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SWT201_PART3

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true

a)

A. System tests are often performed by independent teams.

b)

B. Functional testing is used more than structural testing

c)

C. Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.

d)

D. End-users should be involved in system tests.

2.

Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard

a)

A. Syntax testing

b)

B. Equivalence partitioning

c)

C. Stress testing

d)

D. Modified condition/decision coverage

3.

Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test
capture and replay facilities

a)

A. Regression testing

b)

B. Integration testing

c)

C. System testing

d)

D. User acceptance testin

4.

Which of the following is false

a)

A. Incidents should always be fixed

b)

B. An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.

c)

C. Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.

d)

D. An incident can be raised against documentation.

5.

Which document specifies the execution order of test cases

a)

A. Test design specification

b)

B. Test item

c)

C. Test procedure specification

d)

D. Test plan

6.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct

a)

A. A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.

b)

B. A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.

c)

C. A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that
achieves 100% statement coverage.

d)

D. A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than
one that achieves 100% branch coverage.

7.

How are integration testing and use case testing similar and dissimilar

a)

A. Both checks for interactions: integration for components, use case for actions

b)

B. Both are black-box techniques: integration is low-level, use case is high-level

c)

C. Both are static testing: developers perform integration, users execute use case tests

d)

D. Both are V&V techniques: integration is for validation, use case is for verification

8.

What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection

a)

A. An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.

b)

B. An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.

c)

C. Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.

d)

D. A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.

9.

Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST

a)

A. Test management

b)

B. Test design

c)

C. Test execution

d)

D. Test planning

10.

Which of the following is NOT true of incidents

a)

A. Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.

b)

B. Incidents may be raised against user requirements.

c)

C. Incidents require investigation and/or correction

d)

D. Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.

11.

Which of the following characterizes the cost of faults

a)

A. They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the
latest test phases.

b)

B. They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.

c)

C. Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.

d)

D. Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to
fix then.

12.

Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct

a)

A. They are used to support multi-user testing.

b)

B. They are used to capture and animate user requirements.

c)

C. They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.

d)

D. They capture aspects of user behaviour.

13.

Which of the following is true of the V-model

a)

A. It states that modules are tested against user requirements.

b)

B. It only models the testing phase.

c)

C. It specifies the test techniques to be used.

d)

D. It includes the verification of designs.

14.

Error guessing:

a)

A. Supplements formal test design techniques.

b)

B. Can only be used in component, integration and system testing.

c)

C. Is only performed in user acceptance testing.

d)

D. Is not repeatable and should not be used.

15.

Error seeding

a)

A. Evaluates the thoroughness with which a computer program is tested by purposely inserting errors into a supposedly correct program.

b)

B. Errors inserted by the developers intentionally to make the system malfunctioning.

c)

C. Neither A or B

d)

D. Both A and B

16.

In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has � 4000 of salary tax free. The next � 1500 is taxed at 10%
The next � 28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class

a)

A. � 4800; � 14000; � 28000

b)

B. � 5200; � 5500; � 28000

c)

C. � 28001; � 32000; � 35000

d)

D. � 5800; � 28000; � 32000

17.

The oracle assumption

a)

A. Is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.

b)

B. Is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.

c)

C. Is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.

d)

D. Is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.

18.

In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:

a)

A. Find as many faults as possible

b)

B. Test high risk areas.

c)

C. Obtain good test coverage.

d)

D. Test whatever is esiest to test

19.

The most important thing about early test design is that it:

a)

A. Makes test preparation easier.

b)

B. Means inspections are not required.

c)

C. Can prevent fault multiplication.

d)

D. Will find all faults.

20.

Which of the following are potential drawbacks of independence in testing
01. Independent testers may feel they are not part of the development team
02. Developers may lose a sense of personal responsibility for quality
03. Project managers will not have as much control on the project
04. Customers may end up requesting features that are technically impossible

a)

A. 01 and 02

b)

B. 01, 02 and 03

c)

C. 03 and 04

d)

D. 01, 02, 03 and 04

21.

