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On Field Assessment - Acute Care

Total questions: 52

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When injuries occur, while generally not life-threatening, they require prompt care. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Why is time a factor in emergencies?

a)

Time allows for better planning and resource allocation.

b)

Time is crucial for quick response and minimizing harm.

c)

Time helps in gathering more information about the emergency.

d)

Time is not a significant factor in emergencies.

3.

Mistakes in initial injury management can lead to:

a)

Faster recovery

b)

Chronic issues

c)

No effect

d)

Improved performance

4.

What is the primary concern in an Emergency Action Plan?

a)

Maintaining cardiovascular and CNS functioning

b)

Evaluating the injured athlete

c)

Acting reasonably and prudently

d)

Having a prearranged plan

5.

What is the key to emergency aid according to the Emergency Action Plan?

a)

Maintaining cardiovascular and CNS functioning

b)

Initial evaluation of the injured athlete

c)

Acting reasonably and prudently

d)

Having a prearranged plan

6.

Members of the sports medicine team must at all times act ______ and prudently.

a)

reasonably

b)

recklessly

c)

carelessly

d)

hastily

7.

According to the Emergency Action Plan, what must be prearranged and ready to implement on a moment's notice?

a)

A plan

b)

A team of experts

c)

A communication system

d)

A list of emergency contacts

8.

What should be developed for each facility according to the Emergency Action Plan?

a)

A single plan for all facilities

b)

Separate plans

c)

No plans needed

d)

A plan for every other facility.

9.

What policies and procedures should be established according to the Emergency Action Plan?

a)

Equipment and helmet removal

b)

Food and beverage

c)

Cleaning and maintenance

d)

Scheduling and booking

10.

What should be available according to the Emergency Action Plan?

a)

Access to the internet

b)

Availability of phones and access to 911

c)

Access to a gym

d)

Availability of snacks

11.

What should an athletic trainer be familiar with according to the Emergency Action Plan?

a)

First aid procedures

b)

Emergency contact numbers

c)

Facility layout and access points

d)

All of the above

12.

What type of information should be relayed about the type of emergency?

a)

Location of the emergency

b)

Nature of the emergency

c)

Time of the emergency

d)

Number of people involved

13.

Which of the following should NOT be communicated regarding the suspected injury during an emergency call?

a)

The exact location of the injury

b)

The severity and type of injury

c)

The time the injury occurred

d)

The birthplace of the person injured

14.

What details about the present condition should be provided to medical personnel?

a)

Symptoms and duration

b)

Medical history

c)

Current medications

d)

All of the above

15.

Why is it important to provide the location of the phone being used during an emergency call?

a)

To ensure emergency services can reach you quickly

b)

To verify the identity of the caller

c)

To reduce the cost of the call

d)

To improve the quality of the call

16.

What details about the location of the emergency should be communicated?

a)

Exact address and nearby landmarks

b)

Only the city name

c)

Just the street name

d)

No details are necessary

17.

What must be easily accessible according to the Emergency Action Plan?

a)

Emergency exits

b)

First aid kits

c)

Fire extinguishers

d)

All of the above

18.

Plans should also be in place for which other game personnel?

a)

Coaches

b)

Referees

c)

All options should be included in the EAP

d)

Spectators

19.

What is the role of an EMT in the transportation of an athlete during an emergency?

a)

Provide immediate medical care and stabilize the athlete for transport

b)

Drive the ambulance to the hospital

c)

Ensure the athlete's equipment is safely transported

d)

Communicate with the athlete's family

20.

When an athlete is a minor, what should the ATC try to obtain from the parent prior to emergency treatment?

a)

Parental consent

b)

Medical history

c)

Insurance information

d)

Emergency contact details

21.

What does consent indicate in the context of parent notification for athletic treatment?

a)

Permission for treatment without notifying parents

b)

Agreement to notify parents about the treatment

c)

Authorization for emergency treatment only

d)

Consent is not required for athletic treatment

22.

With no informed consent, what is implied on the part of the athlete to save their life?

a)

Assumed consent

b)

Explicit refusal

c)

Legal waiver

d)

Medical negligence

23.

On-field assessment is divided into ______ and secondary survey.

a)

primary

b)

tertiary

c)

initial

d)

final

24.

Which of the following is a purpose of on-field assessment?

a)

A) Determine nature of injury

b)

B) Provides information regarding direction of treatment

c)

C) Both A and B

25.

Which of the following is assessed during the primary survey?

a)

Airway

b)

Breathing

c)

Circulation

d)

All of the above

26.

The primary survey is used to correct ________ conditions.

a)

life-threatening

b)

minor

c)

chronic

d)

non-urgent

27.

What is the main focus of the secondary survey in on-the-field injury assessment?

a)
To assess the psychological state of the athlete.
b)
To assess for additional injuries and gather detailed information about the athlete's condition.
c)
To determine the athlete's eligibility to continue playing.
d)
To provide immediate first aid to the athlete.
28.

What takes precedence in a primary survey?

a)

Minor injuries

b)

Life threatening injuries

c)

Non-urgent injuries

d)

Routine check-ups

29.

