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Cell Division and Genetics Quiz

Total questions: 160

Worksheet time: 2hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which one is the material genetic

a)

DNA

b)

Protein

2.

Distance regulator is a type of cell communication that important for ...

a)

Immune response and embryonic development

b)

Communication between the cytoplasm of neighboring cells

c)

Communication and influence cells in close proximity

d)

Carried substances in animals and plants

3.

Local regulator is a type of cell communication that important for ...

a)

Immune response and embryonic development

b)

Communication between the cytoplasm of neighboring cells

c)

Communication and influence cells in close proximity

d)

Carried substances in animals and plants

4.

Cell junction is a type of cell communication that important for ...

a)

Immune response and embryonic development

b)

Communication between the cytoplasm of neighboring cells

c)

Communication and influence cells in close proximity

d)

Carried substances in animals and plants

5.

Cell to cell recognition is a type of cell communication that important for ...

a)

Immune response and embryonic development

b)

Communication between the cytoplasm of neighboring cells

c)

Communication and influence cells in close proximity

d)

Carried substances in animals and plants

6.

Check point (control system) will be occurred in

a)

M phase

b)

G1 phase

c)

S phase

d)

G2 phase

7.

DNA replication is occurred in

a)

M phase

b)

G1 phase

c)

S phase

d)

G2 phase

8.

How many phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle usually occurs

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

9.

Which one of these cell type has the fastest cell cycle time

a)

Early frog embryo cells

b)

Yeast cells

c)

Mammalian intestinal epithelial cells

d)

Mammalian fibroblasts in culture

10.

Which phase pulls sister chromatids apart at their centromeres?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

e)

Cytokinesis

11.

Why do cells divide? (select all that apply)

a)

Growth

b)

Repair

c)

Respiration

d)

Reproduction

12.

Requires only 1 parent, no gametes

a)

Sexual Reproduction

b)

Asexual Reproduction

13.

Sexual reproduction yields ______ offspring

a)

Unique

b)

Identical

14.

DNA is in condensed strands called ___________, which have pieces on them called _____ which code for ________.

a)

Proteins, Chromosomes, Genes

b)

Genes, Chromosomes, Proteins

c)

Proteins, Genes, Chromosomes

d)

Chromosomes, Genes, Proteins

15.

Duplicated legs of a chromosome are called (a)   chromatids.

16.

Sister chromatids are held together at the (a)   .

17.

Which phase of the Cell Cycle do cells spend most of their lifetime in?

a)

Prophase

b)

Mitosis

c)

Interphase

d)

Cytokinesis

18.

Which phase of the Cell Cycle involves the"splitting of the nucleus"

a)

Mitosis

b)

Interphase

c)

Cytokinesis

19.

Cytokinesis is the splitting of the (a)   .

20.

Which phase involves the chromosomes lining up in the middle?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

e)

Cytokinesis

21.

Which phase pulls sister chromatids apart at their centromeres?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

e)

Cytokinesis

22.

What is formed during animal cell cytokinesis?

a)

Cleavage furrow

b)

Cell plate

23.

What is formed during plant cell cytokinesis?

a)

Cleavage furrow

b)

Cell plate

24.

What are the haploid sex cells used for sexual reproduction called?

(a)  

25.

There are _____ rounds of cell division in meiosis

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

26.

There are ____ _______ cells created in meiosis

a)

2; haploid

b)

4, diploid

c)

2; diploid

d)

4; haploid

27.

Meiosis I involves the separation of what?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Sister chromatids

c)

Homologous pairs

28.

Meiosis II involves the separation of what?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Sister Chromatids

c)

Homologous pairs

29.

When does independent assortment occur?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

30.

When does crossing over occur?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

31.

Crossing over occurs during prophase I of meiosis. Which statement about crossing over is true?

a)

RNA translation occurs in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Crossing over takes place in backterial cells

c)

Crossing over produces genetically identical daughter cells

d)

Crossing over provides genetic diversity in eukaryotic cells

32.

If a person has leukemia, they are given a medicine that inhibits (stops) DNA synthesis. Which phase of the cell cycle will be most affected by this medicine?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M phase

33.

