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Edexcel Economics Unit 4 Quiz 1 (Trade; Poverty)

Total questions: 1

Worksheet time: 3570secs

Name
Class
Date
1-100.
1.

What is the definition of globalisation?

a)

A) A reversal of the process of globalisation

b)

B) Slowdown in the speed of globalisation

c)

C) The deepening of relationships between countries, reflected in an increasing level of cross-border trade and investment and migration

d)

D) The process of reducing trade barriers

2.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of globalisation?

a)

A) Increased trade in goods and services

b)

B) De-industrialisation and structural unemployment in developed economies

c)

C) Decreasing interdependency of economic agents

d)

D) Greater specialisation and division of global labour force

3.

What is one of the causes of globalisation?

a)

A) Decreasing size and number of trading blocs

b)

B) Increasing influence of powerful corporations (MNCs/TNCs)

c)

C) Higher trade barriers

d)

D) Decreasing FDI flows between countries

4.

Which of the following is a benefit of globalisation?

a)

A) Higher consumer prices

b)

B) Slower economic growth

c)

C) Freer movement of labour

d)

D) Decreased awareness of global economic challenges

5.

What does the term "slower globalisation" refer to?

a)

A) A reversal of the process of globalisation

b)

B) Slowdown in the speed of globalisation

c)

C) The deepening of relationships between countries

d)

D) Increasing trade barriers

6.

What is the role of multi- or trans-national companies (MNCs or TNCs) in globalisation?

a)

A) They operate in only one country

b)

B) They reduce the need for global supply chains

c)

C) They operate in more than one country

d)

D) They focus solely on local markets

7.

Which of the following is a cost of globalisation?

a)

Increased access to foreign markets

b)

Improved productivity and innovation

c)

Environmental costs

d)

Attraction of foreign investment

8.

What is a cause of de-globalisation?

a)

Increased access to global markets

b)

Economic shocks

c)

Improved productivity and innovation

d)

Increased access to knowledge and technology

9.

Which of the following is a benefit of globalisation on developed countries?

a)

Job displacement/structural unemployment

b)

Rise in income inequality

c)

Increased access to foreign markets

d)

Environmental degradation

10.

What is a systemic risk of negative global shocks?

a)

Increased access to global markets

b)

Financial crises

c)

Improved productivity and innovation

d)

Attraction of foreign investment

11.

Which of the following is a cost of globalisation on developing countries?

a)

Increased access to global markets

b)

Increase in foreign investment

c)

Economic dependence such as primary product dependency

d)

Increased access to knowledge and technology

12.

What is a benefit of globalisation on developing countries?

a)

Exploitation of labour and issues with emigration

b)

Environmental degradation

c)

Increased access to knowledge and technology

d)

Economic dependence such as primary product dependency

13.

Which of the following is NOT a reason why countries trade?

a)

To increase the availability of resources, goods, and services

b)

To increase choice for consumers/more product differentiation

c)

To decrease efficiency and increase costs

d)

To reduce prices

14.

What is international specialisation?

a)

When countries focus on producing and exporting goods or services in which they have a comparative advantage

b)

When countries produce all goods and services domestically

c)

When countries avoid trading with other nations

d)

When countries focus on producing goods with the highest costs

15.

What is the definition of absolute advantage?

a)

A country produces a good at a lower direct cost

b)

A country produces a good at a higher direct cost

c)

A country imports all goods and services

d)

A country avoids specialization

16.

Which country has an absolute advantage in the production of Good X?

a)

Country A

b)

Country B

c)

Both Country A and Country B

d)

Neither Country A nor Country B

17.

What is the opportunity cost of producing 1 unit of Good Y in Country A?

4 lines
18.

Which country has a comparative advantage in the production of Good Y?

a)

Country A

b)

Country B

c)

Both Country A and Country B

d)

Neither Country A nor Country B

19.

What is the total production of Good X and Good Y after specialisation?

a)

200 units of Good X and 110 units of Good Y

b)

180 units of Good X and 105 units of Good Y

c)

150 units of Good X and 90 units of Good Y

d)

100 units of Good X and 50 units of Good Y

20.

What is meant by "mutually beneficial terms of trade"?

a)

Trade that benefits only one country

b)

Trade that benefits both countries

c)

Trade that benefits neither country

d)

Trade that benefits only the exporting country

21.