Integration testing in the small:

a)

A. Tests the individual components that have been developed.

b)

B. Tests interactions between modules or subsystems.

c)

C. Only uses components that form part of the live system.

d)

C. Only uses components that form part of the live system.

22.

Which of the following requirements is testable

a)

A. The system shall be user friendly.

b)

B. The safety-critical parts of the system s
all contain 0 faults.

c)

C. The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.

d)

D. The system shall be built to be portable.

23.

An important benefit of code inspections is that they:

a)

A. Enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.

b)

B. Can be performed by the person who wrote the code.

c)

C. Can be performed by inexperienced staff.

d)

D. Are cheap to perform.

24.

Test cases are designed during

a)

A. Test recording.

b)

B. Test planning.

c)

C. Test configuration.

d)

D. Test specification.

25.

A failure is:

a)

A. Found in the software; the result of an error.

b)

B. Departure from specified behaviour.

c)

C. An incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.

d)

D. A human action that produces an incorrect result.

26.

How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required

a)

A. Metrics from previous similar projects

b)

B. Discussions with the development team

c)

C. Time allocated for regression testing

d)

D. A. & B.

27.

Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets
v - Test control
w - Test monitoring
x - Test estimation
y - Incident management
z - Configuration control
1 - Calculation of required test resources
2 - Maintenance of record of test results
3 - Re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - Report on deviation from test plan
5 - Tracking of anomalous test results

a)

A. v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4

b)

B. v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3

c)

C. v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2

d)

D. v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5

28.

In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has � 4000 of salary tax free. The next � 1500 is taxed at 10%
The next � 28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case

a)

A. � 1500

b)

B. � 32001

c)

C. � 33501

d)

D. � 28000

29.

Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria

a)

A. Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.

b)

B. A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.

c)

C. A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.

d)

D. Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.

30.

Analyze the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: "What type of ticket do you require, single or return"
IF the customer wants � return�
Ask: "What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?"
IF the customer replies � Cheap-day�
Say: "That will be � 11:20"
ELSE
Say: "That will be � 19:50"
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: "That will be � 9:75"
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all the questions have been
asked, all combinations have occurred and all replies given.

a)

A. 3

b)

B. 4

c)

C. 5

d)

D. 6

31.

Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test

a)

A. To find faults in the software.

b)

B. To assess whether the software is ready for release.

c)

C. To demonstrate that the software doesn� t work.

d)

D. To prove that the software is correct.

32.

Enough testing has been performed when:

a)

A. Time runs out.

b)

B. The required level of confidence has been achieved.

c)

C. No more faults are found.

d)

D. The users won� t find any serious faults.

33.

Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts

a)

A. Actual results

b)

B. Program specification

c)

C. User requirements

d)

D. System specification

34.

Which of the following are disadvantages of capturing tests by recording the actions of a manual tester
i The script may be unstable when unexpected events occur.
ii Data for a number of similar tests is automatically stored separately from the script.
iii Expected results must be added to the captured script.
iv The captured script documents the exact inputs entered by the tester.
v When replaying a captured test, the tester may need to debug the script if it doesn� t play
correctly.

a)

A. i, iii, iv, v.

b)

B. ii, iv and v.

c)

C. i, ii and iv

d)

D. i and v.

35.

Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model

a)

A. All document reviews involve the development team.

b)

B. Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities.

c)

C. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.

d)

D. Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is complete.

36.

The process of designing test cases consists of the following activities:
i. Elaborate and describe test cases in detail by using test design techniques.
ii. Specify the order of test case execution.
iii. Analyse requirements and specifications to determine test conditions.
iv. Specify expected results.
According to the process of identifying and designing tests, what is the correct order of these
activities

a)

A. iii, i, iv, ii.

b)

B. iii, iv, i, ii.

c)

C. iii, ii, i, iv.

d)

D. ii, iii, i, iv.

37.

Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing

a)

A. An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote the software.

b)

B. An independent tester may be more focused on showing how the software works than the person
who wrote the software.

c)

C. An independent tester may be more effective and efficient because they are less familiar with the
software than the person who wrote it.

d)

D. An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the person who wrote
the software.

38.

Given the following specification, which of the following values for age are in the SAME equivalence partition If you are less than 18, you are too young to be insured. Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive
a 20% discount. Anyone over 30 is not eligible for a discount.

a)

A. 17, 18, 19.

b)

B. 29, 30, 31.

c)

C. 18, 29, 30.

d)

D. 17, 29, 31.

39.

Consider the following statements:
i.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv.100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.

a)

A. ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False

b)

B. i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False

c)

C. ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False

d)

D. ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

40.

What is the difference between a project risk and a product risk

a)

A. Project risks are potential failure areas in the software or system; product risks are risks that
surround the project� s capability to deliver its objectives.

b)

B. Project risks are the risks that surround the project� s capability to deliver its objectives; product
risks are potential failure areas in the software or system.

c)

C. Project risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues;
product risks are typically related to skill and staff shortages.

d)

D. Project risks are risks that delivered software will not work; product risks are typically related to
supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues.

41.

During which fundamental test process activity do we determine if MORE tests are needed

a)

A Test implementation and execution.

b)

B Evaluating test exit criteria.

c)

C Test analysis and design.

d)

D Test planning and control.

42.

What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan

a)

A. To communicate how incidents will be managed.

b)

B. To communicate how testing will be performed.

c)

C. To produce a test schedule

d)

D. To produce a work breakdown structure

43.

Which of the following defines the sequence in which tests should be executed

a)

A. Test plan.

b)

B. Test procedure specification

c)

C. Test case specification.

d)

D. Test design specification.

44.

Which of the following is a major task of test planning

a)

A. Determining the test approach.

b)

B. Preparing test specifications.

c)

C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.

d)

D. Measuring and analyzing results.

45.

What is the main purpose of impact analysis for testers

a)

A. To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes.

b)

B. To determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested.

c)

C. To determine how much the planned changes will affect users.

d)

D. To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes

46.

In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has � 4000 of salary tax free.
The next � 1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next � 28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case

a)

A. � 28000

b)

B. � 33501.

c)

c. � 32001.

d)

D. � 1500.

47.

Which of the following tools is most likely to contain a comparator

a)

A. Dynamic Analysis tool.

b)

B. Test Execution tool.

c)

C. Static Analysis tool.

d)

D. Security tool.

48.

When software reliability measures are used to determine when to stop testing, the best types of test cases to use are those that

a)

A. Exercise system functions in proportion to the frequency they will be used in the released product

b)

B. Push the system beyond its designed operation limits and are likely to make the system fail

c)

C. Exercise unusual and obscure scenarios that may not have been considered in design

d)

D. Exercise the most complicated and the most error-prone portions of the system

49.

Which of the following will NOT be detected by static analysis

a)

A. Parameter type mismatches.

b)

B. Errors in requirements.

c)

C. Undeclared variables.

d)

D. Uncalled functions.

50.

Which of the following would be a valid measure of test progress

a)

A. Number of undetected defects.

b)

B. Total number of defects in the product.

c)

C. Number of test cases not yet executed.

d)

D. Effort required to fix all defects.

51.

In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has � 4000 of salary tax free.
The next � 1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next � 28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole pound, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence
classes

a)

A. � 4000; � 5000; � 5500.

b)

B. � 32001; � 34000; � 36500

c)

C. � 28000; � 28001; � 32001.

d)

D. � 4000; � 4200; � 5600.

52.

Which of the following test activities can be automated
i Reviews and inspections.
ii Metrics gathering.
iii Test planning.
iv Test execution.
v Data generation.

a)

A. i, iii, iv.

b)

B. i, ii, iii.

c)

C. ii, iv, v.

d)

D. ii, iii, v.

53.

In a REACTIVE approach to testing when would you expect the bulk of the test design work to be begun

a)

A. After the software or system has been produced.

b)

B. During development.

c)

C. As early as possible.

d)

D. During requirements analysis.

54.

Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE

a)

A. Expected outcomes are defined by the software's behaviour

b)

B. Expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code

c)

C. Expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run

d)

D. Expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

55.

Functional system testing is

a)

A. Testing that the system functions with other system

b)

B. Testing that the components that comprise the system function together

c)

C. Testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole

d)

D. Testing the system performs functions within specified response times

56.

Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management

a)

A. Operating systems

b)

B. Test documentation

c)

C. Live data

d)

D. User requirement documents

57.

What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process

a)

A. Setting up forms and databases

b)

B. Analysing metrics and improving processes

c)

C. Writing the documents to be inspected

d)

D. Time spent on the document outside the meeting

58.

Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE

a)

A. Black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique

b)

B. White box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique

c)

C. Cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique

d)

D. Black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

59.

Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

a)

A. To find faults in the software

b)

B. To prove that the software has no faults

c)

C. To give confidence in the software

d)

D. To find performance problems

60.

Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most

a)

A. Component testing

b)

B. Non-functional system testing

c)

C. User acceptance testing

d)

D. Maintenance testing

61.

What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics:

a)

A. Walkthrough

b)

B. Inspection

c)

C. Management review

d)

D. Post project review

62.

Maintenance means

a)

A. Updating tests when the software has changed

b)

B. Testing a released system that has been changed

c)

C. Testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need

d)

D. Testing to maintain business advantage

63.

A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following:-
i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities

a)

A. I,ii,iii are true and iv is false

b)

B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false

c)

C. ii,iii are true and i and iv are false

d)

D. i,ii are false and iii , iv are true

64.

All of the following might be done during unit testing except

a)

A. Desk check

b)

B. Manual support testing

c)

C. Walkthrough

d)

D. Compiler based testing

65.

Unit, Integration and System testing being replaced by ________ using object oriented software testing concepts

a)

A. Classing testing, Object Integration testing, System testing

b)

B. Statement coverage, Branch coverage , Condition coverage

c)

C. All of the above

d)

D. None of the above

66.

What is the concept of introducing a small change to the program and having the effects of that change show up in some test?

a)

A. Desk checking

b)

B. Debugging a program

c)

C. A mutation error

d)

D. Performance testing

e)

E. Introducing mutations

67.

Which of the following is a requirement of an effective software environment
I. Ease of use
II. Capacity for incremental implementation
III. Capability of evolving with the needs of a project
IV. Inclusion of advanced tools

a)

A.I, II &III

b)

B.I, II &IV

c)

C.II, III&IV

d)

D.I, III&IV

68.

When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis is known as:

a)

A. Equivalence partitioning

b)

B. Boundary value analysis

c)

C. Decision table

d)

D. Hybrid analysis

69.

The bug tracking system will need to capture these phases for each bug.
I. Phase injected
II. Phase detected
III. Phase fixed
IV. Phase removed

a)

A. I, II and III

b)

B. I, II and IV

c)

C. II, III and IV

d)

D. I, III and IV

70.

Which of the following software change management activities is most vital to assessing the impact of proposed software modifications

a)

A. Baseline identification

b)

B. Configuration auditing

c)

C. Change control

d)

D. Version control

71.

An expert based test estimation is also known as

a)

A. Narrow band Delphi

b)

B. Wide band Delphi

c)

C. Bespoke Delphi

d)

D. Robust Delphi

72.

A test harness is a

a)

A. A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization regarding testing

b)

B. A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project

c)

C. A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to conduct a test

d)

D. A set of several test cases for a component or system under test

73.

� Be bugging� is known as

a)

A. Preventing the defects by inspection

b)

B. Fixing the defects by debugging

c)

C. Adding known defects by seeding

d)

D. A process of fixing the defects by tester

74.

A project manager has been transferred to a major software development project that is in
the implementation phase. The highest priority for this project manager should be to

a)

A. Establish a relationship with the customer

b)

B. Learn the project objectives and the existing project plan

c)

C. Modify the project� s organizational structure to meet the manager� s management style

d)

D. Ensure that the project proceeds at its current pace

75.