During prophase I crossing over occurs and genetic material is exchanged between homologous chromosomes. How is this important

a)

Increases genetic variation

b)

Reduces the diploid number to the haploid number

c)

Increases the haploid number to the diploid number

d)

Reduces the probability of mutations

34.

G1, S, and G2 are all phases of

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Interphase

d)

Prophase

35.

What is the order of the three phases in interphase?

a)

G1, G2, S

b)

S, G1, G2

c)

G1, S, G2

d)

G1, G2, G3

36.

How many pairs of chromosomes do humans have in a cell?

a)

92

b)

46

c)

23

d)

12

37.

What phase of mitosis is shown in D?

a)

Prophase

b)

Telophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Metaphase

38.

What happens during synthesis?

a)

DNA is replicated in the nucleus resulting in two identical copies of DNA.

b)

Cells just function as they should.

c)

DNA is replicated in the cytoplasm resulting in two different copies of DNA.

d)

Cells are duplicated.

39.
Put the following stages of mitosis in order: anaphase, prophase, metaphase, and telophase. 
a)
prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase
b)
prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
c)
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d)
prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase
40.
Put the following actions in order: DNA replicates, cell grows, cell divides, cell prepares for mitosis. 
a)
DNA replicates, cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides
b)
cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, DNA replicates, cell divides
c)
cell grows, DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides
d)
DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell grows, cell divides
41.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
42.
___________________________ is the study of how traits are passed on, or inherited.
a)
dominant traits
b)
ratio
c)
phenotype
d)
genetics
43.
One trait that is ALWAYS present and causes the other traits to disappear is a ________________________
a)
recessive trait
b)
aggressive trait
c)
absent trait
d)
dominant trait
44.
_____________________ is the appearance of an organism, or how it looks
a)
phenotype
b)
ratio
c)
recessive trait
d)
heredity
45.

Different forms of a gene

a)

allele

b)

genotype

c)

phenotype

46.

a simple genetic rule where a gene only comes in dominant or recessive forms

a)

Genotype

b)

Allele

c)

Mendelian Inheritance

d)

Phenotype

47.
If a pea plant were homozygous recessive for height, how would its alleles be represented?
a)
TT
b)
Tt
c)
tt
d)
tT
48.
How is colorblindness inherited and what would be a colorblind male's genotype?
a)
x-linked recessive; Xhy
b)
autosomal recessive; hh
c)
autosomal dominant; HH or Hh
d)
x-linked dominant; XHy
49.

If you know that long hair (H) is dominant to short hair (h) and are shown this picture, can you say if this guinea pig is Hh or HH?

a)

No, Hh and HH have the same phenotype

b)

No, this guinea pig would be hh

c)

Yes, Hh and HH will look different

50.

Hybrid is another way of saying

a)

heterozygous

b)

purebred

c)

dominant

d)

recessive

51.

A white mouse with red eyes is crossed with a black mouse with brown eyes. The white mouse is recessive for both of its traits. The black mouse is dominant for both of its traits.

This cross would be

a)

BBEE x bbee

b)

BBEe x BbEe

c)

BbEE x BbEe

d)

BBee x BBEE

52.
What goes in box 3
a)
Aabb
b)
AABB
c)
AAbb
d)
aaBb
53.

What goes in box 15

a)

aabb

b)

AABB

c)

aaBB

d)

AAbb

54.
Using the dihybrid cross and key provided, what is the probability of the offspring being tall and white?
a)
9
b)
2
c)
3
d)
6
55.
In a dihybrid cross
a)
one trait is crossed.
b)
two traits are crossed.
c)
four boxes are needed for the punnett square.
d)
mom's alleles are dominant.
56.

Based off this punnett square, what fraction of the offspring will have wrinkled, yellow seeds?

a)

9/16

b)

3/16

c)

1/16

d)

16/16

57.
Using the dihybrid cross and key provided, what is the probability of the offspring being tall and white?
a)
9
b)
2
c)
3
d)
6
58.
This is an example of a ______________.
a)
phenotype
b)
genotype
c)
xenotype
d)
base pairs
59.
What is another way of saying "purebred"?
a)
homozygous
b)
dominant
c)
recessive
d)
heterozygous
60.

