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WorksheetsChiến lược tổ chức
Total questions: 60
Worksheet time: 10hrs 0mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What are the three integrative management tasks of the AFI Strategy Framework?
a)
A. Vision, Mission, and Goals.
b)
B. Analysis, Formulation, and Implementation.
c)
C. Stakeholder Management, Corporate Governance, and Ethical Leadership.
d)
D. Strategy Planning, Marketing, and Sales
e)
E. Leadership, Collaboration, and Innovation.
2.
Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of a sustainable competitive advantage?
a)
A. Outperforming competitors for a prolonged period.
b)
B. Continuous adaptation to market changes.
c)
C. Sole reliance on operational effectiveness.
d)
D. Strategic resource alignment.
e)
E. Maintaining profitability relative to competitors.
3.
What is the purpose of stakeholder impact analysis in strategic management?
a)
A. To prioritize shareholder returns above all else.
b)
B. To evaluate and address stakeholder claims ethically and strategically.
c)
C. To compare internal capabilities with external opportunities.
d)
D. To predict economic trends affecting stakeholders.
e)
E. To minimize operational costs through stakeholder negotiations.
4.
What is the ultimate goal of strategic management as defined in Chapter 1?
a)
A. Maximizing financial returns.
b)
B. Gaining and sustaining competitive advantage.
c)
C. Reducing stakeholder pressure.
d)
D. Achieving parity with competitors.
e)
E. Improving global market presence.
5.
Which of the following best defines competitive advantage?
a)
A. Performing on par with industry leaders.
b)
B. Sustaining operations with minimal costs.
c)
C. Achieving superior performance relative to competitors.
d)
D. Maintaining equal profitability across markets.
e)
E. Innovating continuously without a guiding policy.
6.
What is the primary purpose of the Level-5 Leadership Pyramid?
a)
A. To provide a framework for decision-making in crises.
b)
B. To illustrate the progression of leadership development.
c)
C. To detail ethical standards for corporate governance.
d)
D. To describe functional leadership in different industries.
e)
E. To align financial goals with operational strategies.
7.
Which of the following defines a vision statement?
a)
A. A detailed outline of organizational strategies.
b)
B. A statement about what the organization does daily.
c)
C. A forward-looking declaration of organizational aspirations.
d)
D. A summary of past achievements and successes.
e)
E. A list of ethical principles guiding employee behavior.
8.
According to the Upper-Echelons Theory, what influences strategic decisions the most?
a)
A. Economic conditions.
b)
B. Technological advancements.
c)
C. The personal values and experiences of top management.
d)
D. Government policies and regulations.
e)
E. Organizational size and structure.
9.
What distinguishes customer-oriented vision statements from product-oriented ones?
a)
A. Customer-oriented visions focus on employee satisfaction.
b)
B. Product-oriented visions are more flexible than customer-oriented ones.
c)
C. Customer-oriented visions provide solutions to customer needs.
d)
D. Product-oriented visions emphasize ethical commitments.
e)
E. Customer-oriented visions rely on past product successes.
10.
What is the role of core values in a firm’s strategy?
a)
A. To establish legal guidelines for all operations.
b)
B. To define a company’s organizational structure.
c)
C. To act as guardrails ensuring ethical decision-making.
d)
D. To outline short-term profitability goals.
e)
E. To dictate the allocation of financial resources.
11.
What is the primary purpose of the PESTEL framework?
a)
A. To analyze the internal capabilities of a firm.
b)
B. To evaluate the external factors affecting firm performance.
c)
C. To prioritize strategic goals in competitive industries.
d)
D. To forecast financial performance.
e)
E. To implement new market-entry strategies.
12.
Which of the following is NOT one of Porter’s Five Forces?
a)
A. Threat of entry.
b)
B. Bargaining power of suppliers.
c)
C. Industry growth rate.
d)
D. Threat of substitutes.
e)
E. Rivalry among existing competitors.
13.
What is the role of mobility barriers in the strategic group model?
a)
A. To reduce the competition between strategic groups.
b)
B. To enable firms to exit less profitable industries.
c)
C. To limit movement between different strategic groups.
d)
D. To increase rivalry within a strategic group.
e)
E. To determine the profitability of an industry.
14.
What is the main insight of the Five Forces model?
a)
A. Profitability is determined solely by a firm's size.
b)
B. Competition is narrowly focused on direct competitors.
c)
C. Profit potential is influenced by five key competitive forces.
d)
D. Industry performance is unrelated to external factors.
e)
E. Buyer and supplier power are irrelevant to strategy
15.
What is industry convergence as described in Chapter 3?
a)
A. A process of reducing entry barriers in an industry.
b)
B. The merging of unrelated industries to satisfy the same customer need.
c)
C. The alignment of strategic groups within an industry.
d)
D. A strategy for consolidating fragmented industries.
e)
E. A dynamic process of increasing rivalry among competitors.
16.