What is the relationship between equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis techniques?

a)

A. Structural testing

b)

B. Opaque testing

c)

C. Compatibility testing

d)

D. All of the above


76.

"This life cycle model is basically driven by schedule and budget risks" This statement is best suited for

a)

A. Water fall model

b)

B. Spiral model

c)

C. Incremental model

d)

D. V-Model

77.

Which of the following characteristics is primarily associated with software reusability

a)

A. The extent to which the software can be used in other applications

b)

B. The extent to which the software can be used by many different users

c)

C. The capability of the software to be moved to a different platform

d)

D. The capability of one system to be coupled with another system

78.

Which of the following functions is typically supported by a software quality information system
I. Record keeping
II. System design
III. Evaluation scheduling
IV. Error reporting

a)

A.I, II&III

b)

B.II, III &IV

c)

C.I, III &IV

d)

D.I, II & IV

79.

System test can begin when
I. The test team competes a three day smoke test and reports on the results to the system test phase entry meeting
II. The development team provides software to the test team 3 business days prior to starting of the system testing
III. All components are under formal, automated configuration and release management control

a)

A. I and II only

b)

B. II and III only

c)

C. I and III only

d)

D. I, II and III

80.

'Defect Density' calculated in terms of

a)

A. The number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component
or the system

b)

B. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by that test phase and
any other means after wards

c)

C. The number of defects identified in the component or system divided by the number of defects
found by a test phase

d)

D. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by the size of the
system

81.

Test charters are used in ________ testing

a)

A. Exploratory testing

b)

B. Usability testing

c)

C. Component testing

d)

D. Maintainability testing

82.

Item transmittal report is also known as

a)

A. Incident report

b)

B. Release note

c)

C. Review report

d)

D. Audit report

83.

COTS is known as

a)

A. Commercial off the shelf software

b)

B. Compliance of the software

c)

C. Change control of the software

d)

D. Capable off the shelf software

84.

What is COTS?

a)

A. Commercial On-the-shelf software

b)

B. Commercial off-the-shelf software

c)

C. Common Offshore testing Software

85.

Change request should be submitted through development or program management. A change request must be written and should include the following criteria.
I. Definition of the change
II. Documentation to be updated
III. Name of the tester or developer
IV. Dependencies of the change request.

a)

A. I, III and IV

b)

B. I, II and III

c)

C. II, III and IV

d)

D. I, II and IV

86.

Change X requires a higher level of authority than Change Y in which of the following pairs Change X Change Y

a)

A. Code in development Code in production

b)

B. Specifications during requirements analysis Specifications during systems test

c)

C. Documents requested by the technical development group Documents requested by customers

d)

D. A product distributed to several sites A product with a single user

87.

Cause effect graphing is related to the standard

a)

A. BS7799

b)

B. BS 7925/2

c)

C. ISO/IEC 926/1

d)

D. ISO/IEC 2382/1

88.

The primary goal of comparing a user manual with the actual behavior of the running program during system testing is to

a)

A. Find bugs in the program

b)

B. Check the technical accuracy of the document

c)

C. Ensure the ease of use of the document

d)

D. Ensure that the program is the latest version

89.

During the testing of a module tester 'X' finds a bug and assigned it to developer. But developer rejects the same, saying that it� s not a bug. What 'X' should do

a)

A. Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the developer.

b)

B. Retest the module and confirm the bug

c)

C. Assign the same bug to another developer

d)

D. Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility

90.

One of the more daunting challenges of managing a test project is that so many dependencies converge at test execution. One missing configuration file or hard ware device can render all your test results meaning less. You can end up with an entire platoon of testers sitting around for days. Who is responsible for this incident

a)

A. Test managers faults only

b)

B. Test lead faults only

c)

C. Test manager and project manager faults

d)

D. Testers faults only

91.