What is considered to be the phenotype?

a)

Double stranded chromosomes

b)

The physical trait that is expressed

c)

The combination of genes

d)

All of the genetic information

61.

Select the following options that represent a genotype.

a)

Rr

b)

Round peas

c)

Smooth peas

d)

rr

62.

What pattern of inheritance is shown in this image?

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Complete dominance

63.

What pattern of inheritance is shown in this image?

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Complete dominance

64.

A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Independent assortment

d)

Recessive inheritance

65.

A bubble guppy with a yellow tail has offspring with a bubble guppy with a red tail. The offspring have orange tails. What is this an example of?

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete Dominance

c)

Multiple Alleles

d)

Polygenic Triats

66.
In screech owls, red feathers are dominant over gray feathers. If two heterozygous red-feathered owls are mated, what percentage of their offspring would be expected to have red feathers?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
100%
67.
Cross Two Homozygous plants
(RRYY x rryy)
R = round seeds, r  = wrinkled seeds
Y = yellow seeds, y = green seeds
What percent will have Round and Yellow seeds? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
68.
What genotype is missing from this Punnett Square?
a)
RrYy
b)
RRYY
c)
rryy
d)
RrYY
69.
how can the chromosomal numbers in mitosis be described?
a)
Diploid
b)
Polyploid 
c)
 Haploid
d)
 Triploid
70.
Which phase below would FOLLOW the phase shown above?
a)
Anaphase – the replicated chromosomes have separated and are moving toward the centrioles.
b)
 Anaphase – the replicated chromosomes are aligning at the equator opposite the centrioles.
c)
 Telophase – the chromosomes will uncoil and the nuclear envelope will re-form.
d)
Telophase – the sister chromatids will separate and become individual chromosomes
71.
Arrange the stages of the cell cycle shown above in order.
a)
I, II, III, IV, V, VI
b)
VI, II, I, IV, V, III
c)
III, VI, I, IV, II, V
d)
V, II, IV, I, II, VI
72.
 A linear code of 3 sequential bases on one side of a RNA molecule is a - 
a)
base pair
b)
amino acid
c)
codon
d)
gene
73.
A section of DNA has the following sequence of nitrogenous bases: C G A T T A C A G. Which of the following sequences would be produced as a result of transcription?
a)
C G T U U T C T G 
b)
G C T A A T G T C
c)
C G A U U A C A G 
d)
G C U A A U G U C
74.
Meiosis is a form of nuclear division that produces
a)
4 haploid cells
b)
2 diploid cells
c)
1 tripolid cell
d)
4 dipoid cells
75.
Information in the karyotype below indicates that the individual is a
a)
female with sickle cell
b)
female with tay sachs
c)
female with down syndrome
d)
male with phenylketonuria
76.
When you sweat this is an example of
a)
releasing enzymes 
b)
decreasing respiration
c)
assimilating proteins
d)
maintaining homeostasis
77.
Which organelle produced proteins
a)
nucleus 
b)
lysosome
c)
ribosome
d)
mitochondria 
78.
In a dihybrid cross AaBb x AaBb, what fraction of the offspring will be homozygous for both revessive traits?
a)
1/16
b)
1/8
c)
3/16
d)
1/4
79.
ATP is used in photosynthesis and cellular respiration by
a)
to breakdown glucose and release energy
b)
to transfer energy from one molecule to the other 
c)
to absorb electrons from water
d)
to work as an enzyme
80.
The genetic information is stored
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
cytoplasm
d)
nucleus
81.
Snap dragon color is a incomplete dominant trait.  A red flower (R1R1) is crossed with white flower (R2R2)? What color are flowers that are R1R2?
a)
Red
b)
Red and White
c)
White
d)
Pink
82.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
83.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
84.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
85.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
86.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
87.
What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine
b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
88.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
89.
Name this structure
a)
double helix
b)
nucelotide
c)
twisted ladder
d)
hydrogen bond
90.
Which process is shown?
a)
diffusion
b)
repiration
c)
recombination
d)
translation
91.
DNA sequence is ACAGTGC. How would this be coded on mRNA?
a)
TGTCACG
b)
UGUCACG
c)
GUGACAU
d)
CACUGUA
92.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
93.
An enzyme that breaks the hydrogen bonds holding the base pairs together as it UNWINDS and UNZIPS the double helix, allowing new nucleotides to bind to the single strands by base pairing.
a)
ligase
b)
RNA polymerase
c)
DNA Helicase
d)
DNA polymerase
94.
What sugar is in DNA?
a)
deoxyribose
b)
ribose
c)
oxyribose
d)
deoxyose
95.
The anticodon is located on 
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
rRNA
96.
Where does transcription take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
ribosome
c)
cytoplasm
d)
smooth ER
97.
Amino acids are bonded together by a
a)
hydrogen bond
b)
peptide bond
c)
ionic bond
d)
they are not bonded
98.
Protein synthesis takes place in two parts:
a)
Transcription then translation
b)
Replication then transcription
c)
Translation then transcription
d)
Replication then translation
99.
What is occurring in this picture?
a)
Translation
b)
DNA Replication
c)
Polymerase is unzipping the DNA
d)
Transcription
100.
What is the function of mRNA?
a)
storage of food
b)
prevents mutations
c)
provides energy
d)
carries genetic message 
101.
What is the name of 3 bases on mRNA called?
a)
gene
b)
triplet
c)
codon
d)
anticodon
102.
Which shows the correct complementary base pairing for RNA?
a)
U-G, C-T
b)
C-G, U-A
c)
T-A, C-G
d)
G-G, C-C
103.
RNA is different from DNA in ___
a)
RNA is single stranded
b)
RNA has uracil 
c)
RNA has the sugar ribos
d)
All of these
104.
What is the relationship between a protein, a cell, and DNA?
a)
DNA -> Protein -> RNA
b)
Protein -> RNA -> DNA
c)
RNA -> DNA -> Protein
d)
DNA -> RNA -> Protein
105.
mRNA stands for 
a)
my RNA
b)
messenger RNA
c)
mitosis RNA
d)
mutated RNA
106.
The number of nitrogen bases in a codon is ....
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
6
107.

