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Unit 1.2 Muscles Exam Review

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The gap between a neuron and a muscle cell: (#4 in the diagram)
a)

synaptic cleft or synapse

b)
sarcolemma
c)
vesicle
d)
Ca2+ ion
2.
Region where a motor neuron comes in close contact with a muscle cell.
a)
neurotransmitter
b)
muscular dystrophy
c)
muscle tension
d)
neuromuscular junction
3.
The organelle containing actin and myosin identified as #9
a)
ACh
b)
Sarcolemma
c)
Vesicle
d)
Myofibril
4.
The neurotransmitter stored in the axon terminal identified as #3
a)
Acetylcholine
b)
Protein Channel
c)
Calcium Ion (Ca2+)
d)
Syanptic Cleft
5.

The functional unit of a muscle that contracts is ...

a)

sarcomere

b)

motor unit

c)

fascicle

d)

myofibril

6.
Thick filaments are in a myofibril are
a)
ATPase
b)
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
c)
Actin
d)
Myosin
7.
Thin filaments in a myofibril are
a)
Sarcomeres
b)
Sarcoplasm
c)
Actin
d)
Myosin
8.
What two chemicals are necessary for muscle contraction to occur?
a)
Niacin and Potassium
b)
Calcium and ATP
c)
Sodium and Potassium
d)
Ach and Potassium
9.
What is the structure that stores the Calcium in the muscle cell.  
a)
Sarcoplasm
b)
Sarcolemma
c)
Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
d)
Myoglobin
10.
Skeletal Muscle contraction is initiated when the ________ sends a message to the muscle cell.  
a)
Muscle cell
b)
Neuron
c)
Gland
d)
None of the above
11.
The energy needed to perform a muscle contraction comes directly from
a)
ATP
b)
Oxygen
c)
Glucose
d)
Calcium
12.
What is a crossbridge?
a)
Where myosin binds to actin
b)
Where the calcium crosses into the cytoplasm
c)
Where calcium binds with troponin
d)
None of the answers are correct.
13.
___ and ___ are regulatory proteins bound to actin. 
a)
Troponin and tropomyosin
b)
Myosin and actin
c)
Calcium and Oxygen
d)
Glycogen and hemoglobin
14.
Calcium:
a)
causes ATP binding to actin
b)
increases the action potential along the sarcolemma
c)
binds to proteins on myosin
d)
triggers the binding of myosin to actin
15.

Which number represents the sarcomere?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

16.

Do the lengths of the thick and thin filaments change during contraction?

a)

Yes

b)

No

17.
The organelle that stores ACh in the axon is identified as #4
a)
Motor Neuron
b)
Axon Terminal of Motor Neuron
c)
Sarcolemma
d)
 Vesicle
18.
What state is the sarcomere in #1
a)
Relaxed
b)
Contracting
c)
Fully Contracted
d)
None of the above
19.
What state is the sarcomere in #2
a)
Relaxed
b)
Contracting
c)
Fully Contracted
d)
None of the above
20.

What is the order of the sliding filament theory

a)

Calcium Ca+ is released from Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Ca+ connects to Actin on the Troponin

c)

Tropomyosin spins to expose binding site

d)

Myosin binds to Actin

e)

Powerstroke occurs when ATP splits

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
21.

Which is the the Z-line?

A
B
C
D
22.

Which is the Actin?

A
B
C
D
23.

Which is the Myosin?

A
B
C
D
24.

Explain the role of troponin in regulating muscle contraction.

a)

Troponin causes muscle relaxation by increasing the concentration of calcium ions.

b)

Troponin has no role in regulating muscle contraction.

c)

Troponin regulates muscle contraction by facilitating the interaction between actin and myosin filaments in response to calcium ions.

d)

Troponin inhibits muscle contraction by preventing the interaction between actin and myosin filaments in response to calcium ions.

25.

The inner most connective tissue of a muscle is

a)

epimysium

b)

permysium

c)

cardiomysium

d)

endomysium

26.

The epimysium surrounds ...

a)

the muscle

b)

the fasicle

c)

the muscle fiber

d)

the myofilament

27.

Number 5 refers to a bundle of cells known as a:

a)

fascicle

b)

tendon

c)

muscle fiber

d)

myofilament

28.

Number 6 is pointing to a connective tissue that surrounds the individual muscle cells. This is known as the:

a)

epimysium

b)

perimysium

c)

endomysium

d)

tendon

29.

Number 2 refers to a fibrous connective tissue lining that covers the muscle known as the:

a)

epimysium

b)

perimysium

c)

endomysium

d)

tendon

30.

Which muscle types are involuntary?

a)

cardiac

b)

smooth

c)

skeletal

31.

