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AP Macro Final exam Review

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What does point Y represent on the PPC?
a)
Efficiency
b)
Unattainable / impossible
c)
Inefficency
d)
Nothing
2.
What does point B represent?
a)
Production at greater than the country's minimum potential
b)
Production is less than the country's minimum potential
c)
Productive inefficiency
d)
Productive efficiency
3.
Which point represents "resources are not being used efficiently, or resources are being wasted or idle"?
a)
Point A
b)
Point Y
c)
Point X
d)
All of the above
4.

The opportunity cost of a good is

a)

its price in dollars and cents.

b)

the alternative goods forgone.

c)

the price of alternative goods foregone.

d)

none of the other options

5.
The Welch family has saved some money.  They can spend it on a vacation to the Grand Canyon or build a swimming pool in their back yard.  They decide to spend the money on a swimming pool.  What is the opportunity cost of their decision?
a)
vacation 
b)
swimming pool 
6.

Countries will export goods and services that they can produce at lower costs. This is called —

a)

oligarchy

b)

monopoly

c)

comparative advantage

d)

capitalism

7.

The basis of trade based from the lowest opportunity cost is considered as ____.

a)

Factor Endowment

b)

Adam Smith Theory

c)

Comparative Advantage

d)

Absolute Advantage

8.
The picture illustrates
a)
an increase in demand
b)
a decrease in demand
c)
an increase in quantity demanded
d)
a decrease in quantity demanded
9.
The picture illustrates
a)
an increase in demand
b)
a decrease in demand
c)
an increase in quantity demanded
d)
a decrease in quantity demanded
10.
The picture illustrates
a)
an increase in supply
b)
a decrease in supply
c)
an increase in quantity supplied
d)
a decrease in quantity supplied
11.
The picture illustrates
a)
an increase in demand
b)
a decrease in demand
c)
an change in quantity demanded
12.

What are factors (besides price) that determine demand

a)

income, prices of related goods, demand curve

b)

consumer taste, market size, decisions by businesses

c)

demand curve, market size, income

d)

market size, income, consumer taste/style

13.

As income rises...

a)

demand decreases

b)

demand increases

c)

demand is unchanged

d)

demand fluctuates

14.

Which of the following would cause the demand curve to

shift to the right?

a)

a popular toys loses appeal

b)

Suppliers expect higher prices in the future

c)

price of a substitute good decreases

d)

the average annual income increases

15.
A decrease in the price of a good will
a)
Decrease quantity supplied
b)
Decrease demand
16.

What might cause the supply curve to shift left?

a)

price of a complementary good decreases

b)

large number of producers enter the market

c)

computer processing improves production

d)

a new law is passed requiring all new motorcycles to have back-up cameras

17.

Which of the following leads to an decrease in supply?

a)

an increase in the cost of raw materials

b)

diminishing marginal returns

c)

a decrease in the cost of raw materials

d)

a change in the law of supply

18.

Which of these do the producers of an item hope to achieve when adopting new technology?

a)

a shift of the supply curve for that item to the left

b)

repeal of the subsidy for that item

c)

inelasticity of supply of that item

d)

a shift of the supply curve for that item to the right

19.
Cars, TVs, computers belong in which part of the GDP formula?
GDP = C+I+G+(X-M)
a)
Consumption Expenditures
b)
Investment Expenditures
c)
Government Expenditures
d)
Net Imports
20.
An airline buying a plane belong in which part of the GDP formula?
GDP = C+I+G+(X-M)
a)
Consumption Expenditures
b)
Investment Expenditures
c)
Government Expenditures
d)
Net Imports
21.
An airline buying a plane belong in which part of the GDP formula?
GDP = C+I+G+(X-M)
a)
Consumption Expenditures
b)
Investment Expenditures
c)
Government Expenditures
d)
Net Imports
22.
Tanks and roads belong in which part of the GDP formula?
GDP = C+I+G+(X-M)
a)
Consumption Expenditures
b)
Investment Expenditures
c)
Government Expenditures
d)
Net Imports
23.
What type of GDP is calculated with the current year's prices?
a)
Nominal GDP
b)
Real GDP
c)
GDP per capita
24.

Nominal GDP is not a good measure of economic output. Why?

a)

Nominal GDP does not adjust for price changes over time.

b)

Nominal GDP does not capture true economic activity.

c)

Nominal GDP is not able to be used to make international comparisons.

25.

Real GDP is obtained by

a)

Nominal GDP minus GDP deflator.

b)

Nominal GDP divided by GDP deflator multiplied by 100.

c)

Nominal GDP multiplied by price level.

d)

Nominal GDP divided by CPI.

26.

GDP deflator

a)

Evaluates inflation by utilizing present production basket

b)

Shows real GDP growth on the basis of current production

c)

The GDP deflator is in real terms while the CPI is in nominal terms

27.

If operators are fired and replaced with computer technology, the operators would be considered

a)

frictionally unemployed

b)

structurally unemployed

c)

cyclically unemployed

d)

dissatisfiededly unemployed dissatisfiededly unemployed

28.

Cyclical unemployment

a)

Describes recent college graduates

b)

Lasts longer than 6 months

c)

Describes employees moving from one job to another

d)

Increases inflation Increases inflation

29.

If auto workers lose their jobs as the industry becomes far more technically intensive and capital intensive, what form of unemployment occurs?

a)

Cyclical

b)

Seasonal

c)

Frictional

d)

Structural

30.

To measure the average price level of items that consumers actually buy, the Bureau of Labor and Statistics use the

a)

Gross Domestic Product

b)

Unemployment Rate

c)

Consumer Price Index

d)

National Production Rate

31.