You are a tester for testing a large system. The system data model is very large with many attributes and there are a lot of inter dependencies with in the fields. What steps would you use to
test the system and also what are the efforts of the test you have taken on the test plan

a)

A. Improve super vision, More reviews of artifacts or program means stage containment of the defects.

b)

B. Extend the test plan so that you can test all the inter dependencies

c)

C. Divide the large system in to small modules and test the functionality

d)

D. Test the interdependencies first, after that check the system as a whole

92.

Testing of software used to convert data from existing systems for use in replacement systems

a)

A. Data driven testing

b)

B. Migration testing

c)

C. Configuration testing

d)

D. Back to back testing

93.

A test manager wants to use the resources available for the automated testing of a web application. The best choice is

a)

A. Test automater, web specialist,DBA, test lead

b)

B. Tester, test automater, web specialist, DBA

c)

C. Tester, test lead, test automater, DBA

d)

D. Tester, web specialist, test lead, test automater

94.

What type of risk includes potential failure areas in the software

a)

A. Probed risks

b)

B. Product risks

c)

C. Economic risks

d)

D. Requirements risks

95.

Consider the following statements
i. A incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. Incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. The final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. The incident record does not include information on test environments
v. Incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test

a)

A. ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false

b)

B. i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false

c)

C. i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false

d)

D. i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false

e)

E. i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false

96.

Which test suite will check for an invalid transition using the diagram below

a)

A. S0-S1-S2-S3-S1-S4

b)

B. S0-S1-S4-S1-S2-S3

c)

C. S0-S1-S3-S1-S2-S1

d)

D. S0-S1-S2-S3-S1-S2

97.

Who OFTEN performs system testing and acceptance testing, respectively

a)

A. Senior programmers and professional testers

b)

B. Technical system testers and potential customers

c)

C. Independent test team and users of the system

d)

D. Development team and customers of the system

98.

Which test levels are USUALLY included in the common type of V-model

a)

A. Integration testing, system testing, acceptance testing, and regression testing

b)

B. Component testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing

c)

C. Incremental testing, exhaustive testing, exploratory testing, and data driven testing

d)

D. Alpha testing, beta testing, black-box testing, and white-box testing

99.

Which general testing principles are characterized by the descriptions below
W) Early testing
X) Defect clustering
Y) Pesticide paradox
Z) Absence-of-errors fallacy
1) Testing should start at the beginning of the project
2) Conformance to requirements and fitness for use
3) Small Number of modules contain the most defects
4) Test cases must be regularly renewed and revised

a)

A. W1, X2, Y3, and Z4

b)

B. W1, X3, Y4, and Z2

c)

C. W2, X3, Y1, and Z4

d)

D. W1, X4, Y2, and Z3

100.

How are (a) static analysis tools and (b) performance testing tools different

a)

A. (a) helps in enforcing coding standards; (b) tests system performance

b)

B. (a) analyzes security vulnerabilities; (b) measures the effectiveness of test cases

c)

C. (a) prepares codes prior to testing; (b) prepares codes prior to stress testing

d)

D. (a) highlights unreachable conditions; (b) improves system performance

101.

In an Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks in order to clear the exam.
The maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student clears
the exam.

a)

a) 22,23,26

b)

b) 21,39,40

c)

c) 29,30,31

d)

d) 0,15,22

102.

Which of the following describe test control actions that may occur during testing
I. Setting an entry criterion that developers must retest fixes before fixes are accepted into a build.
II. Changing the test schedule due to availability of a test environment.
III. Re-prioritizing tests when development delivers software late

a)

A. I only

b)

B. II only

c)

C. I, II and III

d)

D. I and III

103.