Okazaki fragments are used to elongate

a)

)the leading strand toward the replication fork

b)

the lagging strand toward the replication fork

c)

both strands in both directions

d)

)the leading strand away from the replication fork

e)

the lagging strand away from the replication fork

108.

The two strands of a DNA molecule are connected by

a)

hydrogen bonds between the codons and anticodons

b)

hydrogen bonds between the bases of one strand and the bases of another strand

c)

hydrogen bonds between deoxyribose sugar molecules of one strand and deoxyribose molecules of the second strand

d)

covalent bonds between phosphate groups

e)

covalent bonds between the nitrogen bases

109.

Which of the following cannot form a base-pair?

a)

Cytosine DNA nucleotide with a Guanine DNA nucleotide

b)

Adenine DNA nucleotide with a Thymine DNA nucleotide

c)

Adenine DNA nucleotide with a Uracil RNA nucleotide

d)

Cytosine DNA nucleotide with a Guanine RNA nucleotide

e)

Adenine DNA nucleotide with a Thymine RNA nucleotide

110.

Which of the following is true?

a)

A messenger RNA molecule has the form of a double helix

b)

Ribosomes contain RNA nucleotides and amino acids

c)

The uracil nucleotide consists of the uracil nitrogen base, a deoxyribose sugar, and a phosphate group

d)

When tRNA attaches to mRNA during translation, cytosine bonds to guanine and adenine bonds to thymine

e)

In eukaryotes, DNA is manufactured in the nucleus and RNA is manufactured in the cytoplasm

111.

All of the following enzymes are involved in DNA replication EXCEPT

a)

helicase

b)

DNA ligase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

RNA polymerase

e)

RNA primase

112.

The end products of translation are

a)

polypeptides

b)

amino acids

c)

lipids

d)

RNA

e)

DNA

113.

Protein synthesis consists of all of the following steps EXCEPT

a)

replication

b)

transcription

c)

translation

d)

elongation

e)

initiation

114.

The mRNA actively being translated in the cytoplasm would have all of the following EXCEPT

a)

a poly-A-tail

b)

a 5' cap

c)

exons

d)

introns

e)

RNA nucleotides

115.