What is the VRIO framework used for in strategic management?
a)
A. To evaluate external factors affecting the firm.
b)
B. To analyze a firm’s value chain activities.
c)
C. To assess the competitive implications of a firm’s resources.
d)
D. To examine threats and opportunities in the market.
e)
E. To determine the ethical implications of strategic choices.
17.
What is meant by "resource immobility" in the resource-based view?
a)
A. Resources are evenly distributed across firms in an industry.
b)
B. Resources do not move easily from one firm to another.
c)
C. Resources are only used for short-term competitive advantage.
d)
D. Resources must be liquid to be valuable.
e)
E. Resources are physical assets only.
18.
Which of the following describes dynamic capabilities?
a)
A. The ability to create, deploy, and modify resources over time to sustain a competitive advantage.
b)
B. A static approach to utilizing existing core competencies.
c)
C. Exclusive reliance on tangible resources for long-term success.
d)
D. A focus solely on cost reduction strategies.
e)
E. The elimination of core rigidities to prevent market changes.
19.
In the value chain analysis, which activities are considered "support activities"?
a)
A. Operations and marketing.
b)
B. Distribution and after-sales service.
c)
C. Human resources and accounting.
d)
D. Supply chain management and customer service.
e)
E. Production and R&D.
20.
What are core rigidities in the context of strategic management?
a)
A. Dynamic capabilities that enhance competitive advantage.
b)
B. Outdated core competencies that hinder a firm’s ability to adapt.
c)
C. Legal restrictions preventing resource mobilization.
d)
D. Intangible resources that lose value over time.
e)
E. Fixed costs associated with resource development.
21.
What is the primary goal of the balanced scorecard?
a)
A. To focus solely on financial metrics for performance evaluation.
b)
B. To create strategies for long-term competitive advantage.
c)
C. To balance multiple internal and external performance dimensions.
d)
D. To design an ideal cost leadership strategy.
e)
E. To optimize a firm's stock price.
22.
Which of the following is NOT a dimension of the triple bottom line?
a)
A. Economic
b)
B. Social
c)
C. Technological
d)
D. Ecological
e)
E. Environmental
23.
What is a major disadvantage of the balanced scorecard approach?
a)
A. It lacks qualitative insights into firm performance.
b)
B. It focuses too heavily on economic performance metrics.
c)
C. It provides limited guidance on selecting performance metrics.
d)
D. It cannot evaluate a firm's profitability accurately.
e)
E. It excludes customer feedback from the assessment process.
24.
What is a "razor–razor-blades" business model?
a)
A. Charging a high price for a primary product and low prices for accessories.
b)
B. Offering a free initial product to drive demand for complementary goods.
c)
C. Generating revenue through premium subscription fees.
d)
D. Combining two or more business strategies in one model.
e)
E. Focusing on product bundling to increase sales.
25.
What is the main focus of shareholder value creation in strategic management?
a)
A. Maximizing the firm’s short-term profits.
b)
B. Sustaining a firm's competitive advantage through ecological initiatives.
c)
C. Evaluating total return to shareholders, including stock price appreciation and dividends.
d)
D. Aligning firm resources with environmental sustainability goals.
e)
E. Tracking customer satisfaction and loyalty.
26.
What is the goal of a differentiation strategy?
a)
A. To lower production costs at all costs.
b)
B. To create products with unique features that justify a premium price.
c)
C. To target the broadest market possible without customization.
d)
D. To focus solely on marketing and sales.
e)
E. To eliminate competition through pricing wars.
27.
What is the primary focus of a cost-leadership strategy?
a)
A. Achieving the highest market share through differentiation.
b)
B. Maximizing perceived value without considering costs.
c)
C. Reducing a firm’s cost below competitors while maintaining acceptable value.
d)
D. Innovating products to dominate niche markets.
e)
E. Raising the price of goods to reflect their high quality.
28.
What does the Blue Ocean Strategy aim to achieve?
a)
A. Low-cost leadership by reducing features.
b)
B. Creation of uncontested market space through value innovation
c)
C. Focused differentiation in niche markets.
d)
D. Complete avoidance of traditional competition strategies.
e)
E. Maximizing price while minimizing cost.
29.
Which of the following is a critical element of value innovation in Blue Ocean Strategy?
a)
A. Sole focus on cost reduction.
b)
B. Increasing perceived value while lowering costs.
c)
C. Emphasizing existing industry standards without change.
d)
D. Isolating production processes to maintain exclusivity.
e)
E. Focusing solely on customer preferences without cost considerations.
30.
