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St.JOSEPH'S CISCO IDEATHON ROUND 1 ONLINE ASSESSMENT @ 23/6/24

Total questions: 54

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 110. What service is the client requesting?

a)
  • DNS

b)
  • POP3

c)
  • DHCP

d)
  • SMTP

2.

A wired laser printer is attached to a home computer. That printer has been shared so that other computers on the home network can also use the printer. What networking model is in use?

a)
  • client-based

b)
  • master-slave

c)
  • peer-to-peer (P2P)

d)
  • point-to-point

3.

Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

a)
  • Audio conference, financial transactions, web page

b)
  • financial transactions, audio conference, web page

c)
  • financial transactions, web page, audio conference

4.

Refer to the exhibit. If Host1 were to transfer a file to the server, what layers of the TCP/IP model would be used?

a)
  • application, session, transport, network, data link, and physical layers

b)
  • application, transport, Internet, and network access layers

c)
  • only application, Internet, and network access layers

d)
  • only Internet and network access layers

5.

A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)

a)

RFI

b)
  • EMI

c)
  • crosstalk

d)
  • signal attenuation

6.

A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN segment, but there are currently no mappings in its ARP cache. How will the device obtain a destination MAC address?

a)
  • It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the default gateway.

b)
  • It will send the frame and use its own MAC address as the destination.

c)
  • It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the destination device.

d)
  • It will send the frame with a broadcast MAC address.

7.

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 53. What service is the client requesting?

a)
  • POP3

b)
  • DNS

c)
  • IMAP

d)
  • NetBIOS (NetBT)

8.

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 25 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

a)
  • 255.255.255.224

b)
  • 255.255.255.128

c)
  • 255.255.255.192

d)
  • 255.255.255.240

9.

A technician with a PC is using multiple applications while connected to the Internet. How is the PC able to keep track of the data flow between multiple application sessions and have each application receive the correct packet flows?

a)
  • The data flow is being tracked based on the destination IP address that is used by the PC of the technician.

b)
  • The data flow is being tracked based on the source IP address that is used by the PC of the technician.

c)
  • The data flow is being tracked based on the destination MAC address of the technician PC.

d)
  • The data flow is being tracked based on the source port number that is used by each application.

10.

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 61 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

a)
  • 255.255.255.192

b)
  • 255.255.255.240

c)
  • 255.255.255.224

d)
  • 255.255.255.128

11.

Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?

a)
  • A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.

b)
  • A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what device is being used to view the web site.

c)
  • A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are encoded within the transport layer header.

d)
  • A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the same network.

12.

Refer to the exhibit. Host B on subnet Teachers transmits a packet to host D on subnet Students. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses are contained in the PDUs that are transmitted from host B to the router?

a)

Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-dd
Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200

b)

Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab
Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200

c)

Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-cd
Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.99
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200

d)

Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab
Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
Layer 3 source address = 172.16.100.200

13.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

a)
  • The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.

b)
  • The administrator is already in global configuration mode.

c)

The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command

d)
  • The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.

14.

Which two protocols operate at the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose two.)

a)
  • POP

b)
  • DNS

c)
  • TCP

d)
  • UDP

15.

A company has a file server that shares a folder named Public. The network security policy specifies that the Public folder is assigned Read-Only rights to anyone who can log into the server while the Edit rights are assigned only to the network admin group. Which component is addressed in the AAA network service framework?

a)
  • authorization

b)
  • automation

c)
  • accounting

d)
  • authentication

16.

An employee of a large corporation remotely logs into the company using the appropriate username and password. The employee is attending an important video conference with a customer concerning a large sale. It is important for the video quality to be excellent during the meeting. The employee is unaware that after a successful login, the connection to the company ISP failed. The secondary connection, however, activated within seconds. The disruption was not noticed by the employee or other employees.
What three network characteristics are described in this scenario? (Choose three.)

a)
  • security

b)
  • quality of service

c)
  • fault tolerance

d)
  • scalability

17.

Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

a)
  • 192.168.1.64/26

b)
  • 192.168.1.32/27

c)
  • 192.168.1.32/28

d)
  • 192.168.1.64/29

18.

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 90 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

a)
  • 255.255.255.128

b)
  • 255.255.255.240

c)
  • 255.255.255.248

d)
  • 255.255.255.224

19.

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 80. What service is the client requesting?

a)
  • HTTP

b)
  • DNS

c)
  • SMTP

d)
  • DHCP

20.

A technician can ping the IP address of the web server of a remote company but cannot successfully ping the URL address of the same web server. Which software utility can the technician use to diagnose the problem?

a)
  • nslookup

b)
  • tracert

c)
  • ipconfig

d)
  • netstat

21.

