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Worksheets

Unit 3 Summative Review

Total questions: 132

Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What type of bond is responsible for the cohesion of water molecules?

a)

Ionic bond

b)

Covalent bond

c)

Hydrogen bond

d)

Metallic bond

2.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four main biomolecules?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Vitamins

3.

What is the monomer of proteins?

a)

Monosaccharides

b)

Fatty acids

c)

Amino acids

d)

Nucleotides

4.

What is the primary function of nucleic acids?

a)

Energy storage

b)

Genetic information storage and transfer

c)

Structural support

d)

Catalyzing reactions

5.

Which of the following best describes the structure of lipids?

a)

Rings of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

b)

Fatty acids connected by a glycerol backbone

c)

Chains of amino acids

d)

Nucleotides with a sugar, phosphate, and nitrogenous base

6.

What is the role of enzymes in chemical reactions?

a)

Increase the activation energy

b)

Decrease the activation energy

c)

Provide energy for the reaction

d)

Act as a reactant

7.

Which organelle is responsible for energy production in eukaryotic cells?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Ribosome

d)

Golgi apparatus

8.

What is the main difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

Presence of a cell wall

b)

Presence of a nucleus

c)

Ability to photosynthesize

d)

Size of the cell

9.

What is facilitated diffusion?

a)

Movement of molecules against the concentration gradient

b)

Movement of molecules through a membrane without energy

c)

Movement of molecules through a membrane with the help of proteins

d)

Movement of water molecules only

10.

What did Hershey and Chase's experiment demonstrate?

a)

DNA is the genetic material

b)

Proteins are the genetic material

c)

RNA is the genetic material

d)

Lipids are the genetic material

11.

According to Chargaff’s Rule, which nitrogenous bases pair together in DNA?

a)

Adenine and Cytosine, Guanine and Thymine

b)

Adenine and Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine

c)

Adenine and Guanine, Cytosine and Thymine

d)

Adenine and Uracil, Guanine and Cytosine

12.

What is the function of DNA polymerase during DNA replication?

a)

Unzips the DNA strands

b)

Synthesizes new DNA strands

c)

Joins Okazaki fragments

d)

Adds RNA primers

13.

What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis in DNA fingerprinting?

a)

To cut DNA into fragments

b)

To separate DNA fragments by size

c)

To replicate DNA

d)

To sequence DNA

14.

What is a telomere?

a)

An enzyme that synthesizes DNA

b)

The end of a chromosome

c)

A type of nucleotide

d)

A protein that binds to DNA

15.

What is the role of restriction enzymes in biotechnology?

a)

To replicate DNA

b)

To cut DNA at specific sequences

c)

To synthesize proteins

d)

To join DNA fragments

16.

Hydrogen bonds occur between a slightly positive hydrogen atom and ____.

a)

Another hydrogen atom in the same molecule

b)

Another hydrogen atom in a different molecule

c)

A slightly negative atom in the same molecule

d)

A slightly negative atom in a different molecule

17.
Monosaccharides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
18.
What structure in the cell contains most of the cells genetic information? 
a)
A. rough Endoplasmic Reticulum 
b)
B. mitochondria 
c)
C. nucleus 
d)
D. cytoplasm 
19.

Which type of cell?

a)

Prokaryote

b)

Eukaryote

20.

What structure in the cell converts glucose to ATP energy? 

a)
A. rough Endoplasmic Reticulum 
b)
B. mitochondria 
c)
C. nucleus 
d)
D. cytoplasm 
21.

(Select ALL that apply)

Plant and animal cells both have

a)

a cell membrane

b)

cytoplasm

c)

a nucleus

d)

a cell wall

22.

Which type of cell?

a)

Prokaryote

b)

Eukaryote

23.

This organelle controls what goes in and out of plant and animal cells.

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Cell Membrane

c)

Chloroplasts

d)

Cytoplasm

24.
Name the process in the picture.
a)
transcription
b)
mitosis
c)
translation
d)
replication
25.

Requires ATP

a)

Active Transport

b)

Passive Transport

26.

Which 3 processes do not require the use of ATP?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Active Transport

d)

Passive Transport

27.

Why is ATP considered essential for cell function?

a)

ATP is required for cell growth

b)

ATP is required for cellular processes

c)

ATP is required for DNA replication

d)

ATP is required for cell structure

28.

What is the molecule called that carries genetic information?