If the price of imported Canadian lumber increases

a)

AS shifts left (decrease)

b)

AS shifts right (increase)

c)

AD shifts left (decrease)

d)

AD shifts right (increase)

32.

Shifters of aggregate demand include

a)

Change in consumer spending

b)

Change in investment spending

c)

Change in government spending

d)

Change in net exports

33.

Assume that the economy is at long run equilibrium and that the government increases spending. In the short run, AD will increase. In the long run, what will happen?

a)

AD will decrease

b)

AS will decrease

c)

AD will increase

d)

AS will increase

34.

Assume the economy is in long run equilibrium and trading partners increase the price of oil, a key resource

a)

AD will shift right and an inflationary gap will result

b)

AD will shift left and a recessionary gap will result

c)

AS will shift right and an inflationary gap will result

d)

AS will shift left and a recessionary gap will result

e)

No change will result

35.

Assume the economy is in long run equilibrium and the government increases spending on healthcare

a)

AD will shift right and an inflationary gap will result

b)

AD will shift left and a recessionary gap will result

c)

AS will shift right and an inflationary gap will result

d)

AS will shift left and a recessionary gap will result

e)

No change will result

36.

A decrease in interest rates resulting in the increase in capital stock will likely cause which of the following in the long-run?

a)

Decrease in only aggregate demand

b)

Increase in only aggregate demand

c)

Increase in only aggregate supply

d)

Increase in aggregate demand, aggregate supply, and long-run aggregate supply

37.

__________ occurs in the economy when unemployment and inflation are both high.

a)

Hyperinflation

b)

Disinflation

c)

Deflation

d)

Stagflation

38.
Who is in charge of fiscal policy?
a)
Government
b)
Federal Reserve
39.
Taxing & spending to help the economy grow is referred to as
a)
expansionary policy
b)
monetary policy
c)
contractionary policy
d)
budget deficit
40.
Taxing & spending to slow the economy is referred to as 
a)
budget surplus 
b)
monetary policy
c)
contractionary policy
d)
budget deficit
41.
If the unemployment rate is rising and GDP is falling, the fiscal policy action that the federal government should MOST likely follow is 
a)
decreasing taxes.
b)
decreasing spending.
c)
decreasing the money supply.
d)
decreasing the reserve requirement.
42.
If and economy experiences a dramatic rise in prices, which fiscal policy action could be taken?
a)
Selling securities on the open market
b)
Raising interest rates
c)
Reducing government spending
d)
Raising reserve requirements
43.
The Federal government is concerned that economic growth is too high, that it is unsustainable, and that inflation is resulting. Which of the following fiscal policies  might be enacted to reduce inflation?
a)
Increasing taxation
b)
Open market sales
c)
decreasing taxation
d)
Increasing government spending
44.
Which of these is NOT a monetary policy tool?
a)
Discount rate
b)
Balance Accounts
c)
Open Market Operation
d)
Reserved Requirements
45.
Selling bonds
a)
increases money supply
b)
decreases money supply
46.
Buying bonds
a)
increases money supply
b)
decreases money supply
47.
High reserve requirements 
a)
lower the money supply
b)
increase the money supply
48.
Low reserve requirements 
a)
lower the money supply
b)
increase the money supply
49.
What action would the Federal Reserve take to control inflation?
a)
Buy government securities
b)
Decrease the required reserve ratio
c)
Increase taxes
d)
Increase the discount rate
50.
The Fed keeps a certain amount of money out of circulation. This is referred to as....
a)
Reserve requirement
b)
Emergency Fund
c)
Stockpile
d)
Hoard
51.
The shift in the graph could be caused by
a)
government deficit spending.
b)
the crowding out effect.
c)
an increase in wealth.
d)
an increase in personal savings.
52.
The shift in the graph could be caused by
a)
a government budget deficit.
b)
a government budget surplus.
c)
an increase in consumer wealth.
d)
a new technological innovation.
53.
 What is measured on the Y axis of the Loanable funds market?
a)
real interest rate
b)
nominal interest nominal interest rate
c)
quantity of loanable funds
d)
quantity of money
54.
 Assume that the government wants to borrow more money than before.   How would this affect the loanable funds market? 
a)
demand for loanable funds increases
b)
demand for loanable funds decreases
c)
there is no change to demand for loanable funds
55.

What are capital goods?

a)

goods that are produced in the capital

b)

the factories, machinery, and technology used to produce goods and services

c)

goods that are produced without natural resources

d)

goods that are produced by the government

56.

Why should countries invest in developing capital goods?

a)

they shouldn't, it is too expensive

b)

because capital goods cannot be sold to other countries

c)

when countries invest in capital goods, they are providing better facilities, resources, and/or materials for the people who perform the labor, which creates a more productive workforce leading to greater economic growth (higher GDP).

d)

because capital goods are less expensive than private goods

57.

What are the 4 factors that lead to a country’s economic growth?

a)

investment in human capital, investment in physical capital, land (natural resources), entrepreneurship

b)

good international relations, a democratic president, strict laws, freedom of press

c)

a powerful military, strong dictatorial leadership, communist regime, little personal freedom

d)

a monarchy, the World Bank, a parliamentary democracy, personal freedom

58.

The long run Philips curve is also known as the

a)

real output rate

b)

natural rate of inflation

c)

natural unemployment rate

d)

real interest rate

59.

Which of the following is LEAST likely to affect the long-run growth of an economy?

a)

Investment in physical capital

b)

Research and development

c)

Education and training

d)

A specific tax on luxury goods

e)

Stable and efficient institutions

60.

The annual difference between a country's exports and imports is called what?

a)

Net Exports

b)

High Exports

c)

Low Exports