What is the opportunity cost ratio for Country A before trade?

a)

1X:0.75Y

b)

1Y:1.34X

c)

1X:0.5Y

d)

1Y:2X

22.

What is the opportunity cost ratio for Country B before trade?

a)

1X:0.75Y

b)

1Y:1.34X

c)

1X:0.5Y

d)

1Y:2X

23.

After trade and specialisation, how much of Good X does Country A export to Country B?

a)

43X

b)

63X

c)

48X

d)

62X

24.

What is the definition of "competitive advantage"?

a)

When a country has no transport costs

b)

When a country has access to technology or innovations that allow cheaper and/or more efficient production of goods

c)

When a country has no barriers to trade

d)

When a country has perfect knowledge

25.

Who was David Ricardo?

a)

A modern economist who developed the theory of absolute advantage

b)

One of the founding fathers of classical economics who developed the idea of comparative advantage

c)

A politician who promoted free trade

d)

A scientist who studied environmental costs of trade

26.

What is the basic rule of comparative advantage according to David Ricardo?

a)

Specialise a country’s scarce factor resources in goods and services that they are relatively best at

b)

Specialise a country’s abundant factor resources in goods and services that they are relatively worst at

c)

Specialise a country’s scarce factor resources in goods and services that they are relatively worst at

d)

Specialise a country’s abundant factor resources in goods and services that they are relatively best at

27.

What is one of the assumptions underlying comparative advantage?

a)

No transport costs

b)

High environmental costs

c)

Imperfect knowledge

d)

Factor immobility between uses

28.

What is the result of specialisation and trade for both countries?

a)

Both countries are worse off than before

b)

Both countries are better off than before

c)

Only one country benefits

d)

Neither country benefits

29.

What does Country A gain after trade and specialisation?

4 lines
30.

What does Country B gain after trade and specialisation?

4 lines
31.

What does the diagram showing absolute and comparative advantage illustrate?

a)

A has absolute advantage in Y and B has absolute advantage in X

b)

No gains from trade. Opportunity cost ratios are the same. (Parallel)

c)

A has comparative advantage in X and B has comparative advantage in Y

d)

All of the above

32.

What is the definition of the pattern of trade?

a)

The mix of goods and services that a country imports and exports in international trade

b)

The economic policies a country follows

c)

The political relationships between trading countries

d)

The cultural exchanges between countries

33.

Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing the pattern of trade?

a)

Absolute and comparative advantages

b)

Factor endowments

c)

Cultural exchanges

d)

Exchange rate movements

34.

What does the geographical pattern of trade describe?

a)

How businesses and consumers in other countries trade with businesses and consumers in a country

b)

The types of products traded internationally

c)

The economic policies of a country

d)

The cultural exchanges between countries

35.

What is the Gravity theory of trade?

a)

Countries tend to trade most with other nations in closest proximity

b)

Countries trade based on their economic policies

c)

Countries trade based on cultural similarities

d)

Countries trade based on political alliances

36.

What is primary product dependency?

a)

Where a country's economy heavily relies on the export of raw materials or primary products

b)

Where a country's economy relies on the import of finished goods

c)

Where a country's economy is based on service industries

d)

Where a country's economy is based on technological innovation

37.

Which of the following is an example of a country with primary product dependency?

a)

Cote d'Ivoire

b)

Germany

c)

USA

d)

Japan

38.

What is an emerging market?

a)

An economy that cannot yet be classified as 'developed' and is investing heavily in its productive capacity

b)

An economy that is fully developed and has a high standard of living

c)

An economy that relies solely on agricultural exports

d)

An economy that does not engage in international trade

39.

What percentage of UK exports go to the European Union post-Brexit?

a)

46%

b)

53%

c)

13%

d)

3.6%

40.

Which country is the largest single export market for the UK?

a)

USA

b)

Germany

c)

China

d)

Netherlands

41.

What type of products does the UK trade most in?

a)

Petroleum products, road vehicles, pharmaceutical products

b)

Agricultural goods, textiles, food products

c)

Electronics, software, hardware

d)

Furniture, clothing, accessories

42.

What is a trading bloc?

a)

A group of countries that trade more freely amongst themselves but may set barriers against non-members

b)

A single country that trades with multiple other countries

c)

A bilateral agreement between two companies

d)

A local market within a country

43.