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

DNA

d)

Lipid

29.
What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine
b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
30.

Which component of DNA determines the traits that are inherited?

a)

Sugar molecules

b)

Phosphate groups

c)

Nitrogenous bases

d)

Hydrogen bonds

31.
If base-pairing rules state that Adenine always pairs with Thymine, and Cytosine pairs with Guanine, what would be the complementary strand to ACGGT?
a)
ACGGT
b)
TGGCA
c)
TGCCA
d)
ACCGT
32.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
33.
the base that pairs with Thymine in DNA
a)
adenine
b)
guanine
c)
helicase
d)
nucleotide
34.

The bond that forms between OXYGEN and HYDROGEN within a water molecule is called

a)

Polar covalent Bond

b)

Ionic Bond

c)

Hydrogen Bond

d)

Nonpolar covalent bond

35.

What is the function of lipids?

a)

Perform cell's functions/tasks

b)

Fast energy

c)

Energy storage and cell membranes

d)

Alter other biomolecules

e)

Store information for cells

36.

What is the function of proteins?

a)

provides quick energy

b)

stores energy

c)

helps with growth and repair of tissues

d)

stores genetic information

37.
The graph shows how enzymes affect reactions in cells. Which statement best summarizes the information shown in the graph?
a)
Enzymes increase the energy of the reactants.
b)
Enzymes decrease the energy level of the products.
c)
Enzyme decrease the activation energy of the reaction.
d)
Enzymes reverse the direction of the reaction.
38.
Letter B...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
39.

What causes water to be a polar molecule?

a)

Absence of hydrogen bonds

b)

Unequal sharing of electrons between hydrogen and oxygen

c)

Equal sharing of electrons between hydrogen and oxygen

d)

Presence of ionic bonds

40.

How does water's polarity affect its properties?

a)

It makes water a good solvent for nonpolar substances

b)

It allows water to form hydrogen bonds with other molecules

c)

It prevents water from forming hydrogen bonds

d)

It makes water a poor conductor of electricity

41.

Which of the following is a result of water's polarity?

a)

Water has a low boiling point

b)

Water cannot dissolve salts

c)

Water is a nonpolar solvent

d)

Water has a high surface tension

42.

What is the primary function of carbohydrates in the body?

a)

Insulate organs

b)

Build muscle tissue

c)

Store genetic information

d)

Provide energy

43.

Which macronutrient is primarily responsible for the growth and repair of tissues?

a)

Vitamins

b)

Proteins

c)

Fats

d)

Carbohydrates

44.

What is the main role of fats in the human body?

a)

Build enzymes

b)

Transport oxygen

c)

Store energy and insulate the body

d)

Provide quick energy

45.

What is the monomer of nucleic acids?

a)

Amino acids

b)

Monosaccharides

c)

Nucleotides

d)

Fatty acids

46.

Which of the following is the monomer of carbohydrates?

a)

Monosaccharides

b)

Fatty acids

c)

Amino acids

d)

Nucleotides

47.

What is the monomer unit of lipids?

a)

Monosaccharides

b)

Amino acids

c)

Fatty acids

d)

Nucleotides

48.

Which element is most abundant in biomolecules?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Hydrogen

49.

What type of bond is primarily responsible for the structure of proteins?

a)

Hydrogen bond

b)

Covalent bond

c)

Ionic bond

d)

Peptide bond

50.

Which of the following atoms is not typically found in carbohydrates?

a)

Carbon

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Oxygen

51.

Which atom is commonly found in nucleotides but not in most lipids?

a)

Carbon

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Nitrogen

52.

Which of the following atoms is present in nucleotides but not typically in proteins?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Phosphorus

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Carbon

53.

How does polarity affect the solubility of a substance in water?

a)

Polar substances are less soluble in water due to hydrogen bonding

b)

Polarity has no effect on solubility in water

c)

Non-polar substances are more soluble in water due to hydrogen bonding

d)

Polar substances are more soluble in water due to hydrogen bonding

54.

What is the primary reason non-polar substances do not dissolve well in water?

a)

Non-polar substances cannot form hydrogen bonds with water

b)

Non-polar substances are too large to dissolve in water

c)

Non-polar substances are more dense than water

d)

Non-polar substances form strong ionic bonds with water

55.

What role do hydrogen bonds play in the structure of DNA?

a)

They provide energy for replication

b)

They stabilize the double helix structure

c)

They form the backbone of the DNA strand

d)

They catalyze the formation of nucleotides

56.