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 67. What service is the client requesting?

a)
  • DHCP

b)
  • FTP

c)
  • Telnet

d)
  • SSH

22.

What are the three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

a)
  • subnet ID

b)
  • global routing prefix

c)
  • interface ID

d)
  • subnet mask

23.

A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.)

a)
  • interference

b)
  • security

c)
  • coverage area

d)
  • mobility options

24.

What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

a)
  • CSMA/CD

b)
  • CSMA/CA

c)
  • token passing

d)
  • priority ordering

25.

Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?

a)
  • FE80::/10

b)
  • FEC0::/10

c)
  • FF00::/8

d)
  • FDEE::/7

26.

Which two statements accurately describe an advantage or a disadvantage when deploying NAT for IPv4 in a network? (Choose two.)

a)
  • NAT introduces problems for some applications that require end-to-end connectivity.

b)
  • NAT provides a solution to slow down the IPv4 address depletion.

c)
  • NAT improves packet handling.

d)
  • NAT will impact negatively on switch performance.

27.

Which two statements are correct in a comparison of IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers? (Choose two.)

a)
  • The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.

b)
  • The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6.

c)
  • The Version field from IPv4 is not kept in IPv6.

d)
  • The Destination Address field is new in IPv6.

28.

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 143. What service is the client requesting?

a)
  • IMAP

b)
  • FTP

c)
  • SSH

d)
  • Telnet

29.

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 21. What service is the client requesting?

a)
  • LDAP

b)
  • FTP

c)
  • SLP

d)
  • SNMP

30.

What technique is used with UTP cable to help protect against signal interference from crosstalk?

a)
  • twisting the wires together into pairs

b)
  • wrapping a foil shield around the wire pairs

c)
  • terminating the cable with special grounded connectors

d)
  • encasing the cables within a flexible plastic sheath

31.

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 22. What service is the client requesting?

a)
  • SSH

b)
  • HTTPS

c)
  • SLP

d)
  • SMB/CIFS

32.

Two pings were issued from a host on a local network. The first ping was issued to the IP address of the default gateway of the host and it failed. The second ping was issued to the IP address of a host outside the local network and it was successful. What is a possible cause for the failed ping?

a)
  • The default gateway is not operational.

b)
  • The default gateway device is configured with the wrong IP address.

c)
  • Security rules are applied to the default gateway device, preventing it from processing ping requests.

d)
  • The TCP/IP stack on the default gateway is not working properly.

33.

What subnet mask is needed if an IPv4 network has 40 devices that need IP addresses and address space is not to be wasted?

a)
  • 255.255.255.192

b)
  • 255.255.255.240

c)
  • 255.255.255.128

34.

Which two statements are correct about MAC and IP addresses during data transmission if NAT is not involved? (Choose two.)

a)
  • Destination IP addresses in a packet header remain constant along the entire path to a target host.

b)
  • Destination and source MAC addresses have local significance and change every time a frame goes from one LAN to another.

c)
  • Destination MAC addresses will never change in a frame that goes across seven routers.

d)
  • Every time a frame is encapsulated with a new destination MAC address, a new destination IP address is needed.

35.

A user sends an HTTP request to a web server on a remote network. During encapsulation for this request, what information is added to the address field of a frame to indicate the destination?

a)
  • the MAC address of the default gateway

b)
  • the network domain of the destination host

c)
  • the IP address of the default gateway

36.

Data is being sent from a source PC to a destination server. Which three statements correctly describe the function of TCP or UDP in this situation? (Choose three.)

a)
  • The source port field identifies the running application or service that will handle data returning to the PC.

b)
  • UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for transport across the network.

c)
  • The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server which will handle the data.

d)
  • TCP is the preferred protocol when a function requires lower network overhead.

37.

A user is complaining that an external web page is taking longer than normal to load.The web page does eventually load on the user machine. Which tool should the technician use with administrator privileges in order to locate where the issue is in the network?

a)
  • ping

b)
  • tracert

c)
  • nslookup

d)
  • ipconfig /displaydns

38.

A network technician is researching the use of fiber optic cabling in a new technology center. Which two issues should be considered before implementing fiber optic media? (Choose two.)

a)
  • Fiber optic cabling requires different termination and splicing expertise from what copper cabling requires.

b)
  • Fiber optic provides higher data capacity but is more expensive than copper cabling.

c)
  • Fiber optic cabling requires specific grounding to be immune to EMI.

d)
  • Fiber optic cabling is susceptible to loss of signal due to RFI.

39.

Which option shows a correctly configured IPv4 default static route?

a)
  • ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0

b)
  • ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0

c)
  • ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 S0/0/0

d)
  • ip route 0.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 S0/0/0

40.