What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule 3 Rule 4
Conditions
Indian Resident? False True True True
Age between 18-55 Don�t Care False True True
Married Don�t Care Don�t Care False True
Actions
Issue Membership? False False True True
Offer 10% discount? False False True False
A.TC1: Anand is a 32 year old married, residing in Kolkatta.B.TC3: Attapattu is a 65 year old married person, residing in Colombo.

a)

A. A � Issue membership, 10% discount, B�Issue membership, offer no discount.

b)

B. A � Don�t Issue membership, B � Don�t offer discount.

c)

C. A � Issue membership, no discount, B � Don�t Issue membership.

d)

D. A � Issue membership, no discount, B- Issue membership with 10% discount.

104.

Which of the following is false

a)

A. In a system two different failures may have different severities.

b)

B. A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.

c)

C. A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.

d)

D. Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behavior.

105.

A testing process that is conducted to test new features after regression testing of previous features.

a)

A. Operational testing

b)

B. Progressive testing

c)

C. Recovery testing

d)

D. Regression testing

106.

Identify out of the following, which are the attributes of cost of faults

a)

A. These are cheapest to detect during early phases of development & becomes more & more expensive to fix in the later phases.

b)

B. Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.

c)

C. Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.

d)

D. They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.

107.

What is non-functional testing

a)

A. Testing an integrated system to verify that it meets specified requirements

b)

B. Testing the internal structure of the system to ensure it� s built correctly

c)

C. Testing the way the system works without regard to the level of test

d)

D. Testing characteristics such as usability or reliability

108.

Which of the following is a form of functional testing

a)

A. Boundary value analysis

b)

B. Usability testing

c)

C. Performance testing

d)

D. Security testing

109.

Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE
I. Decision tables are useful when dealing with multiple inputs that do not interact.
II. The strength of a decision table is that it creates combinations of inputs that might not otherwise been evaluated.
III. Decision tables are useful when trying to capture system requirements that contain logical conditions.
IV. Each column of a decision table corresponds to a business rule that defines a unique combination of conditions.

a)

A. II, III and IV

b)

B. I and IV

c)

C. I, II and III

d)

D. I and III

110.

Which of the following are metrics (measurements) that a test group may use to monitor progress
I. Subjective confidence of the testers in the product
II. The number of testers currently testing
III. Percentage of planned test cases prepared
IV. Defects found and fixed

a)

A. I only

b)

B. I, III and IV

c)

C. I, II and IV

d)

D. II and IV

111.

A test case has which of the following elements

a)

A. A test environment description and test instructions.

b)

B. A set of inputs, execution preconditions, and expected outcomes

c)

C. A test plan, test inputs, and logging instructions

d)

D. Execution instructions and a function description to determine correct outcome

112.

Bug life cycle
size=2 face=Arial>

a)

A. Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed

b)

B. Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed

c)

C. Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed

d)

D. Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed

113.

Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and open point that were identified during the review meeting

a)

A. Moderator

b)

B. Scribe

c)

C. Reviewers

d)

D. Author

114.

A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule. The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for his product. Which of the following
actions would bring this project back on schedule:

a)

A. Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.

b)

B. Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.

c)

C. Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.

d)

D. Hire more software quality assurance personnel

115.

Use cases can be performed to test

a)

A. Performance testing

b)

B. Unit testing

c)

C. Business scenarios

d)

D. Static testing

116.

The ___________ technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage

a)

A. Boundary value analysis

b)

B. Equivalence partitioning

c)

C. Decision table testing

d)

D. State transition testing

117.

The __________ testing is performed at the developing organization's site

a)

A. Unit testing

b)

B. Regression testing

c)

C. Alpha testing

d)

D. Integration testing

118.

The software engineer's role in tool selection is

a)

A. To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to management

b)

B. To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy it

c)

C. To initiate the tool search and present a case to management

d)

D. To identify, evaluate and select the tools

119.

Which is not the software characteristics

a)

A. Reliability

b)

B. Usability

c)

C. Scalability

d)

D. Maintainability

120.

A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following:
i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities

a)

A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false

b)

B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false

c)

C. ii,iii are true and i and iv are false

d)

D. i,ii are false and iii , iv are true

121.

Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria

a)

A. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.

b)

B. Logging the outcome of test execution.

c)

C. Assessing if more tests are needed.

d)

D. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.