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Knee Review

Total questions: 54

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Where does the IllioTibial (IT) Band insert?

a)

Tibial plateau

b)

Gurdy’s Tubercle

c)

Tibial Tuberosity

d)

Lateral condyle

2.

The head of the fibula articulates with the _______ .

a)

femur

b)

tibia

c)

humerus

d)

ulna

3.

What type of bone is the patella?

a)

Long bone

b)

Sesamoid bone

c)

Flat bone

d)

Irregular bone

4.

Which type of joint is the Tibiofemoral joint?

a)

A) Ball and socket

b)

B) Hinge joint

c)

C) Pivot joint

5.

The joint between the patella and the femur is called the _________.

a)

Patellofemoral

b)

Tibiofemoral

c)

Humeroulnar

d)

Glenohumeral

6.

What type of disks are menisci?

4 lines
7.

The PCL (posterior cruciate ligament) prevents the tibia from moving ________.

a)

posterior

b)

anterior

c)

laterally

d)

medially

8.

Which muscles are part of the quadriceps?

a)

Biceps femoris, Semitendinosus,

Semimembranosus

b)

Rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius

c)

Gastrocnemius

d)

Soleus

9.

The quadriceps are responsible for ______ and hip flexion.

a)

Knee extension.

b)

Knee flexion.

c)

Ankle extension.

d)

Hip extension.

10.

The biceps femoris is responsible for ________.

a)

knee flexion, hip extension

b)

elbow extension

c)

shoulder abduction

d)

wrist flexion

11.

What are the functions of the Sartorius muscle?

a)

Knee flexion, hip flexion, hip external rotation

b)

Hip adduction, knee extension

c)

Hip abduction, knee flexion

d)

Hip external rotation, knee extension

12.

What is another name for Pes anserine?

a)

Goose's foot

b)

Duck's foot

c)

Swan's foot

13.

What is the condition called when someone is knock-kneed?

a)

A) Genu varum

b)

B) Genu valgum

c)

C) Genu recurvatum

14.

What is another mechanism (Mxn) of ACL rupture besides 'Plant and twist'?

a)

Hyperextension

b)

Flexion

c)

Compression

d)

Rotation

15.
Which two ligaments are on the sides of the knee? 
a)
ACL and PCL 
b)
MCL and LCL 
c)
MCL and ACL 
d)
ACL and LCL 
16.

Which muscle group would flex your knee?

a)

QUADS

b)

hamstrings

c)

gastrocnemius and soleus

d)

none of these

17.

Which bone is known as the kneecap?

a)

Femur

b)

Patella

c)

Tibia

d)

Fibula

18.

What is the primary function of the meniscus in the knee?

a)

Stabilize the knee

b)

Lubricate the joint

c)

Absorb shock

d)

Facilitate blood flow

19.

Which knee stress test would be used to assess the integrity of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)?

a)

Lachman test

b)

McMurray test

c)

Varus stress test

d)

Valgus stress test

20.

What is the primary purpose of the McMurray test?

a)

To assess the medial and lateral menisci

b)

To evaluate the lateral collateral ligament

c)

To test the posterior cruciate ligament

d)

To check for patellar dislocation

21.

Which test is commonly used to evaluate the integrity of the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) in the knee?

a)

Valgus stress test

b)

Varus stress test

c)

Anterior drawer test

d)

Posterior drawer test

22.

Which knee stress test is used to assess the integrity of the medial collateral ligament (MCL)?

a)

Valgus stress test

b)

Varus stress test

c)

Lachman test

d)

McMurray test

23.

What is the primary purpose of the Apley's compression test?

a)

To assess the meniscus

b)

To evaluate the anterior cruciate ligament

c)

To test the lateral collateral ligament

d)

To check for patellar dislocation

24.

Which test is commonly used to evaluate the integrity of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) in the knee?

a)

Posterior drawer test

b)

Anterior drawer test

c)

Valgus stress test

d)

Varus stress test

25.

Which part of the knee is primarily affected by chondromalacia?

a)

Meniscus

b)

Patella

c)

Femur

d)

Tibia

26.

What is a common symptom of chondromalacia?

a)

Swelling in the ankle

b)

Pain behind the kneecap

c)

Stiffness in the hip

d)

Weakness in the wrist

27.

What is Osgood-Schlatter disease primarily associated with?

a)

Growth spurts in adolescents

b)

Degenerative joint disease

c)

Infection in the knee joint

d)

Fracture of the tibia

28.

What is a common symptom of Osgood-Schlatter disease?

a)

Swelling and pain at the tibial tuberosity

b)

Stiffness in the ankle

c)

Weakness in the wrist

d)

Dislocation of the patella

29.

What does the acronym RICE stand for in the context of injury treatment?

a)

Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation

b)

Run, Ice, Compress, Elevate

c)

Relax, Ice, Compress, Elevate

d)

Rest, Ice, Cool, Elevate

30.