What risk does a firm face if it fails to implement a successful Blue Ocean Strategy?
a)
A. Losing market share due to cost inefficiencies.
b)
B. Being “stuck in the middle” with neither clear differentiation nor cost-leadership.
c)
C. Excessively high profitability leading to legal challenges.
d)
D. Over-dependence on niche markets for revenue.
e)
E. Inability to attract premium customers.
31.
What is the primary goal of the innovation process?
a)
A. Creating an invention without commercialization.
b)
B. Transforming an idea into a successfully implemented and valuable product.
c)
C. Eliminating market competition through cost leadership.
d)
D. Developing technologies without market considerations.
e)
E. Increasing a firm's financial capital.
32.
Which stage in the industry life cycle is dominated by product innovation?
a)
A. Growth stage.
b)
B. Maturity stage.
c)
C. Decline stage
d)
D. Introduction stage
e)
E. Shakeout stage
33.
What does the crossing-the-chasm framework illustrate?
a)
A. The ease of transitioning between all stages of the industry life cycle.
b)
B. The differences in customer groups and their responses to innovation.
c)
C. The reduction of competition in niche markets.
d)
D. The elimination of early adopters during the shakeout stage.
e)
E. The importance of disruptive innovation in mature industries.
34.
Which of the following is an example of incremental innovation?
a)
A. The development of the first automobile.
b)
B. The introduction of genetic engineering.
c)
C. The redesign of a smartphone with minor upgrades.
d)
D. The launch of a new transportation system using novel technology.
e)
E. The replacement of existing technologies with entirely new ones.
35.
What is a defining feature of platform businesses compared to pipeline businesses?
a)
A. Platform businesses rely on gatekeepers to control value flow.
b)
B. Platforms scale more efficiently by leveraging digital technology.
c)
C. Pipeline businesses use big data analytics to create network effects.
d)
D. Platforms eliminate community feedback to focus on efficiency.
e)
E. Platform ecosystems rely exclusively on physical assets.
36.
What is the primary purpose of corporate strategy?
a)
A. To reduce competition in a single market.
b)
B. To define how to compete in a specific industry.
c)
C. To guide decisions on where to compete across industries and markets.
d)
D. To streamline operational processes within the firm.
e)
E. To enhance short-term financial metrics.
37.
Which of the following is a benefit of vertical integration?
a)
A. Reducing all administrative costs.
b)
B. Increasing strategic flexibility in the value chain.
c)
C. Securing critical supplies and improving quality.
d)
D. Reducing costs by outsourcing production entirely.
e)
E. Eliminating all legal risks in supply chain management.
38.
What distinguishes related diversification from unrelated diversification?
a)
A. Related diversification focuses on core competencies, while unrelated diversification does not.
b)
B. Related diversification leads to higher transaction costs.
c)
C. Unrelated diversification involves fewer businesses.
d)
D. Related diversification eliminates economies of scope.
e)
E. Unrelated diversification reduces administrative overhead entirely.
39.
What is taper integration?
a)
A. The practice of reducing vertical integration by outsourcing all production.
b)
B. A strategy where a firm uses both in-house and market resources for supply or distribution.
c)
C. A method of integrating unrelated businesses to minimize risk.
d)
D. A process of entirely eliminating backward integration.
e)
E. A focus on customer satisfaction over operational efficiencies.
40.
What is the diversification-performance relationship often depicted as?
a)
A. A direct upward slope with no diminishing returns.
b)
B. An inverted U-shape.
c)
C. A bell curve favoring unrelated diversification.
d)
D. A plateau with no variance in performance.
e)
E. A linear correlation between diversification and firm value.
41.
What is the purpose of the Build-Borrow-Buy framework?
a)
A. To develop the best cost-leadership strategy.
b)
B. To determine whether to grow internally, form alliances, or acquire other firms.
c)
C. To evaluate financial performance metrics for mergers.
d)
D. To assess the cultural compatibility of two merging companies.
e)
E. To create operational efficiencies in the value chain.
42.
What is a strategic alliance?
a)
A. A legally binding merger of two firms in the same industry.
b)
B. A short-term contractual agreement for supply-chain integration.
c)
C. A voluntary arrangement between firms to share knowledge, resources, and capabilities.
d)
D. The acquisition of a competitor to increase market share.
e)
E. The purchase of a minority equity stake in another company.
43.
Which is NOT a primary reason for firms to enter strategic alliances?
a)
A. Strengthening competitive position.
b)
B. Entering new markets.
c)
C. Hedge against uncertainty.
d)
D. Eliminating all competitors.
e)
E. Accessing critical complementary assets.
44.
What is horizontal integration?
a)
A. Merging with firms in upstream or downstream activities of the value chain.
b)
B. Acquiring firms in completely unrelated industries.
c)
C. Merging with competitors at the same stage of the value chain.
d)
D. Forming non-equity alliances for joint operations.
e)
E. Establishing vertical partnerships for cost reduction.
45.
