through the soil" What am I?
a)
Throughflow
b)
Rock flow
c)
Soil flow
d)
Groundwater flow
57.
"I am a smaller river joining a larger river" What am I?
a)
Confluence
b)
Tributary 
c)
Drainage Basin
d)
Watershed
58.
I am the land that gets flooded when the river overflows. What am I?
a)
Levee
b)
Delta
c)
Floodplain
d)
Meander
59.

A river's ________________ is the starting point of the river.

a)

source

b)

triutaries

c)

mouth

d)

drainage basin

60.

The place where the river end in the sea or large lake is called the ___________.

a)

source

b)

tributaries

c)

mouth

d)

drainage basin

61.

The area of land DRAINED by a river system is called the _____________

a)

drainage basin

b)

mouth

c)

tributaries

d)

source

62.
What part of the water cycle does this picture show?
a)
condensation
b)
precipitation
c)
evaporation
d)
transpiration
63.
Evaporation happens when the sun ___________ water and turns it into vapor.
a)
cools
b)
heats up
c)
freezes
d)
lights up
64.
What are three things that rivers do naturally?
a)
a.erode, transport, and deposit
b)
b. dissolve, precipitate, sublime
c)
c. evaporate, percolate, infiltrate
d)
d.none of these
65.

What landform can you see in the picture?

a)

U shaped valley

b)

V Shaped Valley

c)

Floodplain

d)

Waterfall

66.
 Deposition is a process that
a)
Dissolves sediment
b)
Breaks down rock to form sediment
c)
Removes sediment from land forms
d)
Drops sediment to form landforms
67.

Which landform can be seen in the photo?

a)

Waterfall

b)

Estuary

c)

Inter-locking Spur

d)

Meander

68.

What is the deep water called beneath a waterfall?

a)

Plunge bath

b)

Mermaids retreat

c)

Plunge pool

d)

Pool

69.

What landform can you see in the picture?

a)

Meanders

b)

Rapids

c)

Estuary

d)

V shaped valleys

70.
What helps create Waterfalls?
a)
Abrasion
b)
Solution
c)
Silting
d)
Hydraulic Action
71.
The high ground around a river where rain seldom falls is called the ...
a)
Mountains
b)
Watershed
c)
Drainage Basin
d)
Valley
72.
Attrition is when ..
a)
large rocks smash against each other.
b)
small rocks rub against each other.
c)
sand and other fine particles float.
d)
water flows into the rocks.
73.
Which best explains why runoff is important?
a)
It returns water to other locations on Earth
b)
It increases the chance of flooding
c)
It makes evaporation occur faster
d)
It increases condensation
74.
Snow, sleet, hail, and rain are all examples of  ________________. 
a)
evaporation
b)
condensation
c)
accumulation
d)
precipitation
75.
What is it called when plants give off water vapor as a waste product?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
sublimation
d)
transpiration
76.
What is the energy source for the water cycle?
a)
the sun
b)
the earth
c)
water
d)
the moon
77.
What is a layer of rock or sediment that holds water?
a)
glacier
b)
well
c)
aquifer
d)
natural spring
78.

As a part of the water cycle, water from Earth's surface enters the clouds and finally falls back to the ground in the form of rain. What is the correct sequence of processes water undergoes?

a)

Evaporation, Condensation, Precipitation

b)

Precipitation, Condensation, Evaporation

c)

Condensation, Evaporation, Precipitation

d)

Evaporation, Precipitation, Condensation

79.

What is another name or synonym for the water cycle?

a)

Geologic cycle

b)

Hydrologic cycle

c)

Geosphere

d)

Carbon cycle

80.

The _________ is an area of land that separates water flowing into different drainage basins.

a)

Watershed

b)

Source

c)

Confluence

d)

Tributary

81.

The valley walls of a river are the steepest at which river course?

a)

Upper

b)

Middle

c)

Lower

82.

Where does deposition mostly occur?

a)

Upper Course

b)

Middle Course

c)

Lower Course

83.

What do we call the point where one river joins another?

a)

confluence

b)

tributary

c)

delta

d)

erosion

84.