Which type of trading bloc involves free trade between members and a common external tariff (CET) on non-members?

a)

Preferential Trading Area (PTA)

b)

Free trade area/agreement (FTA)

c)

Customs union

d)

Monetary union

44.

What is the main characteristic of a single (common) market?

a)

Free trade and common policies on product regulation

b)

Trade agreements between the EU and less developed countries

c)

Members share a common currency and central bank

d)

Free trade between members with tariffs and quotas removed

45.

What does trade creation refer to in the context of a customs union?

a)

Removal of tariffs between members increases trade between businesses within the bloc

b)

Trade is diverted from outside to inside the bloc

c)

Setting up a common external tariff (CET)

d)

Establishing a single market

46.

Which of the following is an example of a free trade area?

a)

Eurozone

b)

ASEAN

c)

EU single market

d)

Customs union

47.

What is the purpose of the 'country of origin rule' in a free trade area?

a)

To ensure that a certain percentage of goods traded must originate from a member state to qualify for tariff-free internal trade

b)

To establish a common currency among member states

c)

To set a common external tariff on non-members

d)

To create a level playing field for trade by removing NTBs

48.

What happens to consumer surplus when a tariff is removed in a customs union?

a)

It decreases

b)

It remains the same

c)

It increases

d)

It is eliminated

49.

What is the main benefit of a single or common market?

a)

Free trade between members with tariffs and quotas removed

b)

Free movement of goods, services, capital, and labor

c)

Members share a common currency and central bank

d)

Trade agreements between the EU and less developed countries

50.

Which of the following is an advantage of Regional Trade Agreements (RTAs)?

a)

Increased trade

b)

Trade diversion

c)

Complexity

d)

Exclusion

51.

What is one of the key functions of the World Trade Organisation (WTO)?

a)

Trade diversion

b)

Dispute settlement

c)

Exclusion

d)

Inequality

52.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of RTAs?

a)

Efficiency gains

b)

Economies of scale

c)

Political cooperation

d)

Loss of sovereignty

53.

What does the term "trade diversion" refer to in the context of RTAs?

a)

Increased trade among member countries

b)

Reduction of trade barriers

c)

Members trading more with each other but less with non-members

d)

Providing technical assistance to developing countries

54.

Which of the following is a challenge faced by the WTO?

a)

Increased trade

b)

Efficiency gains

c)

Multilateral negotiations gridlock

d)

Political cooperation

55.

What is one of the factors influencing the potential success of a trading bloc?

a)

Trade discrimination

b)

Economic size of the bloc

c)

Preferential treatment

d)

Dispute resolution

56.

What does "preferential treatment" mean in the context of RTAs and WTO?

a)

RTAs provide preferential treatment to member countries

b)

WTO rules generally favor non-discrimination

c)

RTAs lead to trade diversion

d)

RTAs may discriminate against non-members

57.

Which of the following is a tax on imports?

a)

Quota

b)

Subsidy

c)

Tariff

d)

Non-tariff barrier (NTB)

58.

What is a physical limit on the quantity of imports allowed?

a)

Tariff

b)

Quota

c)

Subsidy

d)

Rules of Origin

59.

Which of the following is a payment by the government to reduce the costs of producers?

a)

Tariff

b)

Quota

c)

Subsidy

d)

Non-tariff barrier (NTB)

60.

What are barriers such as import quotas, tough environmental and product standard rules, trade embargoes, and export subsidies called?

a)

Tariff

b)

Quota

c)

Subsidy

d)

Non-tariff barrier (NTB)

61.

What are the rules of the national source of the traded goods, e.g., a minimum percentage for locally-sourced components, called?

a)

Tariff

b)

Quota

c)

Rules of Origin

d)

Subsidy

62.

Which of the following is NOT a type of non-tariff barrier (NTB)?

a)

Intellectual property laws

b)

Technical barriers to trade

c)

Preferential state procurement policies

d)

Tariff

63.

What is the effect of a quota on the market price?

a)

Decreases the market price

b)

Increases the market price

c)

Has no effect on the market price

d)

Eliminates the market price

64.

What happens to consumer surplus when a tariff is imposed?

a)

It increases

b)

It remains the same

c)

It falls

d)

It fluctuates

65.

