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Year 10 Triple Biology Mock close the gap June 2024

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which part of a cell is where respiration takes place?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Ribosome

e)

Cell membrane

2.

Which part of a cell is where proteins are made?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Ribosome

e)

Cell membrane

3.
What is the function of the cell nucleus found in both plant and animal cells?
a)

to release energy via respiration

b)
to control cell activity
c)

make proteins

d)

controls what goes in and out of cell

4.
Two structures found in plant cells but NOT animal cells are 
a)
cell wall and cell membrane
b)
chloroplasts and cell membrane
c)
cell wall and chloroplasts
d)

vacuole and cell wall

5.

Which type of cell is the bacterial cell as it has no nucleus?

a)

Eukaryotic

b)

Prokaryotic

c)

Multicellular

d)

Unicellular

6.

Both cells are drawn the same length, but the magnification of each cell is different.The real length of the bacterial cell is 2 micrometres.

Calculate the real length, X, of the plant cell.

Magnification = Image size / Real size

a)

2 micrometres

b)

20 micrometres

c)

200 micrometres

d)

2000 micrometres

7.

The figure shows what the student saw using the microscope at a magnification of ×400.
Line AB in Figure 2 shows the length of cell Z.

The length of line AB in is 49 mm.

Give your measurement of the length of line AB in micrometres (µm).
1 mm = 1 000 µm


(a)  

8.

The figure shows what the student saw using the microscope at a magnification of ×400.
Line AB in Figure 2 shows the length of cell Z.

The length of line AB in is 49 mm.

Calculate the real length of cell Z.
Magnification = image size / real size


(a)  

9.
Give two ways how onion cells would look different if they were seen using an electron microscope.


a)

The cells would be coloured.


b)


The cells would look more blurred.


c)

The cells would look larger.


d)

The cells would show more internal structures.


10.
A student prepared a microscope slide of cheek cells. The student looked at one cell using a microscope.
What should the student do to get a clear image?


a)

Adjust the focus knob


b)

Make the light dimmer


c)

Put water on the slide


11.

Ribosomes and mitochondria are not shown in the figure.
What type of microscope is needed to see ribosomes and mitochondria?


(a)  

12.
What is the advantage of using an electron microscope?
a)

Cheaper

b)

Higher magnification


c)

Lower resolution


13.

Which two parts in the diagram above are not found in an animal cell?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Cell membrane

c)

Cell wall

d)

Chloroplast

14.
Which two of the cells are plant cells?


a)

A and B

b)

A and D

c)

C and D

15.

Hormone that is released from pituitary gland that causes an egg to mature

a)

Oestrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

FSH

d)

LH

16.

Hormone that is released from ovaries that causes a uterus lining to thicken

a)

Oestrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

FSH

d)

LH

17.

Hormone that is released from ovaries that maintains thickening of uterus lining

a)

Oestrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

FSH

d)

LH

18.

What is a hormone?

a)

A chemical substance transported by neurones

b)

A chemical substance transported by the bloodstream

c)

An electrical impulse transported by neurones

d)

An electrical impulse transported by the bloodstream

19.

The diagram shows the position of some of the glands in the human body which release hormones.

Which label in the diagram shows the position of the pituitary gland?

Tick one box.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

20.

The diagram shows the position of some of the glands in the human body which release hormones.

Main gland that releases several hormones for different functions.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

21.

The diagram shows the position of some of the glands in the human body which release hormones.

Which label in the diagram shows the position of the pancreas?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

22.

Luteinising hormone (LH) is a hormone released by the pituitary gland.

What is the function of LH?

Tick one box.

a)

Controls blood glucose concentration

b)

Controls the formation of sperm

c)

Controls maturation of an egg

d)

Controls the release of an egg

23.

The diagram shows the relative levels of sex hormones of three young people over 30 days.

One person is an 8-year-old girl, one is an 18-year-old boy and the other is an 18-year-old girl. Which person is the 18-year-old boy?

a)

Person A

b)

Person B

c)

Person C

24.

Which of the following statements describes the role of insulin?

a)

lowers blood glucose levels

b)

raises blood glucose levels

c)

breaks down glycogen

d)

increases conversion of glucose to glycogen

25.

Which of the following statements describes the role of glucagon?

a)

lowers blood glucose levels

b)

raises blood glucose levels

c)

breaks down glycogen

d)

increases conversion of glucose to glycogen

26.

The diagram shows the position of two glands, A and B, in a woman.

Name gland A

a)
Pituitary
b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Ovaries

d)

Thyroid

27.

The diagram shows the position of two glands, A and B, in a woman.

Name gland B

a)
Pituitary
b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Ovaries

d)

Thyroid

28.