Match the following

a)

skeletal muscle

1.

voluntary and striated

b)

smooth muscle

2.

involuntary and no striations

c)

cardiac muscle

3.

involuntary and striated

32.
A fascicle is made of many… (one step down)
a)
Muscle fibers
b)
Myofibrils
c)
Myofilaments
d)
Sarcomeres
33.
A muscle fiber is made of many… (one step down)
a)
Fascicles
b)
Myofilaments
c)
Myofibrils
d)
Sarcomeres
34.
A myofibril is made of many… (one step down)
a)
Myofilaments
b)
Myocytes
c)
Sarcomeres
d)
Fascicles
35.
A group of fascicles is a _____________.
a)
Muscle fiber
b)
Myofibril
c)
Muscle
d)
Sarcomere
36.
A group of myofibrils is a _____________.
a)
Fascicle
b)
Muscle fiber
c)
Muscle
d)
Sarcomere
37.
A group of muscle fibers is a ___________.
a)
Fascicle
b)
Myofibril
c)
Myofilament
d)
Sarcomere
38.

a)

extension

b)

flexion

c)

circumduction

d)

adduction

e)

abduction

39.

a)

extension

b)

flexion

c)

circumduction

d)

adduction

e)

abduction

40.

a)

supination

b)

pronation

c)

circumduction

d)

adduction

e)

rotation

41.

a)

supination

b)

pronation

c)

abduction

d)

adduction

e)

opposition

42.

a)

supination

b)

pronation

c)

abduction

d)

adduction

e)

opposition

43.

a)

inversion

b)

pronation

c)

extension

d)

adduction

e)

circumduction

44.

a)

inversion

b)

plantar flexion

c)

extension

d)

dorsiflexion

e)

circumduction

45.

a)

inversion

b)

plantar flexion

c)

extension

d)

dorsiflexion

e)

circumduction

46.

What are the three types of muscle?

a)

Smooth, Hard, Cardiac

b)

Cardiac, Smooth, Skeletal

c)

Skeleton, Heart, Bladder

47.
This type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of hollow organs such as the stomach 
a)
Skeletal
b)
Cardiac
c)
Smooth
48.

Choose which muscle naming rules are used for (check all that apply):

Pectoralis major

a)

Location of muscle

b)

Direction of the muscle fibers

c)

Relative size of the muscle

d)

Number of origins

e)

Location of the muscle's origin and insertion

49.

Choose which muscle naming rules are used for (check all that apply):

Frontalis

a)

Size of the muscle

b)

Shape of the muscle

c)

Action of the muscle

d)

Location of the muscle

e)

Direction of muscle fibers

50.

Choose which muscle naming rules are used for (check all that apply):

Rectus abdominis

a)

Action of the muscle

b)

Number of origins

c)

Location of the muscle

d)

Size of the muscle

e)

Direction of the muscle fibers

51.

Choose which muscle naming rules are used for (check all that apply):

Trapezius

a)

Action of the muscle

b)

Direction of the muscle fibers

c)

Number of origins

d)

Relative size of the muscle

e)

Shape of the muscle

52.

Choose which muscle naming rules are used for (check all that apply):

Adductor group

a)

Relative size of the muscle

b)

Location of the muscle

c)

Number of origins

d)

Action of the muscle

e)

Shape of the muscle

53.

Choose which muscle naming rules are used for (check all that apply):

Sternocleidomastoid

a)

Shape of the muscle

b)

Number of origins

c)

Location of muscle

d)

Location of the muscle's origin and insertion

e)

Direction of the muscle fibers

54.

Choose which muscle naming rules are used for (check all that apply): Gluteus medius

a)

Location of the muscle

b)

Relative size of the muscle

c)

Direction of the muscle fibers

d)

Action of the muscle

e)

Shape of the muscle

55.

The situation in which a muscle loses its ability to contract, due to being used strenuously for a long period of time

a)

muscle pain

b)

muscle cramp

c)

muscle fatigue

d)

oxygen debt

56.

What muscle inserts on the humerus and originates on the clavicle and sternum

a)

deltoid

b)

brachioradialis

c)

pectoralis major

d)

biceps brachii

57.

This muscle is located on the upper chest and function in adduction and flexion of the arm/shoulder

a)

latissimus dorsi

b)

brachialis

c)

deltoid

d)

pectoralis major

58.

The ORIGIN is the muscle attachment to the _______ bone.

a)

Stationary

b)

Movable

59.

The muscle attachment to the movable bone is the:

a)

Muscle belly

b)

Muscle body

c)

Insertion

d)

Fascicle

60.

Match the following

a)

Tendon

1.

attaches a muscle to a bone

b)

Ligament

2.

attaches a bone to another bone

c)

Fascia

3.

creates a membrane-like covering for muscles

61.

Match the following

a)
1.

smooth or visceral muscle

b)
2.

cardiac muscle

c)
3.

skeletal muscle

62.

Which elbow muscle provides extension of the elbow and originates on the humerus?

a)

biceps brachii

b)

triceps brachii

c)

brachialis

d)

brachioradialis

63.

Decreases the angle between bones at a joint

a)

flexion

b)

extension

c)

elevation

d)

retraction

64.