Which nitrogenous base pairs with cytosine in DNA through hydrogen bonds?

a)

Uracil

b)

Guanine

c)

Adenine

d)

Thymine

57.

What is the primary role of enzymes in biological reactions?

a)

To increase the rate of reactions

b)

To change the products of reactions

c)

To provide energy for reactions

d)

To act as a reactant in reactions

58.

How do enzymes affect the activation energy of a reaction?

a)

They have no effect on activation energy

b)

They decrease the activation energy

c)

They eliminate the need for activation energy

d)

They increase the activation energy

59.

Which of the following is a characteristic of enzyme activity?

a)

Enzymes can catalyze any reaction

b)

Enzymes are specific to substrates

c)

Enzymes are consumed in the reaction

d)

Enzymes work at any temperature

60.

How does pH affect enzyme activity?

a)

Enzymes are not affected by pH

b)

Enzymes are only active in basic conditions

c)

Enzymes work best at a specific pH range

d)

Enzymes are only active in acidic conditions

61.

Which of the following conditions can denature an enzyme?

a)

Optimal temperature

b)

Extreme pH levels

c)

Low substrate concentration

d)

High enzyme concentration

62.

How does temperature affect enzyme activity?

a)

Enzymes are not affected by temperature

b)

Enzymes are only active at freezing temperatures

c)

Enzymes work best at extremely high temperatures

d)

Enzymes have an optimal temperature range for activity

63.

What happens to enzymes when the pH level is too high or too low?

a)

Enzymes replicate faster

b)

Enzymes are unaffected by pH changes

c)

Enzymes denature and lose their function

d)

Enzymes become more active

64.

What is the role of the active site in an enzyme?

a)

It transports the enzyme to the reaction site

b)

It inhibits the enzyme activity

c)

It provides energy for the reaction

d)

It binds to the substrate and catalyzes the reaction

65.

How do enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction?

a)

By increasing the temperature of the reaction

b)

By changing the pH of the environment

c)

By providing an alternative reaction pathway

d)

By increasing the concentration of reactants

66.

Which factor does NOT affect enzyme activity?

a)

Color of the enzyme

b)

Temperature

c)

pH

d)

Substrate concentration

67.

How does a substrate interact with an enzyme's active site?

a)

By forming a covalent bond

b)

By fitting into the active site like a key in a lock

c)

By being repelled by the active site

d)

By altering the enzyme's genetic code

68.

Which of the following factors can affect the binding of a substrate to an enzyme's active site?

a)

Temperature and pH

b)

Color and odor

c)

Amount of sunlight

d)

Size and shape of the cell

69.

Which of the following structures is present in eukaryotic cells but not in prokaryotic cells?

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cell membrane

d)

DNA

70.

What is a key difference in the genetic material of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

Both have circular DNA.

b)

Both have linear DNA.

c)

Prokaryotic cells have circular DNA, while eukaryotic cells have linear DNA.

d)

Prokaryotic cells have linear DNA, while eukaryotic cells have circular DNA.

71.

Which of the following is a characteristic of prokaryotic cells?

a)

Presence of a cell wall

b)

Presence of mitochondria

c)

Presence of a nucleus

d)

Presence of chloroplasts

72.

Which of the following is a similarity between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

Both have chloroplasts

b)

Both have mitochondria

c)

Both have ribosomes

d)

Both have a nucleus

73.

Which of the following is a similarity between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

Both have chloroplasts

b)

Both have ribosomes

c)

Both have a nucleus

d)

Both have mitochondria

74.

What is a common feature of the cell membranes in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

They are made of cellulose

b)

They are composed of a phospholipid bilayer

c)

They contain DNA

d)

They have a rigid structure

75.

Which cellular process is shared by both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

Cell division by mitosis

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Formation of a nuclear envelope

76.

Which organelle is responsible for energy production in eukaryotic cells?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Golgi apparatus

77.

What is the primary function of the endoplasmic reticulum in eukaryotic cells?

a)

DNA replication

b)

Protein synthesis and lipid metabolism

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Cell division

78.

Which structure in eukaryotic cells is responsible for packaging and modifying proteins?

a)

Cell membrane

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Lysosome

79.

What was the primary contribution of Watson and Crick to the field of genetics?

a)

Mapping of the human genome

b)

Development of the polymerase chain reaction

c)

Identification of the genetic code

d)

Discovery of the double helix structure of DNA

80.