What do oestrogen and progesterone do in the menstrual cycle?

a)

They are involved in egg maturation in the ovaries

b)

They stimulate the release of the egg

c)

They are involved in maintaining the uterus lining

29.

How can Type 2 diabetes be caused?

a)

It can be inherited from family members

b)

Lack of exercise and a diet high in carbohydrates

c)

Not enough insulin being released by the pancreas

30.

Why does Type 2 diabetes occur?

a)

Not enough insulin produced by pancreas

b)

Cells no longer respond to insulin produced

c)

Insulin cannot be transported in blood stream

31.

How can Type 1 diabetes be caused?

a)

It can be inherited from family members

b)

Lack of exercise and a diet high in carbohydrates

c)

Not enough insulin being released by the pancreas

32.

Name the three different types of neurone in order from detection to response

a)

Sensory, motor and relay neurones

b)

Sensory, relay and motor neurones

c)

Relay, sensory and motor neurones

33.

What are effectors?

a)

Brain

b)

Muscles

c)

Spinal cord

d)

Glands

34.

What are cells that detect stimuli called?

a)

Response

b)

Stimulus

c)

Receptors

d)

Effector

35.

What are the stimuli detected by the skin?

a)

Touch, temperature and pain

b)

Chemicals (in food and drink, for example)

c)

Chemicals (in the air, for example)

d)

Light

36.

What can Type 1 diabetes be controlled by?

a)

Insulin injections

b)

Low carbohydrate diet

c)

Exercise

d)

High protein diet

37.

What hormone causes an egg to mature in an ovary & stimulates the ovaries to release oestrogen?

a)

Progesterone

b)

LH

c)

FSH

38.

What hormone stops FSH being produced (so that only one egg matures in a cycle), repairs & thickens the uterus lining?

a)

Progesterone

b)

LH

c)

Oestrogen

39.

Which hormone is detected by ovulation test kits

a)

Progesterone

b)

LH

c)

Oestrogen

d)

FSH

40.

The liver will take excess glucose from the blood and change and store the glucose as _____________________ .

a)

starch

b)

lactic acid

c)

glucagon

d)

glycogen

41.

Type 2 diabetes is another form of diabetes. Type 2 diabetes is common in obese people. People with Type 2 diabetes make enough insulin, but still cannot control their blood glucose concentration. This is because the body cells are not sensitive to the insulin. The graph shows information about abdominal fat and insulin sensitivity in body cells. What type of relationship is shown in this graph?

a)

A negative correlation

b)

exponential

c)

No correlation

d)

A positive correlation

42.

The diagram in Figure 1 shows a section through the human heart, seen from the front.

The wall of the heart is made of which type of tissue?

a)

epithelial

b)

glandular

c)

muscular

43.

The resting heart rate is controlled by the pacemaker. At which position is the pacemaker located?

a)

1

b)

6

c)

7

44.

Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the head and body?

a)

2

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

45.

Which chamber of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the head and body

a)

2

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

46.

Which chamber of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?

a)

2

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

47.

If a person’s heart rate is irregular, the person may be fitted with an artificial pacemaker.

The artificial pacemaker is

a)

an electrical device

b)

a pump

c)

a valve

48.

A person with Type 1 diabetes can control the concentration of glucose in the blood by injecting insulin. Insulin acts on an organ called the _____________________ .

a)

liver

b)

kidney

c)

pancreas

d)

thyroid

49.

The maintenance of a constant internal state in a changing environment is known as...

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Mitosis

c)

Active Transport

d)

Negative feedback

50.

How does the body lose water?

a)

Exhalation

b)

Urination

c)

Sweating

51.

The organs of our body that control water balance

a)

Liver

b)

Lungs

c)

Kidneys

d)

Brain

52.

Hormone released that helps kidneys control water loss from the body

a)

LH

b)

FSH

c)

ADH

d)

Adrenaline

53.

If the Pituitary gland releases MORE ADH ...

a)

The kidneys reabsorb LESS water

b)

The kidneys reabsorb MORE water

54.

When the kidney filter the blood ALL ____________ is left in the bloodstream.

a)

ions

b)

glucose

c)

protein

d)

water

55.

When the kidney reabsorb substances back into the blood , ALL ____________ is reabsorbed.

a)

ions

b)

glucose

c)

water

d)

urea

56.

What does the sensory neurone send an electrical impulse on to in a reflex action?

a)

Motor neurone

b)

Brain

c)

Relay neurone

d)

Effector

57.

What is the small gap (or junction) where two neurones meet called?

a)

Effector

b)

Receptor

c)

Synapse

58.
Why are reflex actions faster than a normal nervous response?
a)
A.   Because the nerve impulses move faster in a reflex action
b)
B.   Because nerve impulses do not involve the conscious part of the brain
c)
C.   Because the response travels through fewer neurones.
d)
D.   It travels across the synapses quicker
59.
How does a nerve impulse move across the synapse?
a)
A.   It jumps across the gap
b)

B.   The chemical (neurotransmitter) diffuses across the gap

c)
C.   The impulse spreads out.
d)
D.   The impulse starts again.
60.