Emergency Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation should be certified through organizations such as the American Heart Association, American Red Cross, and the ________.

a)

National Safety Council

b)

American Medical Association

c)

National Institute of Health

d)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

30.

What does ABC stand for in the context of treating an unconscious athlete?

a)

ABC stands for Airway, Breathing, and Circulation.

b)

ABC stands for Alertness, Breathing, and Compression.

c)

ABC stands for Assessment, Breathing, and CPR.

d)

ABC stands for Airway, Blood flow, and Consciousness.

31.

True or False: You should assume neck and spine injury when dealing with an unconscious athlete.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

When should you remove the helmet and/or shoulder pads of an unconscious athlete?

a)
Remove the helmet if the athlete is conscious.
b)
Remove the helmet and/or shoulder pads if they obstruct airway management or pose a risk of further injury.
c)
Leave the helmet and shoulder pads on at all times.
d)
Remove the helmet only if the athlete is breathing.
33.

What should be done if an athlete is supine and not breathing?

a)

Establish ABC's immediately

b)

Wait for consciousness to resume

c)

Perform a secondary survey

d)

Monitor vitals until emergency personnel arrive

34.

If an athlete is unconscious and breathing, what should be done?

a)

Establish ABC's immediately

b)

Monitor vital signs until consciousness resumes

c)

Log roll and establish ABC's

d)

Perform a secondary survey

35.

If an athlete is prone and not breathing, what action should be taken?

a)

Establish ABC's immediately

b)

Log roll and establish ABC's

c)

Perform a secondary survey

d)

Monitor vitals until emergency personnel arrive

36.

If an athlete is prone and breathing, what should be done until consciousness resumes?

a)

Establish ABC's immediately

b)

Nothing, then carefully log roll and continue to monitor ABC's

c)

Perform a secondary survey

d)

Monitor vitals until emergency personnel arrive

37.

Vitals should be monitored and maintained until ________ arrive.

a)

emergency personnel

b)

the patient recovers

c)

the situation worsens

d)

the equipment fails

38.

Once stabilized, what should be performed?

a)

Establish ABC's

b)

Wait for consciousness to resume

c)

Perform a secondary survey

d)

Monitor vitals until emergency personnel arrive

39.

What is a potential risk of removing equipment from an unconscious athlete?

a)

It may compromise lifesaving efforts

b)

It may improve the situation

c)

It has no effect

d)

It is always beneficial

40.

Which tools are recommended for removing a facemask from an unconscious athlete?

a)

Anvil Pruner

b)

Trainer’s Angel

c)

FM Extractor

d)

Speed Clip Release

e)

All of the above

41.

Why is the use of a pocket mask/barrier mandated by OSHA during CPR?

a)

To ensure effective ventilation

b)

To protect the rescuer from infectious diseases

c)

To improve the patient's survival rate

d)

To comply with legal requirements

42.

What must be done with shoulder pads and helmet when dealing with an unconscious athlete?

a)

Both must come off

b)

Both must remain in place

c)

Both must either come off or remain in place

d)

Only helmet must be removed

43.

Removal should occur if (a)   .

Choose from the below words

Head is not secure

Airway can’t be controlled

Facemask can’t be removed in reasonable amount of time

Helmet prevents immobilization

44.

What is the correct process of using a pocket mask during CPR?

a)

Place the mask over the victim's nose and mouth, seal it, and deliver breaths.

b)

Place the mask on the victim's forehead and deliver breaths.

c)

Use the mask to cover only the victim's mouth and deliver breaths.

d)

Place the mask on the victim's chest and deliver compressions.

45.

Which of the following is a correct step in using a bag valve mask?

a)

Place the mask over the patient's nose and mouth.

b)

Inflate the bag before placing it on the patient.

c)

Use the mask without checking the patient's airway.

d)

Apply the mask loosely over the face.

46.

What is the color and flow characteristic of venous bleeding?

a)

A) Dark red with continuous flow

b)

B) Bright red with spurting flow

c)

C) Exudes from tissue and is reddish.

47.

What type of bleeding oozes from tissue and is reddish?

a)

A) Venous

b)

B) Capillary

c)

C) Arterial

48.

Arterial bleeding flows in ______ and is bright red.

a)

spurts.

b)

a slow trickle.

c)

a steady stream.

d)

pulses.

49.

What precautions must be taken to reduce the risk of bloodborne pathogens exposure?

a)

Universal precautions must be taken to reduce risk of bloodborne pathogens exposure.

b)

No precautions are necessary as bloodborne pathogens are not harmful.

c)

Only wear gloves when dealing with bloodborne pathogens.

d)

Avoid washing hands after exposure to bloodborne pathogens.

50.

What is the purpose of applying direct pressure on a wound?

a)

To increase blood flow

b)

To reduce pain

c)

To stop bleeding

d)

To clean the wound

51.

Fill in the blank: Elevation reduces hydrostatic pressure and facilitates venous and lymphatic drainage, which ______ bleeding.

a)

reduces

b)

increases

c)

causes

d)

stops

52.

What does EAP stand for?

a)

emergency action plan

b)

early action plan

c)

emergency action play

d)

emergency adduction plan