What is the impact of a subsidy on imports?

a)

Imports increase

b)

Imports decrease

c)

Imports remain the same

d)

Imports are eliminated

66.

Which of the following is a reason for protecting domestic industries through trade restrictions?

a)

To increase consumer choice

b)

To safeguard national security interests

c)

To lower prices for consumers

d)

To promote free trade

67.

What is the "Infant Industry Argument" in favor of protectionism?

a)

To protect established industries from foreign competition

b)

To protect emerging industries until they can compete internationally

c)

To reduce the prices of imported goods

d)

To increase consumer choice

68.

Which of the following is a problem associated with protectionism?

a)

Higher prices for consumers

b)

Increased consumer choice

c)

Improved living standards

d)

Enhanced international relations

69.

How can trade restrictions improve a country's balance of payments?

a)

By increasing imports

b)

By reducing imports through tariffs or quotas

c)

By promoting free trade

d)

By increasing consumer choice

70.

What is one of the benefits of protectionism mentioned in the document?

a)

It leads to lower prices for consumers

b)

It promotes free trade

c)

It can protect jobs and prevent structural unemployment

d)

It increases consumer choice

71.

Which of the following is a potential issue with free trade?

a)

Job creation in domestic industries

b)

Wage suppression

c)

Increased income equality

d)

Higher living standards

72.

What is a potential consequence of trade barriers and inequality?

a)

Increased competition in certain sectors

b)

Higher pricing power for companies

c)

Lower profits for companies

d)

Higher real wages for workers

73.

What are the three key parts of a country's balance of payments account?

a)

Current account, Capital account, Financial account

b)

Trade balance, Services balance, Primary income

c)

Exports, Imports, Net exports

d)

Budget deficit, Trade deficit, Financial deficit

74.

What does a trade surplus indicate?

a)

The value of imports exceeds the value of exports

b)

The value of exports exceeds the value of imports

c)

The value of exports equals the value of imports

d)

The value of imports equals the value of exports

75.

What is recorded in the capital account of the balance of payments?

a)

Transactions related to financial assets and liabilities

b)

Transactions related to the acquisition or disposal of non-financial assets

c)

Net transfers of money or goods between countries

d)

Net flows of earnings from investments

76.

Which of the following is included in the financial account of the balance of payments?

a)

Trade in goods and services

b)

Capital transfers

c)

Foreign direct investment (FDI)

d)

Secondary income

77.

What does the current account record?

a)

Transactions related to a country's trade in goods, services, primary and secondary income

b)

Transactions related to the acquisition or disposal of non-financial assets

c)

Transactions related to financial assets and liabilities

d)

Net transfers of money or goods between countries

78.

What is the difference between a current account deficit and a budget deficit?

a)

A current account deficit occurs when the value of exports is greater than the value of imports, while a budget deficit occurs when the government spends less than it receives in tax revenue.

b)

A current account deficit occurs when the value of exports is less than the value of imports, while a budget deficit occurs when the government spends more than it receives in tax revenue.

c)

A current account deficit occurs when the value of imports is greater than the value of exports, while a budget deficit occurs when the government spends more than it receives in tax revenue.

d)

A current account deficit occurs when the value of imports is less than the value of exports, while a budget deficit occurs when the government spends less than it receives in tax revenue.

79.

What is a current account deficit?

a)

When the value of exports of goods and services, investment incomes, and transfer inflows is higher than spending on imported goods and services.

b)

When the value of exports of goods and services, investment incomes, and transfer inflows is lower than spending on imported goods and services.

c)

When the value of exports of goods and services, investment incomes, and transfer inflows is equal to spending on imported goods and services.

d)

When the value of exports of goods and services, investment incomes, and transfer inflows is not considered.

80.

Which of the following is NOT a way to finance a current account deficit?

a)

Attract inflows of FDI, portfolio investments, hot money, savings.

b)

Use up foreign currency reserves.

c)

Sell assets/property to foreign investors.

d)

Increase domestic consumption.

81.

What are the cyclical causes of a current account deficit?

a)

Low rates of capital investment and high cost & price inflation.

b)

Fall in value of exports and a boom in consumer spending.

c)

Rising real incomes boosting consumer spending and increasing demand for imports.

d)

Long-term decline of previously dominant export sectors.