What is a secure configuration option for remote access to a network device?

a)
  • Configure SSH.

b)
  • Configure Telnet.

c)
  • Configure 802.1x.

d)
  • Configure an ACL and apply it to the VTY lines.

41.

Which wireless encryption method is the most secure?

a)
  • WPA2 with AES

b)
  • WPA2 with TKIP

c)
  • WEP

d)
  • WPA

42.

After attaching four PCs to the switch ports, configuring the SSID and setting authentication properties for a small office network, a technician successfully tests the connectivity of all PCs that are connected to the switch and WLAN. A firewall is then configured on the device prior to connecting it to the Internet. What type of network device includes all of the described features?

a)
  • wireless router

b)
  • firewall appliance

c)
  • switch

d)
  • standalone wireless access point

43.

Which three steps should be taken before moving a Cisco switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.)


a)
  • Select the correct VTP mode and version.

b)
  • Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.

c)
  • Reboot the switch.

d)
  • Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.

44.

What two default wireless router settings can affect network security? (Choose two.)

a)
  • The SSID is broadcast.

b)
  • WEP encryption is enabled.

c)
  • A well-known administrator password is set.

d)
  • The wireless channel is automatically selected.

45.

A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

a)
  • IP address

b)
  • vty lines

c)
  • default gateway

d)
  • VTP domain

46.

A technician is troubleshooting a slow WLAN and decides to use the split-the-traffic approach. Which two parameters would have to be configured to do this? (Choose two.)

a)
  • Configure the 5 GHz band for streaming multimedia and time sensitive traffic.

b)
  • Configure the 2.4 GHz band for basic internet traffic that is not time sensitive.

c)
  • Configure the security mode to WPA Personal TKIP/AES for both networks.

d)
  • Configure the security mode to WPA Personal TKIP/AES for one network and WPA2 Personal AES for the other network

47.

A company security policy requires that all MAC addressing be dynamically learned and added to both the MAC address table and the running configuration on each switch. Which port security configuration will accomplish this?

a)
  • sticky secure MAC addresses

b)
  • auto secure MAC addresses

c)
  • dynamic secure MAC addresses

d)
  • auto secure MAC addresses

48.

Which three Wi-Fi standards operate in the 2.4GHz range of frequencies? (Choose three.)

a)
  • 802.11b

b)
  • 802.11g

c)
  • 802.11n

d)
  • 802.11ac

49.

What protocol or technology defines a group of routers, one of them defined as active and another one as standby?


a)
  • HSRP

b)
  • EtherChannel

c)
  • DTP

d)
  • VTP

50.

A network engineer is troubleshooting a newly deployed wireless network that is using the latest 802.11 standards. When users access high bandwidth services such as streaming video, the wireless network performance is poor. To improve performance the network engineer decides to configure a 5 Ghz frequency band SSID and train users to use that SSID for streaming media services. Why might this solution improve the wireless network performance for that type of service?

a)
  • Requiring the users to switch to the 5 GHz band for streaming media is inconvenient and will result in fewer users accessing these services.

b)
  • The 5 GHz band has a greater range and is therefore likely to be interference-free.

c)
  • The 5 GHz band has more channels and is less crowded than the 2.4 GHz band, which makes it more suited to streaming multimedia.

d)
  • The only users that can switch to the 5 GHz band will be those with the latest wireless NICs, which will reduce usage.

51.

A network administrator has found a user sending a double-tagged 802.1Q frame to a switch. What is the best solution to prevent this type of attack?

a)
  • The native VLAN number used on any trunk should be one of the active data VLANs.

b)
  • The VLANs for user access ports should be different VLANs than any native VLANs used on trunk ports.

c)
  • Trunk ports should be configured with port security.

d)
  • Trunk ports should use the default VLAN as the native VLAN number.

52.

Which three statements accurately describe duplex and speed settings on Cisco 2960 switches? (Choose three.)

a)
  • An autonegotiation failure can result in connectivity issues.

b)
  • When the speed is set to 1000 Mb/s, the switch ports will operate in full-duplex mode.

c)
  • The duplex and speed settings of each switch port can be manually configured.

d)
  • By default, the speed is set to 100 Mb/s and the duplex mode is set to autonegotiation.

53.

Branch users were able to access a site in the morning but have had no connectivity with the site since lunch time. What should be done or checked?

a)
  • Use the “show ip interface brief” command to see if an interface is down.

b)
  • Verify that the static route to the server is present in the routing table.

c)
  • Check the configuration on the floating static route and adjust the AD.

d)
  • Create a floating static route to that network.

54.

Which two things should a network administrator modify on a router to perform password recovery?

a)
  • the configuration register value

b)
  • the startup configuration file

c)
  • system ROM

d)
  • the NVRAM file system