wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

MI 1.2 Practice Quiz F24

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 1hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which part of the bacteria contains Peptidoglycan?

a)

Lipoproteins

b)

Cell wall

c)

Cell membrane

d)

Porin channel

2.

Which type of bacteria contains more than 1 layer of phospholipids?

a)

Gram Negative

b)

Gram Positive

c)

Both (-) and (+)

3.

Which layer of the bacteria is dyed/stained purple?

a)

Cell membrane

b)

cell wall

c)

capsule

d)

slime layer

4.

What type of bacteria is pictured?

a)

spirillium

b)

coccus

c)

bacillus

5.

Which type of bacteria contains more than 1 layer of phospholipids?

a)

Gram Negative

b)

Gram Positive

c)

Both (-) and (+)

6.

What type of bacteria is pictured?

a)

coccus

b)

spirilium

c)

bacillus

7.
Bacteria that stain red or pink are called
a)
gram positive
b)
gram negative
8.

This is an example of the staining of what type of bacteria?

a)

That's not bacteria

b)

Gram positive

c)

Both types of bacteria

d)

Gram negative

9.

These bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan cell wall and therefore no outer membrane (capsule).

a)

True

b)

False

10.

These bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan cell wall and therefore have an outer membrane (capsule) to help protect them.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

a long, whip-like structure that helps a cell to move.

a)

pasteurization

b)

bacteria

c)

flagellum

d)

endospore

12.
Name this bacteria shape
a)
bacillus
b)
coccus
c)
spirillum
13.
A disease causing organism
a)
pathogen
b)
poison
c)
vaccine
14.
Strep throat is caused by 
a)
bacteria
b)
virus
15.
The flu is caused by
a)
bacteria
b)
virus
16.
All bacteria are
a)
unicellular
b)
multicellular
c)
eukaryotic
17.
Plates should be incubated
a)
agar side up
b)
agar side down 
c)
it doesn't matter
18.
When streaking a plate, the lid should be
a)
placed on the bench top, top side up 
b)
placed on the bench top, inside surface up
c)
should be held in the same hand as the plate 
d)
should be held in the opposite hand from the plate
19.
When streaking a plate, the loop should be flamed
a)
At the beginning and end 
b)
 At the beginning and end and between the first 2 zones 
c)
At the beginning and end and between the second and third zone 
d)
At the beginning and end and between each zone 
20.
The bacteriology loop should be sterilized in what part of the Bunsen burner flame? 
a)
in the bright blue cone
b)
just above the bright blue cone
c)
above the flame
d)
at the base of the flame
21.
When transferring liquid aseptically from one tube to another, you should
a)
remove the cap of the tube with the little finger of the hand holding the pipette
b)
remove the cap of the tube with the little finger of the hand holding the tube
c)
place the cap on the bench top with the inside up
d)
place the cap on the bench top with the inside down
22.
What is the first thing you should do?
a)
put on gloves
b)
wash your hands
c)
sterilize your workspace
23.
What is the last thing you should do?
a)
take off your gloves
b)
wash your hands
c)
sterilize your workspace
24.

If the results of the Kirby Bauer test line up with the "Sensitive" category for that antibiotic, that means that

a)

the antibiotic would not effectively treat that bacterial strain

b)

that antibiotic would be a good choice for treatment

c)

it is MRSA

d)

the person is allergic to that antibiotic

25.

In the Kirby Bauer test, we measure the

a)

diameter of the zone of inhibition

b)

radius of the zone of inhibition

c)

minimum inhibitory concentration

d)

time it takes for the bacteria to be killed by the antibiotic

26.

When the Kirby Bauer test is performed the plate is inoculated

a)

with a lawn of bacteria

b)

in a quadrant streak pattern

c)

and incubated overnight before antibiotics are added

27.

Based on the figure, which antibiotic inhibited/stopped the growth of the bacteria the most?

a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
28.
The area where bacteria cannot survive because of the antibiotic:
a)
zone of inhibition
b)
zone of prohibition
c)
the friend zone
d)

zone of conjugation

29.

How many antibiotics does the bacteria seem to be resistant to?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

All of them

d)

None of them

30.