How do you measure the size of the zone of inhibition?

a)

π x r 2

b)

π x r 2 x h

c)

length x width

61.

 Which part of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

62.

 Which part of the heart pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

63.

 Which part of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the body?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

64.

 Which part of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the body?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

65.
A group of cells called the pacemaker controls the resting heart rate.
Where in the heart is the pacemaker found?
a)

Left atrium

b)

Left ventricle

c)

Right atrium

d)

Right ventricle

66.

Describe two ways that the structure of an artery is different from the structure of a vein.

a)

 artery has a thicker muscle tissue

b)

 artery has a narrower lumen

c)

 artery has thinner layers of muscle tissue

d)

 artery contains valves

67.
Students investigated the effect of temperature on the decay of milk. The decay was caused by bacteria in the milk.
1. Set up the apparatus as shown in Figure 1 with the milk at 20 °C.
2. Record the pH each day for 7 days.
3. Repeat with more samples of milk at 5 °C and at 30 °C.
What was the dependent variable in the investigation?
a)
The pH of the milk
b)

The type of milk

c)

The volume of the milk

68.
Students investigated the effect of temperature on the decay of milk. The decay was caused by bacteria in the milk.
1. Set up the apparatus as shown in Figure 1 with the milk at 20 °C.
2. Record the pH each day for 7 days.
3. Repeat with more samples of milk at 5 °C and at 30 °C.
What was the independent variable in the investigation?
a)
The pH of the milk
b)

The type of milk

c)

The temperature of the milk

69.
Students investigated the effect of temperature on the decay of milk. The decay was caused by bacteria in the milk.
1. Set up the apparatus as shown in Figure 1 with the milk at 20 °C.
2. Record the pH each day for 7 days.
3. Repeat with more samples of milk at 5 °C and at 30 °C.
What was the control variable in the investigation?
a)
The pH of the milk
b)

The type of milk

c)

The temperature of the milk

70.
Students investigated the effect of temperature on the decay of milk. The decay was caused by bacteria in the milk.
1. Set up the apparatus as shown in Figure 1 with the milk at 20 °C.
2. Record the pH each day for 7 days.
3. Repeat with more samples of milk at 5 °C and at 30 °C.
How could the students keep the milk at 30 °C for 7 days?
a)
Put a lid on the beaker.
b)

Put the beaker in a water bath.

c)

Stir the milk continuously.

d)

Wrap cloth around the beaker.

71.
Students investigated the effect of temperature on the decay of milk. The decay was caused by bacteria in the milk.
1. Set up the apparatus as shown in Figure 1 with the milk at 20 °C.
2. Record the pH each day for 7 days.
3. Repeat with more samples of milk at 5 °C and at 30 °C.
As the milk decays, the bacteria digest lipids in the milk.
What type of acid is produced by digestion of lipids in the milk?
a)
Amino acid
b)

Fatty acid

c)

Hydrochloric acid

72.
Students investigated the effect of temperature on the decay of milk. The decay was caused by bacteria in the milk.
1. Set up the apparatus as shown in Figure 1 with the milk at 20 °C.
2. Record the pH each day for 7 days.
3. Repeat with more samples of milk at 5 °C and at 30 °C.
As the milk decays, the bacteria digest lipids in the milk.
What do the acids produced cause to happen to the pH?
a)
Increase
b)

Decrease

c)

No effect

73.

As the milk decays, the bacteria digest fats in the milk.

Figure 2 shows the results.

Why did the pH not fall below pH 4.5 at 20 °C?

a)

All the fat had been digested.

b)

The reaction was too fast.

c)

The temperature was too low.

74.

As the milk decays, the bacteria digest fats in the milk.

Figure 2 shows the results.

Why did the pH not fall below pH 4.5 at 20 °C?

a)

All the fat had been digested.

b)

The reaction was too fast.

c)

The temperature was too low.

75.

The digestion of fat was fastest at 30 °C and slowest at 5 °C.

Give two reasons why the rate of digestion was faster at 30 °C than at 5 °C.

a)

 enzyme activity is higher

b)

 enzyme activity is lower

c)

 there is more kinetic energy

d)

there is less kinetic energy

76.

Which two blood vessels carry deoxygenated blood?

a)

Aorta

b)

Vena cava

c)

Pulmonary artery

d)

Pulmonary vein

77.

 Which type of blood vessel carries blood into the right atrium?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

78.

 Which type of blood vessel requires a stent inserted to keep the walls open if blocked with fatty deposits, to allow more blood to flow freely?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

79.