Which of the following is the primary purpose of applying ice in the RICE method?

a)

To increase blood flow

b)

To reduce swelling

c)

To strengthen muscles

d)

To improve flexibility

31.

RICE is the general treatment method used for sprains and strains.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

What is Sinding-Larsen-Johansson disease primarily associated with?

a)

Overuse injury in adolescents

b)

Degenerative joint disease

c)

Infection in the knee joint

d)

Fracture of the patella

33.

Which part of the knee is affected by Sinding-Larsen-Johansson disease?

a)

Patellar tendon

b)

Medial meniscus

c)

Lateral collateral ligament

d)

Anterior cruciate ligament

34.

What is a common symptom of Sinding-Larsen-Johansson disease?

a)

Pain at the bottom of the kneecap

b)

Swelling in the ankle

c)

Weakness in the wrist

d)

Dislocation of the patella

35.

What is the primary purpose of Clark's sign test?

a)

To assess the integrity of the anterior cruciate ligament

b)

To evaluate the presence of chondromalacia patellae

c)

To test the stability of the medial collateral ligament

d)

To check for meniscal tears

36.

Which of the following is a common symptom that might prompt a Clark's sign test?

a)

Swelling in the ankle

b)

Pain behind the kneecap

c)

Stiffness in the hip

d)

Weakness in the wrist

37.

During Clark's sign test, what action is the patient asked to perform?

a)

Extend the knee while the examiner applies pressure on the patella

b)

Flex the knee while the examiner applies pressure on the tibia

c)

Rotate the hip while the examiner stabilizes the pelvis

d)

Flex the ankle while the examiner applies pressure on the heel

38.

What is the primary cause of patellar tendonitis?

a)

Overuse and repetitive stress on the knee

b)

Genetic predisposition

c)

Viral infection

d)

Direct trauma to the knee

39.

Which of the following is a common symptom of patellar tendonitis?

a)

Sharp pain at the base of the kneecap

b)

Swelling in the ankle

c)

Stiffness in the hip

d)

Weakness in the wrist

40.

What is a recommended treatment method for patellar tendonitis?

a)

Rest and ice application

b)

Immediate surgery

c)

High-intensity exercise

d)

Ignoring the pain

41.

What is the most common cause of patellar dislocations?

a)

Direct trauma to the knee

b)

Overuse and repetitive stress

c)

Genetic predisposition

d)

Improper footwear

42.

Which of the following is a common symptom of a patellar dislocation?

a)

Swelling and pain around the kneecap

b)

Stiffness in the hip

c)

Weakness in the wrist

d)

Swelling in the ankle

43.

Which part of the knee is primarily affected by jumper's knee?

a)

Medial meniscus

b)

Patellar tendon

c)

Lateral collateral ligament

d)

Anterior cruciate ligament

44.

What is the primary purpose of a compression wrap?

a)

To increase blood flow

b)

To reduce swelling and provide support

c)

To enhance muscle growth

d)

To improve flexibility

45.

Which of the following is a common material used for compression wraps?

a)

Cotton

b)

Elastic bandage

c)

Leather

d)

Silk

46.

Compression wraps are applied proximal to the injury and finish distal to the injury.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

What is an important consideration when adjusting crutches for a user?

a)

The crutches should be too long

b)

The crutches should be too short

c)

The crutches should allow a slight bend in the elbow

d)

The crutches should be adjusted to the user's waist height

48.

What is the primary reason for using crutches in treatment?

a)

To improve the cardiovascular system in the individual with the hurt limb and therefor helping the healing process

b)

To reduce weight-bearing on an injured limb preventing further injury and helping the healing process

c)

To enhance muscle strength in the arms to prevent furth damage to the limb

d)

None of these

49.

What is the primary purpose of the patellar float test?

a)

To assess the presence of a knee intercapsular swelling

b)

To evaluate the integrity of the anterior cruciate ligament

c)

To test for meniscal tears

d)

To check for patellar dislocation

50.

During the patellar float test, what indicates a positive result?

a)

The patella moves freely and floats above the femur

b)

The patella is immobile and fixed in place

c)

The patella shifts laterally with pressure

d)

The patella exhibits crepitus during movement

51.

The anterior cruciate ligament:

a)

Prevents anterior sliding of the tibia 

b)

Prevents anterior sliding of the femur

c)

Limits flexion of knee 

d)

Prevents adduction of the tibia

52.

What is bursitis?

a)

Inflammation of the knee joint

b)

Inflammation of the bursa

c)

Fracture of the knee cap

d)

Dislocation of the knee

53.

What is the primary function of bursae in the human body?

a)

To provide structural support to bones

b)

To reduce friction between tissues

c)

To store calcium

d)

To produce synovial fluid

54.

Which of the following are a common cause of bursitis?

a)

Repetitive motion or overuse

b)

Viral infection

c)

deterioration of the articular cartilage

d)

Direct blow to the knee