How many parts are there to a ribosome?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

116.

Which of the following statements about DNA replication is not true?

a)

The process insures that each new cell will have the same genetic material as the original cell

b)

The process begins at a single location on the DNA molecule called the origin of replication

c)

The process is defined as semiconservative replication

d)

Results in chromosomes that contain 2 DNA molecules called sister chromatids

117.

Which of the following is not true of ribonucleic acid?

a)

contains a hydroxyl group on the 2nd carbon

b)

contains ribose sugar

c)

is double stranded

d)

is produced in the nucleus

e)

contains uracil instead of thymine

118.

DNA and RNA polymerases move in a 3'-5' direction.

a)

True

b)

False

119.

Each unit of a nucleic acid consisting of a sugar, attached phosphate group, and base is

a)

nucleolus

b)

nucleotide

c)

nucleosome

d)

histone

120.

During your summer job at Virotech, you isolate a previously unknown virus. Analysis of its genome reveals that it is composed of a double stranded DNA molecule containing 14% T (thymine). Based on this information, what would you predict the %C (cytosine) to be?

a)

14%

b)

28%

c)

36%

d)

72%

121.

What is an amino acid made of?

a)

Carboxyl group

b)

Triglyceride

c)

Amino group

d)

Variable "R" group

122.

Frameshift mutations can be caused by:

a)

Additions

b)

Substitutions

c)

Deletions

123.

RNA Polymerase can only transcribe DNA in the _____ direction.

a)

3' to 5'

b)

5' to 3'

124.

In transcription, the nucleotides will be added on the ___ end of the molecule via RNA Polymerase

a)

3'

b)

5'

125.

When gene expression occurs

a)

A gene is mutated with either an insertion or deletion

b)

The gene is removed from the genotype in that cell

c)

The gene is passed on to the daughter cells during mitosis

d)

The gene is activated and used in protein synthesis

126.

Which reason explains why nerve cells function differently than muscle cells?

a)

In nerve cells all the genes are expressed.

b)

In muscle cells all the genes are expressed.

c)

In both kinds of cells the same genes are expressed.

d)

In both kinds of cells different genes are expressed.

127.

An operon is

a)

a genetic on/off switch in prokaryotes

b)

a genetic on/off switch in eukaryotes

c)

a group of related genes and the associated gene switches in prokaryotes

d)

a group of related genes and the associated gene switches in eukaryotes

128.

In the trp operon, __ acts as a __ and helps the repressor bind to the operator.

a)

tryptophan, corepressor

b)

tryptophan, inducer

c)

lactose, corepressor

d)

lactose, inducer

129.

Where does the RNA Polymerase bind to for the initiation of

a)

Regulator

b)

Structural genes

c)

Operator

d)

Promotor

130.

RNA polymerase needs --- to initiate transcription.

a)

holoenzymes

b)

transcriptional factors

c)

histones

d)

microRNA

131.

which is correct?

a)

heterochromatin-dense, no transcription;

euchromatin- not dense, transcription

b)

euchromatin-dense, no transcription;

heterochromatin- not dense, transcription

c)

histone acetylation- increase transcription; histone methylation (and DNA methylation)- decrease transcription

d)

histone methylation- increase transcription; histone acetylation- decrease transcription

132.

True or False: All of your body cells contain the same genes.

a)

True

b)

False

133.

What is the final step of regulation of gene expression?

a)

Protein folding

b)

Protein breakdown

c)

Regulation of translation

d)

Gene splicing

134.

Which of the following would most likely be an "on," or highly expressed, gene?

a)

A gene in heterochromatin

b)

A gene with a short poly-A tail

c)

A gene with alot of introns

d)

A gene with a strong promoter

135.

Heterochromatin

a)

Usually has methylated DNA

b)

Usually does not have acetylated histones

c)

contains genes that are not expressed

d)

All of these are true

136.

Prokaryotes regulate gene expression primarily

a)

in order to maintain homeostasis

b)

in response to changing environmental conditions

c)

during development as cells specialize

d)

Prokaryotes do not regulate gene expression. All genes are always on.

137.