What is one major disadvantage of mergers and acquisitions?
a)
A. They often lead to increased trust and collaboration between firms.
b)
B. They eliminate the need for strategic alliances.
c)
C. They rarely generate value for the acquiring firm's shareholders.
d)
D. They prevent firms from entering new markets.
e)
E. They reduce the scope for competitive advantage.
46.
Which framework is used to assess the four strategies MNEs may pursue based on cost reduction pressures and local responsiveness?
a)
A. Porter’s Five Forces
b)
B. BCG Matrix
c)
C. Integration-Responsiveness Framework
d)
D. PESTEL Analysis
e)
E. Ansoff Matrix
47.
What is a primary disadvantage of a multidomestic strategy for multinational enterprises (MNEs)?
a)
A. High exposure to currency fluctuations
b)
B. Reduced economies of scale
c)
C. Limited adaptation to local preferences
d)
D. Excessive standardization across markets
e)
E. Minimal duplication of business functions
48.
The CAGE distance framework helps MNEs evaluate which countries to enter based on four types of distance. Which of the following is NOT one of the CAGE dimensions?
a)
A. Cultural Distance
b)
B. Administrative Distance
c)
C. Geographic Distance
d)
D. Economic Distance
e)
E. Technological Distance
49.
According to Porter’s Diamond Framework, which factor describes the influence of local customer demand on national competitive advantage?
a)
A. Factor Conditions
b)
B. Demand Condition.
c)
C. Competitive Intensity in Focal Industry
d)
D. Related and Supporting Industries
e)
E. Geographic Conditions
50.
What does a global-standardization strategy primarily emphasize for MNEs?
a)
A. High local responsiveness
b)
B. Cost leadership through global economies of scale
c)
C. Differentiation to meet specific local needs
d)
D. Flexible adaptation in multiple regions
e)
E. High dependency on local subsidiaries for decision-making
51.
Which of the following is NOT a key component of organizational design?
a)
A. Structure
b)
B. Culture
c)
C. Control
d)
D. Market analysis
e)
E. Strategy implementation
52.
What concept explains a firm's resistance to change the status quo, often leading to potential failure?
a)
A. Structural rigidity
b)
B. Cultural stagnation
c)
C. Organizational inertia
d)
D. Competitive disadvantage
e)
E. Operational inefficiency
53.
Which organizational structure is characterized by high specialization, formalization, and centralized decision-making?
a)
A. Organic structure
b)
B. Mechanistic structure
c)
C. Functional structure
d)
D. Matrix structure
e)
E. Ambidextrous organization
54.
In the context of organizational structure, what does 'hierarchy' define?
a)
A. The division of labor within the firm
b)
B. Reporting relationships and authority levels
c)
C. Degree of employee specialization
d)
D. Level of decision-making formalization
e)
E. Interdepartmental communication
55.
Which type of control system focuses on guiding employee behavior by setting expected results rather than the specific methods to achieve them?
a)
A. Input controls
b)
B. Output controls
c)
C. Cultural controls
d)
D. Hierarchical controls
e)
E. Procedural controls
56.
What is the purpose of corporate governance in an organization?
a)
A. To maximize short-term profits for executives
b)
B. To establish ownership rights for shareholders
c)
C. To create a legal framework for regulatory agencies
d)
D. To ensure an organization pursues its strategic goals legally and effectively
e)
E. To determine employee roles and responsibilities
57.
Which of the following best describes the principal-agent problem in corporate governance?
a)
A. A conflict between the company’s clients and suppliers
b)
B. A misalignment between executive goals and legal standards
c)
C. A situation where managers may pursue personal interests over those of shareholders
d)
D. An issue related to conflicting regulations across jurisdictions
e)
E. A disagreement among board members regarding organizational policies
58.
According to agency theory, what is a primary mechanism companies use to align interests between principals and agents?
a)
A. Social responsibility programs
b)
B. Comprehensive strategic plans
c)
C. Governance mechanisms like monitoring and incentives
d)
D. Reduction in information asymmetry through transparency
e)
E. Increased executive autonomy
59.
Which ethical framework combines value creation for both shareholders and society to achieve competitive advantage?
a)
A. Triple Bottom Line
b)
B. Shared Value Creation Framework
c)
C. Stakeholder Analysis
d)
D. Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)
e)
E. Moral Hazard Reduction
60.
What role does a board of directors primarily serve in a publicly traded company?
a)
A. Directly managing daily operations
b)
B. Serving as legal owners of the company
c)
C. Overseeing management and protecting shareholder interests
d)
D. Drafting and enforcing employee policies
e)
E. Promoting the company’s products and services
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