Which type of joint makes up most joints in the body?

a)

Synovial

b)

Fibrous

c)

Cartilaginous

d)

Skeletal

65.

Which is an example of a hinge joint

a)

The neck

b)

The knee

c)

The ankle

d)

The thumb

66.

Which is an example of a condyloid/ellipsoidal joint

a)

The metocarpophalangeal joints (the knuckles)

b)

The carpometacarpal joint (the thumb)

c)

The carpals of the wrist

d)

The tarsals of the ankle

67.

Which is a ball-and-socket joint

a)

The thumb

b)

The shoulder

c)

The elbow

d)

The radioulnar joint

68.

A hinge joint allows

a)

A wide range of movements

b)

Circumduction

c)

Rotation

d)

Movement in only one direction (ie. backwards & forwards)

69.

Which type of joint has one bone rotating around a central axis

a)

saddle

b)

condyloid/ellipsoidal

c)

pivot

d)

hinger

70.

Where can a saddle joint be found?

a)

Wrist

b)

Skull

c)

Vertebra

d)

Thumb

71.

What joint is displayed in picture?

a)

hinge joint

b)

plane joint

c)

pivot joint

72.

What joint is displayed in picture

a)

Hinge Joint

b)

Saddle joint

c)

Ball and socket joint

73.

What type of joint is displayed in the picture?

a)

Saddle joint

b)

Ellipsoid joint

c)

Pivot joint

74.

What type of joint is displayed in the picture?

a)

Pivot joint

b)

Ellipsoid joint

c)

Hinge joint

75.

Which is one of the functional ways a joint is classified

a)

Fibrous—tend to be immovable

b)

Amphiarthroses—slightly movable joints

c)

Synovial –tend to be freely movable

76.

Which is one of the structural ways a joint is classified?

a)

Cartilaginous—both immovable and slightly

movable

b)

Synarthroses—immovable joints

c)

Diarthroses—freely movable joints

77.

The joints that allow the most movement are called

a)

Fixed

b)

Fibrous

c)

Cartilaginous

d)

Synovial

78.
Fibrous joints are?
a)
freely moveable
b)
partially moveable
c)
immovable
79.

What is the primary function of synovial fluid?

a)

To provide oxygen to joint tissues

b)

To allow movement between cartilage

c)

To connect bones together

d)

To produce red blood cells

80.

your friend gets their upper ear pierced. What type of cartilage did they pierce?

a)

hyaline

b)

fibrous

c)

elastic

81.

our pelvis is joined in the front by this type of cartilage

a)

hyaline

b)

fibrous

c)

elastic

82.

A herniated disk is a rupture in this type of cartilage

a)

hyaline

b)

fibrous

c)

elastic

83.

A swallow stud,y using barium, us used to study how well a person is managing food. The therapist is concentrating on the function of this cartilage

a)

hyaline

b)

fibrous

c)

elastic

84.

The job of the PCL is to

a)

keep the femur from moving backwards under the tibia

b)

keep the patella from dislocating

c)

keep the tibia from moving backwards under the femur

d)

prevent a patellar tendon strain

85.

The job of the meniscus is

a)

to provide stability

b)

provide cushion

c)

hold condyles

d)

all of these

86.

Which muscles is the knee flexor?

a)

deltoid

b)

gastroc

c)

hamstring

d)

quad

87.

A blow to the front of the tibia is likely to cause a

a)

meniscus tear

b)

ACL tear

c)

MCL tear

d)

PCL tear

88.

The quadricep is the knee flexor

a)

true

b)

false

89.
WHAT IS #2
a)
LATERAL MENSICUS 
b)
LATERAL COLLATERAL LIGAMENT 
c)
MEDIAL MENISCUS 
d)
POSTERIOR CRUCIATE LIGAMENT 
90.
WHAT IS #1
a)
MEDIAL COLLATERAL LIGAMENT
b)
LATERAL COLLATERAL LIGAMENT 
c)
ANTERIOR CRUCIATE LIGAMENT
d)
POSTERIOR CRUCIATE LIGAMENT 
91.
WHAT MOTION DOES THE ACL (ANTERIOR CRUCIATE LIGAMENT) CONTROL? 
a)
ANTERIOR TRANSLATION OF THE TALUS 
b)
ANTERIOR TRANSLATION OF THE TIBIA
c)
POSTERIOR TRANSLATION OF THE TIBIA
d)
POSTERIOR TRANSLATION OF THE ULNA 
92.
WHAT TYPE OF FORCE CAUSES INJURY TO THE MCL (medial collateral ligament)?
a)
VALGUS
b)
VARUS
c)
INVERSION
d)
SUPINATION 
93.
WHAT IS A SPECIAL TEST FOR THE LCL
a)
ANTERIOR DRAWER
b)
VALGUS STRESS TEST 
c)
VARUS STRESS TEST 
d)
APLEY'S COMPRESSON AND DISTRACTION 

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