One way to regulate the expression of a gene is to control the formation of mRNA. This is called ___ control.

a)

transcriptional

b)

translational

c)

post-transcriptional

d)

post-translational

138.

Proteins that bind to the operator sequence and silence gene expression via halting transcription

a)

Negative Regulators

b)

Inducible Operons

c)

Positive Regulators

139.

Which type of chemical tag causes the tightening of the nucleosomes?

a)

DNA methylation

b)

Histone acetylation?

140.

Which type of chemical tag causes the relaxing and unwinding of nucleosomes?

a)

Histone acetylation

b)

DNA methylation

141.
programmed cell death
a)
apoptosis
b)
signal integration
c)
chemical synapse
d)
diabetes mellitus
142.
signal that is sent and received by the same or similar nearby cells
a)
autocrine signal
b)
enzyme-linked receptor
c)
action potential
d)
signal integration
143.
cell-surface protein that transmits a signal from the exterior of the cell to the interior, even though the ligand does not enter the cell
a)
cell-surface receptor
b)
signal transduction
c)
epinephrine
d)
G-protein-linked receptor
144.
small space between axon terminals and dendrites of nerve cells where neurotransmitters function
a)
chemical synapse
b)
endocrine signal
c)
diabetes mellitus
d)
kinase
145.
second messenger that is derived from ATP
a)
cyclic AMP (cAMP)
b)
growth factor
c)
autocrine signal
d)
insulin
146.
interaction of two receptor proteins to form a functional complex called a dimer
a)
dimerization (of receptor proteins)
b)
enzyme-linked receptor
c)
signaling cell
d)
kinase
147.
cell-surface receptor with intracellular domains that are associated with membrane-bound enzymes
a)
enzyme-linked receptor
b)
glucagon
c)
insulin
d)
second messenger
148.
communication between a cell
a)
intercellular signaling
b)
G-protein-linked receptor
c)
signal transduction
d)
extracellular domain
149.
molecule produced by a signaling cell that binds with a specific receptor, delivering a signal in the process
a)
ligand
b)
phosphatase
c)
cell-surface receptor
d)
second messenger
150.
signaling molecule secreted by yeast cells to communicate to nearby yeast cells that they are available to mate
a)
mating factor
b)
intercellular signaling
c)
ion channel-linked receptor
d)
synaptic signal
151.
enzyme that degrades cAMP, producing AMP, to terminate signaling
a)
phosphodiesterase
b)
insulin
c)
autocrine signal
d)
quorum sensing
152.
method of cellular communication used by bacteria that informs them of the abundance of similar (or different) bacteria in the environment
a)
quorum sensing
b)
chemical synapse
c)
endocrine signal
d)
internal (intracellular) receptor
153.
small, non-protein molecule that propagates a signal within the cell after activation of a receptor causes its release (i.e. IP3, DAG, cAMP)
a)
second messenger
b)
enzyme-linked receptor
c)
signal integration
d)
insulin
154.
interaction of signals from two or more different cell-surface receptors that merge to activate the same response in the cell
a)
signal integration
b)
neurotransmitter
c)
auxin
d)
synaptic signal
155.
propagation of the signal through the cytoplasm (and sometimes also the nucleus) of the cell
a)
signal transduction
b)
ion channel-linked receptor
c)
growth factor
d)
auxin
156.
cell that releases signal molecules that allow communication with another cell
a)
signaling cell
b)
growth factor
c)
enzyme-linked receptor
d)
second messenger
157.
cell that has a receptor for a signal or ligand from a signaling cell
a)
target cell
b)
paracrine signal
c)
signaling pathway (signaling cascade)
d)
cell-surface receptor
158.
self-propagating momentary change in the electrical potential of a neuron (or muscle) membrane
a)
action potential
b)
apoptosis
c)
cell-surface receptor
d)
signal transduction
159.
hormone produced by the alpha cells of the pancreas in response to low blood sugar; functions to raise blood sugar levels
a)
glucagon
b)
autocrine signal
c)
phosphatase
d)
signal transduction
160.
hormone produced by the beta cells of the pancreas in response to high blood glucose levels; functions to lower blood glucose levels
a)
insulin
b)
second messenger
c)
intercellular signaling
d)
abscisic acid (ABA)

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