Sediment deposits that form where a river flows into still water. Shaped like a triangle.

a)

confluence

b)

valley

c)

delta

d)

tributary

85.

The force of the moving water and air wears away the banks and bed of the river. Water forces air to be trapped in the banks and the pressure eventually cracks and breaks the banks.

a)

attrition

b)

abration

c)

solution

d)

hydraulic action

86.

Which one of these processes is the movement of particles 'leap frogging' along the river bed?

a)

traction

b)

suspension

c)

saltation

d)

solution

87.

Which one of these processes is the movement of material that is carried within the water flow?

a)

traction

b)

suspension

c)

saltation

d)

solution

88.

Which one of these river processes is the movement of material that is dissolved in water?

a)

traction

b)

suspension

c)

saltation

d)

solution

89.
Particles in a river will get bigger as we move downstream.
a)
True
b)
False
90.
The steepness or vertical drop of a stream or river
a)
discharge
b)
runoff
c)
gradient
d)
channel
91.

Which term best describes the general flow of water over land?

a)

runoff

b)

precipitation

c)

transpiration

d)

condensation

92.

What are the 2 macro scale types of erosion?

a)

Lateral and vertical

b)

Horizontal and diagonal

c)

Dendritic and radial

d)

Zig-zag and random

93.

Match the verb to the correct process: Rolling

a)

Traction

b)

Suspension

c)

Saltation

d)

Solution

94.

Which process does the following link to : Sandpaper effect

a)

Attrition

b)

Abrasion

c)

Hydraulic action

d)

Saltation

95.

Match the verb to the correct process: bouncing

a)

Traction

b)

Saltation

c)

Solution

d)

Suspension

96.

The river discharge is greater in the...

a)

Upper course

b)

Lower course

97.

The occupied channel width is greater in the...

a)

upper course

b)

lower course

98.

What do we call a chart of a river from source to mouth?

a)

long profile

b)

length profile

c)

extent profile

d)

elongated profile

99.

The load particle size is greater in the...

a)

Upper course

b)

Lower course

100.

The channel depth is greater in the...

a)

Upper course

b)

Lower course

101.

Channel bed roughness is greater in the...

a)

Upper course

b)

Lower course

102.

The slope angle (gradient) is greater in the...

a)

Upper course

b)

Lower course

103.

Average velocity is greater in the...

a)

Upper course

b)

Lower course

104.

Load quantity is greater in the...

a)

Upper course

b)

Lower course

105.

A diagram that pretends to slice a river like a cake, so you can see sideways bank-to-bank is called a...

a)

Cross profile

b)

Width profile

c)

Side profile

d)

Intersect profile

106.

What is the CORRECT order of the features labelled I, II, III and IV?

a)

Cave, arch, cliff, stack

b)

Arch, cave, stack, cliff

c)

Stack, cliff, arch, cave

d)

Cliff, cave, arch, stack

107.

Which of the following conditions are needed for coral growth?

a)

Cloudy (turbid) water

b)

Warm water temperatures

c)

Fresh (low salinity) water

d)

Very gentle wave action

108.

Which of the following statements is NOT true about waves?

a)

They are caused by wind blowing over the surface of the water

b)

On nearing the beach, the speed slackens and the tops are thrown forward

c)

On approaching the coast, the body of water forming the wave increases rapidly

d)

The stronger the wind and the greater the fetch, the more powerful the waves are

109.

A coral reef which is separated from the mainland by a wide lagoon is known as

a)

an atoll

b)

a patch reef

c)

a barrier reef

d)

a fringing reef

110.

Which of the following features is NOT shown on the diagram?

a)

Cliff

b)

Headland

c)

Bayhead Beach

d)

Wavecut Platform

111.
What is the main disadvantage of using groynes?
a)
They can starve other beaches of sediment
b)
Aesthetically displeasing
c)
Expensive
112.
Which one of the following is a soft engineering technique?
a)
Groynes
b)
Dune stabilisation
c)
Rip rap
d)
Revetments

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