A is a(an)

a)

Artery

b)

Vein

c)

Capillary

80.

B is a(an)

a)

Artery

b)

Vein

c)

Capillary

81.

C is a(an)

a)

Artery

b)

Vein

c)

Capillary

82.

Glandular tissue

a)

Allows food to be churned around the stomach`

b)

Covers the outside and inside of the stomach

c)

Produces digestive juices

d)

Coordinates nerve impulses

83.

Muscular tissue

a)

Contracts and allows food to be churned around the stomach`

b)

Covers the outside and inside of the stomach

c)

Produces digestive juices

d)

Coordinates nerve impulses

84.

On what day does ovulation occur during the menstrual cycle?

a)

14

b)

1

c)

5

85.

During what day does menstruation occur?

a)

Day 1 - 5

b)

Day 14

c)

Day 15-28

86.

Which blood vessel(s) has a thicker wall or thicker layer of muscle?

a)

Artery

b)

Capillary

c)

Vein

87.

Which blood vessel(s) transports blood under high pressure?

a)

Artery

b)

Capillary

c)

Vein

88.

Which blood vessel(s) doesn’t have valves?

a)

Artery

b)

Capillary

c)

Vein

89.

What type of blood vessel is H?

a)

Artery

b)

Capillary

c)

Vein

90.

What type of blood vessel is G?

a)

Artery

b)

Capillary

c)

Vein

91.

What type of blood vessel is F?

a)

Artery

b)

Capillary

c)

Vein

92.
Malignant tumours are cancers.
Which two sentences describe malignant tumours?
a)

Malignant tumours are only found in the reproductive system.

b)

Malignant tumours have cells that can spread to other parts of the body.

c)

Malignant tumours may form secondary tumours.

d)

Malignant tumours do not change in size.

93.

Tick the rules of aseptic technique

a)

Heat the loop in the top blue part of the flame

b)

Wave the loop around to cool after heating to prevent bacteria being killed

c)

Open the lid of petri dish slightly to add loop

d)

Seal the petri dish all the way round after adding the bacteria

94.

How can we avoid the agar plate being cross contaminated with unwanted microorganisms when it is open? Pick all that apply?

a)

Work near a bunsen

b)

Wipe the surface of the agar with antiseptic

c)

Minimise the time the lid is open and close it as soon as you are finished inoculation

d)

Pass the agar through the bunsen flame

95.

Why is it important that the Petri plates are incubated upside down?

a)

To decrease the growth of bacterial colonies

b)

To keep the nutrients in the agar

c)

To prevent moisture from condensing onto the agar surface

d)

To increase growth of the bacterial colonies

96.

The loop should be sterilised before dipping into the bacterial culture in the

a)

yellow part of flame

b)

top blue part

c)

any

d)

bottom blue part

97.

Which antibiotic is most effective at inhibiting the growth of bacteria?

a)

Left

b)

Top

c)

Bottom

d)

Right

98.
In an investigation to see the effects of antiobiotics on bacterial growth, what would you expect to happen to the clear zone around the antibiotic disc, as the concentration of the antibiotic was increased?
a)
the area of the clear space would increase
b)
the area of the clear space would decrease
c)
there would be no difference in the size of the clear area
d)
there would be no clear area
99.
What do we call the technique used during experiments that ensures no other microoganisms contaminate the results?
a)
aseptic
b)
antiseptic
c)
hygienic
d)
antibiotic
100.

Why is kidney dialysis used?

a)

It is a quick, easy and mobile method readily available

b)

To clean the blood of patients' whose kidneys aren't working properly

c)

For cosmetic reasons

101.

Why does sweat help to cool us down?

a)

It makes your clothes damp and you feel cooler

b)

The sweat sits on your skin and cools you down because it is a liquid

c)

Sweat removes thermal energy from the skin during evaporation

102.

What happens during vasodilation?

a)

Blood vessels narrow and shrink away from the skin's surface

b)

Blood vessels widen so more blood flows through capillaries in the skin

c)

Blood vessels move down in the skin

103.

Why do the hairs on our skin sometimes stand up when we are cold?

a)

To trap air under them in order to keep us warmer

b)

To know when we are frightened

c)

The hairs stand up in order to cool us down when we are too hot

104.

What is phototropism?

a)

Growth stimulated by water

b)

Growth stimulated by light

c)

Growth inhibited by light

105.

What is positive phototropism?

a)

Plants grow towards the light source

b)

Plants grow away from the light source

c)

Plants grow down towards the ground

106.

Where are auxins made in the plant?

a)

In the growing tip of a stem or root

b)

In the older part of a stem or root

c)

All plant cells can make auxins

107.

Which side of a stem contains more auxin?

a)

The shaded side

b)

The side in the light

c)

Both sides (shaded and non-shaded) contain the same amount of auxin