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INGLÉS VI 3ER PARCIAL 25-2

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is it checked in RUE part 3?

a)

It is a multiple matching exercise.

b)

It is a multiple choice exercise

c)

It is a word formation exercise

d)

It is a kew word transformation sentence

2.

How much time do you have to do the Paper 2 of FCE (Writing)?

a)

1 hour 15 mins

b)

1 hour 30 mins

c)

1 hour 20 mins

d)

1 hour 10 mins

3.

What do you have to write on the compulsory task?

a)

a story

b)

an essay

c)

a letter

d)

an email

4.

How many questions do you have to answer in Writting Part 1?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

none

d)

3

5.

How many words are you allowed to write in both writting tasks?

a)

140 - 170

b)

140 - 180

c)

140 - 190

d)

140 - 200

6.

Is there any extra information, apart from the question, to help you write your writing answer in Part 1?

a)

No

b)

The notes

c)

Some vocabulary

d)

The title

7.

How many ideas must you write about in Writting Part 1?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

8.

The parts you should include in your ESSAY are:

a)

Introduction, Problem + Solution, Conclusion

b)

Introduction, Point 1, Point 2, Conclusion

c)

Introduction, Point 1, Point 2, Point 3, Conclusion

d)

Introduction, Point 1, Point 2, Point 3, Point 4

9.

Somr examples of LINKING WORDS you can use in your writtings are?

a)

Should, would, could...

b)

One, two, three...

c)

Moreover, in spite of, firstly...

d)

I have, I had, I will have

10.

What type of register should you use in Part 1?

a)

informal

b)

casual

c)

formal

d)

neutral

11.

In which part of the essay you should paraphrase the question?

a)

Introduction

b)

Point 1

c)

Point 2

d)

Point 3

12.

What's the exam total length approx?

a)

6 hours

b)

2.5 hours

c)

3.5 hours

d)

1 hour

13.

How many writings do you have to do?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

14.

How many candidates can take the speaking exam?

a)

1-2

b)

2-3

c)

3-4

15.

I bought a beautiful dress at the mall.

Which part of speech is the word in bold?

a)

preposition

b)

adjective

c)

noun

16.

What did she ask you to do?

Which part of speech is the word in bold?

a)

preposition

b)

pronoun

c)

noun

17.

I left my shoes under the kitchen table.

Which part of speech is the word in bold?

a)

preposition

b)

verb

c)

noun

18.

If we finish our work quickly we can go to the movies.

Which part of speech is the word in bold?

a)

verb

b)

conjunction

c)

adverb

19.

On Saturdays I work from nine to five.

Which part of speech is the word in bold?

a)

verb

b)

preposition

c)

adverb

20.

What is the level of the FCE exam?

a)

A1

b)

A2

c)

B1

d)

B2

21.

How many different papers are there in the Cambridge First exam?

a)

3 papers

b)

4 papers

c)

5 papers

d)

6 papers

22.

What is the average percentage you need to pass the FCE Cambridge exam?

a)

55%

b)

60%

c)

65%

d)

70%

23.

You normally do the whole test on one day?

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

24.

Which of these is NOT part of the FCE exam?

a)

Reading

b)

Writing

c)

Listening

d)

Pronunciation

25.

What order do you do the exam in?

a)

Lstening, Reading and Use of English, Writing

b)

Writing, Listening, Reading and Use of English

c)

Reading and Use of English, writing, Listening

d)

Reading and use of English, Listening, Writing

26.

Every skill of the FCE exam is worth 20%?

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

27.

How many parts are there in Reading and Use Of English?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

28.

How many parts are there in the Listening paper?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

29.

How many parts are there in the Speaking paper?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

30.

How long is the speaking exam?

a)

14 min

b)

15 min

c)

16 min

31.

How many pictures do you need to describe?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

32.

What does FCE stand for?

a)

Free Certificate in English

b)

First Certificate in English

c)

First Class English

d)

Fifty Cent English

33.

What type of English does the FCE test? (2 answers)

a)

Academic English

b)

Business English

c)

General English

d)

Technical English

34.

What type of English is used in FCE exam?

a)

American English

b)

British English

c)

Canadian English

d)

International English

35.

How long will the candidate’s Statement of Results be released online after taking the test?

a)

1-2 weeks

b)

2-3 weeks

c)

4-6 weeks

d)

About 8 weeks

36.

Which CEFR level you will gain if you score 177 in the FCE exam?

a)

B1

b)

B2

c)

C1

d)

C2

37.

How many parts and question in FCE's Reading and Use of English?

a)

7 parts/52 questions

b)

6 parts/42 questions

c)

7 parts/56 questions

d)

7 parts/50 questions

38.

Which part is sentence completetion in FCE listening?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

39.

Which parts in speaking do you speak with your partner?

a)

3,4

b)

2,3

c)

3

d)

2

40.

What level are you?