82.

What is a possible consequence of a current account deficit?

a)

Increase in real output and GDP growth.

b)

Depreciating exchange rate.

c)

Positive multiplier effect.

d)

Increase in foreign currency reserves.

83.

What does the significance of a current account deficit depend on?

a)

Its size relative to GDP and its persistence.

b)

Its size relative to GDP and the level of foreign investment.

c)

Its persistence and the level of foreign investment.

d)

The level of foreign investment and the trade balance.

84.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a current account surplus?

a)

Net injection into the economy.

b)

Positive export multiplier effects.

c)

Trade surplus allows net exporting of capital.

d)

All of the above.

85.

Which of the following is NOT a method to correct a current account deficit?

a)

Deflationary policies to reduce AD and spending on imports

b)

Depreciation/devaluation of the currency

c)

Increasing government spending on welfare

d)

Direct controls on imports via tariffs, quotas, etc.

86.

What is the primary goal of expenditure-switching policies?

a)

To increase government spending

b)

To change the relative prices of exports and imports

c)

To reduce the supply of money

d)

To increase the interest rates

87.

Which of the following is an example of an expenditure-reducing policy?

a)

An exchange rate depreciation

b)

A tariff on imported goods

c)

Higher direct taxes

d)

Lower relative inflation

88.

Which of the following is a supply-side policy to correct a current account deficit?

a)

Depreciation of the currency

b)

Investment in education

c)

Higher direct taxes

d)

Lower relative inflation

89.

According to the Marshall-Lerner condition, for a depreciation to improve the current account, the absolute value of the sum of the PED for X and PED for M must be:

a)

Less than 1

b)

Equal to 1

c)

Greater than or equal to 1

d)

Greater than 2

90.

What does the J-curve effect illustrate?

a)

The immediate improvement in the trade balance after a currency depreciation

b)

The time lag between a depreciation or devaluation and an improvement in the trade balance

c)

The relationship between inflation and unemployment

d)

The impact of tariffs on import prices

91.

What is the definition of an exchange rate?

a)

The price of a currency in terms of another.

b)

The interest rate set by the central bank.

c)

The amount of foreign direct investment.

d)

The rate of inflation in an economy.

92.

Which of the following is an example of a bilateral exchange rate?

a)

£1 = $1.05

b)

Effective or trade-weighted index

c)

Real effective exchange rate

d)

Inflation-adjusted exchange rate

93.

What does a multilateral exchange rate represent?

a)

One currency in terms of a group of other currencies.

b)

One currency in terms of one other currency.

c)

The rate of inflation in an economy.

d)

The amount of foreign direct investment.

94.

Which of the following factors influences the demand for a currency?

a)

Domestic spending on imported goods and services.

b)

Outflow of portfolio flows in property, shares, and bonds.

c)

Buying exports of goods and services.

d)

Outflows of foreign direct investment (FDI).

95.

What is the impact of an increase in exports or inward investment on the demand for currency?

a)

Demand for currency shifts right.

b)

Demand for currency shifts left.

c)

Supply of currency shifts right.

d)

Supply of currency shifts left.

96.

What happens to the supply of a currency when there is an outflow of foreign direct investment (FDI)?

a)

Supply of currency increases.

b)

Supply of currency decreases.

c)

Demand for currency increases.

d)

Demand for currency decreases.

97.

What is the effect of a fall in interest rates on the demand and supply of currency?

a)

Demand shifts left and supply shifts right.

b)

Demand shifts right and supply shifts left.

c)

Both demand and supply shift left.

d)

Both demand and supply shift right.

98.

What is the impact of speculation on the demand for currency if the currency is appreciating?

a)

Demand shifts right.

b)

Demand shifts left.

c)

Supply shifts right.

d)

Supply shifts left.

99.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a freely floating exchange rate system?

a)

Central bank intervention is frequent.

b)

Currency value is set purely by demand and supply.

c)

The exchange rate is pegged to another currency.

d)

The central bank holds large foreign currency reserves.

100.

In a managed floating exchange rate system, the central bank may intervene by:

a)

Pegging the currency to a fixed rate.

b)

Issuing more domestic currency without foreign reserves.

c)

Buying or selling foreign exchange reserves.

d)

Setting a target for the exchange rate.