If you take antibiotics, the non-resistant bacteria die while the resistant bacteria survive and pass their antibiotic resistance trait to their offspring. This is an example of...

a)

DNA replication

b)

natural selection

c)

meiosis

d)

a virus

31.

To prevent antibiotic resistance from developing, you should... (Select all that apply.)

a)

only use antibiotics when needed

b)

only take half the amount of antibiotics prescribed by your doctor

c)

only take antibiotics for viruses

d)

complete the full amount of antibiotics prescribed by your doctor

32.

Taking antibiotics when they are not needed can weaken the effectiveness of the antibiotics.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Bacteria develop antibiotic resistance through ______________.

a)

mutations & artificial selection

b)

mutations & natural selection

c)

mitosis &

meiosis

d)

apples and bananas

34.
How has antibiotic resistance changed over time?
a)

It hasn't changed at all.

b)

Bacteria are becoming less resistant to the antibiotics that are being prescribed.

c)

Humans are buying less antibiotics, and antibiotics are becoming more effective.

d)

Bacteria are becoming more resistant to the antibiotics that are being prescribed.

35.
Why are bacteria becoming more resistant to antibiotics?
a)
Bacteria are changing and evolving.
b)

Humans are using antibiotics correctly.

c)
Antibiotics are becoming weaker.
d)
Humans are becoming weaker.
36.
What is antibiotic resistance?
a)
The ability for humans to resist antibiotics.
b)
The ability for humans to repel bacteria. 
c)

The ability for bacteria to survive the effects of antibiotics.

d)
The ability for bacteria to become weak from antibiotics.
37.

Which of the following are causes of antibiotic resistance? Select all that apply.

a)

Using antibiotics incorrectly, such as to treat viruses

b)

Overuse of antibiotics in livestock farming

c)

Patients not finishing their antibiotic treatment

d)

Over-prescribing antibiotics/using antibiotics when not necessary

38.

Bacterial colonies originates from a single bacterial cell.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Bacterial colonies are a pure culture.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

After incubation of the streak plate, there should be bacterial growth in all 4 quadrants.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

After incubation of the streak plate, there should be isolated colonies in the 1st quadrant.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Bacteria are so small that the tip of a loop has many thousands of cells on it after being touched to a stock culture.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Separating and isolating individual cells across an agar surface is called:

a)

Serial dilution

b)

Agitation method

c)

mechanical dilution

d)

Sterile technique

44.

The image shows an example of a(n):

a)

Streak plate

b)

Spread plate

c)

Ordinary inoculation

d)

Stroke inoculation

45.

A pile of bacteria with number 1 million or more members is called a(n):

a)

Clone

b)

Serial culture

c)

Aerobe

d)

Colony

46.

Antibiotic that disrupts the 30s ribosome making protein synthesis stop

a)

Penicillins

b)

Tetracyclines

c)

Fluoroquinolones

d)

Sulfonamides

47.

Antibiotic that inhibits cell wall formation causing water to rush in and the cell to burst

a)

Penicillins

b)

Tetracyclines

c)

Fluoroquinolones

d)

Sulfonamides

48.

Process of gene transfer where a virus moves genetic material from one bacteria to another

a)

conjugation

b)

transdution

c)

transformation

49.

Process of gene transfer where a virus die/bursts & another bacteria takes in the free-floating plasmids

a)

conjugation

b)

transduction

c)

transformation

50.

The process gene transfer where bacteria connect pili to exchange plasmids

a)

conjugation

b)

transformation

c)

transduction

Similar Resources on Wayground

Pre-VCE Biology EXAM Revision

49 questions

Pre-VCE Biology EXAM Revision

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th Grade

Homeostasis

53 questions

Homeostasis

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade

Periodic Trend Unit Exam

50 questions

Periodic Trend Unit Exam

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th - 12th Grade

G6 Q3 Science Practice Assessment

46 questions

G6 Q3 Science Practice Assessment

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th Grade - University

Year 9 - Moving and Shaking Recap 2

49 questions

Year 9 - Moving and Shaking Recap 2

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

Vocabulary Review

50 questions

Vocabulary Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

Classification of Matter

53 questions

Classification of Matter

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th - 10th Grade

Respiratory & Cardio Test Review A&P

50 questions

Respiratory & Cardio Test Review A&P

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th - 12th Grade