Can produce clear, detailed text on a wide range of subjects and explain a viewpoint on a topical issue giving the advantage s and disadvantages of various options.

a)

B1

b)

B2

c)

C1

d)

C2

41.

What level are you?

Can interact with a degree of fluency and spontaneity that makes regular interaction with native speakers quite possible without strain for either party.

a)

A1

b)

A2

c)

B1

d)

B2

42.

What skills are tested in the B2 First exam?

a)

Reading & Use of English, Listening, Writing

b)

Listening, Speaking, Writing

c)

Grammar, Listening, Speaking

d)

Speaking and Writing

43.

Part 1 of the B2 FCE Speaking Test is

a)

A conversation between the interlocutor and each candidate.

b)

A conversation between the each candidate.

c)

A conversation between the assistant and each candidate.

d)

An introduction of the candidates.

44.

Part 2 of the B2 FCE Test is called

a)

Long Turn for each candidate.

b)

Long Turn for the candidate and the interlocutor.

c)

Long Turn between each candidate.

d)

Long Turn for each candidate and a response from the other candidate.

45.

Part 4 of the B2 FCE Test is

a)

a discussion about your interests.

b)

a discussion related to Part 2.

c)

a discussion related to Part 3.

d)

a discussion related to Part 1.

46.

Choose the correct response:

Candidate A: Shall I go first? 

a)

Candidate B: Of course not!

b)

Candidate B: No, thanks.

c)

Candidate B: I think I should go first.

d)

Candidate B: Sure, go ahead.

47.

For the questions below, please choose the best option to complete the sentence or conversation.

Can I park here?

a)

Sorry, I did that.

b)

It's the same place.

c)

Only for half an hour.

48.

For the questions below, please choose the best option to complete the sentence or conversation.

I can't understand this email.

a)

Would you like some help?

b)

Don't you know?

c)

I suppose you can.

49.

For the questions below, please choose the best option to complete the sentence The singer ended the concert ...... her most popular song.

a)

by

b)

with

c)

in

50.

What does it mean to be 'a little under the weather'?

a)

Feeling slightly unwell or sick.

b)

Having a picnic in the park

c)

Experiencing a sunny day

d)

Feeling slightly over the moon

51.

What does the phrase 'in my eyes' imply?

a)

Personal perspective or opinion

b)

Musical talent

c)

Physical vision impairment

d)

Emotional intelligence

52.

There was a (a)   light in the sky MYSTERY

53.

Henry lost his keys again, I wish he wasn't so (a)   ! CARE

54.

I haven't spent such an (a)   evening for a long time! ENJOY

55.

Their (a)   behaviour means that we can no longer trust them. RESPONSIBLE

56.

In part 4 of the Reading test, there are 5 people with 9 paragraphs to choose.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Which option is the Listening part 2 format?

a)

Each question has a short recording and 3 pictures

b)

5 different situations for each questions

c)

Listen to a long conversation and choose the correct answers

58.

Which is the only paper you will use a pen?

a)

Reading

b)

Writing

c)

Listening

59.

Do you have some time to copy the answers from Listening to the Answer Key?

a)

Yes, 10 minutes at the end of the listening.

b)

No, you have to do it as you are listening.

c)

Yes, 5 minutes at the end of the listening.

60.

What are the passing grades in FCE?

a)

A: 180–190 / B: 173–179 / C: 160–172

b)

A: 173–179 / B: 160–172 / C: 140–159

c)

A: 180–190 / B: 160–172

61.

Which statement about chicle is best supported by this article?

a)

Japan is the largest buyer of chicle

b)

Chicle is difficult to grow

c)

Mexico exports the majority of chicle to other countries.

d)

Chicle originated in the United States.

62.

What does this book contain?

a)

recipes for the family

b)

children's artwork

c)

cartoon stickers

d)

ideas for parties

63.

What must consumers do to qualify for the rewards?

a)

make a purchase

b)

provide an opinion

c)

attend a movie premier

d)

join a club

64.

What must you submit to enter this contest?

a)

ideas for creating a new web site

b)

an original short story or poem

c)

a photograph of a landscape

d)

recommendations of vacation sites

65.
She has a strong....
a)
person
b)
personality
66.
They don't get along, they are always have strong
a)
argues
b)
arguments
67.
Could please give me a......of your mother-in-law?
a)
describe
b)
description
68.
Do uou have a good.....with your stepfather?
a)
relation
b)
relationship
69.
.......is the most precious value in our lives.
a)
friendship
b)
friend
70.
This is such an........holiday
a)
excited
b)
exciting
71.

Rewrite the following sentence using the word given

IF ONLY

I regret selling my car to that man.

(a)   sold my car to that man.

72.

Rewrite the following sentence using the word given

ALLOWED

Students mustn't enter here.

Students (a)   to enter here.

73.

Rewrite the following sentence using the word given

HAVE

It wasn't necessary for her to do the laundy yesterday.

She (a)   do the laundry yesterday.