Who were the scientists that provided crucial X-ray diffraction images to Watson and Crick?

a)

Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins

b)

James Watson and Francis Crick

c)

Linus Pauling and Erwin Chargaff

d)

Gregor Mendel and Thomas Morgan

81.

What is active transport in biology?

a)

Movement of molecules from low to high concentration using energy

b)

Movement of molecules through a membrane with the help of proteins

c)

Movement of molecules from high to low concentration without energy

d)

Movement of water molecules only

82.

Which of the following is an example of active transport?

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Sodium-potassium pump

c)

Diffusion

d)

Osmosis

83.

What is the main energy source used in active transport?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Glucose

c)

ATP

d)

Oxygen

84.

What is passive diffusion?

a)

The movement of molecules against a concentration gradient

b)

The movement of molecules down a concentration gradient without energy input

c)

The movement of molecules through a semi-permeable membrane with energy input

d)

The movement of molecules through a protein channel with energy input

85.

In passive diffusion, molecules move from an area of _____ concentration to an area of _____ concentration.

a)

high; low

b)

low; low

c)

low; high

d)

equal; equal

86.

What is the main difference between facilitated diffusion and simple diffusion?

a)

Facilitated diffusion requires energy, while simple diffusion does not.

b)

Facilitated diffusion involves transport proteins, while simple diffusion does not.

c)

Facilitated diffusion occurs only in plant cells, while simple diffusion occurs in all cells.

d)

Facilitated diffusion moves molecules against the concentration gradient, while simple diffusion moves them along the gradient.

87.

Which of the following is true about simple diffusion?

a)

It involves the movement of molecules through a semi-permeable membrane with the help of proteins.

b)

It requires ATP to occur.

c)

It can only occur in the presence of a concentration gradient.

d)

It is a passive transport process that does not require energy.

88.

In facilitated diffusion, what role do transport proteins play?

a)

They act as channels or carriers to help specific molecules cross the cell membrane.

b)

They prevent the movement of molecules across the membrane.

c)

They provide energy for the diffusion process.

d)

They break down molecules to facilitate their movement.

89.

What happens to a cell placed in a hypertonic solution?

a)

The cell swells and bursts

b)

The cell divides

c)

The cell shrinks

d)

The cell remains the same size

90.

Which of the following best describes a hypotonic solution?

a)

A solution with a higher concentration of solutes than the cell

b)

A solution with no solutes

c)

A solution with a lower concentration of solutes than the cell

d)

A solution with the same concentration of solutes as the cell

91.

What happens to a cell when placed in a hypotonic solution?

a)

The cell becomes rigid

b)

The cell remains the same size

c)

The cell swells and may burst

d)

The cell shrinks

92.

Which of the following best describes a hypotonic solution?

a)

A solution with no solutes

b)

A solution with an equal concentration of solutes as the cell

c)

A solution with a lower concentration of solutes than the cell

d)

A solution with a higher concentration of solutes than the cell

93.

In which direction does water move when a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution?

a)

Out of the cell

b)

Into the cell

c)

Equally in and out of the cell

d)

Water does not move

94.

What is the primary role of osmosis in maintaining homeostasis?

a)

To synthesize new molecules

b)

To generate energy for the cell

c)

To balance water levels inside and outside the cell

d)

To transport proteins across the cell membrane

95.

What was the main conclusion of the Hershey and Chase experiment?

a)

Carbohydrates are the genetic material, not proteins.

b)

DNA is the genetic material, not protein.

c)

RNA is the genetic material, not DNA.

d)

Proteins are the genetic material, not DNA.

96.

Which organisms did Hershey and Chase use in their experiment to demonstrate that DNA is the genetic material?

a)

Bacteriophages and bacteria

b)

Yeast and bacteria

c)

Animals and plants

d)

Plants and fungi

97.

What radioactive isotopes did Hershey and Chase use to label DNA and proteins in their experiment?

a)

Calcium-45 and Iron-59

b)

Oxygen-18 and Hydrogen-3

c)

Phosphorus-32 and Sulfur-35

d)

Carbon-14 and Nitrogen-15

98.

What was the main finding of Frederick Griffith's experiment with Streptococcus pneumoniae?

a)

DNA is the genetic material

b)

Carbohydrates are the genetic material

c)

Proteins are the genetic material

d)

RNA is the genetic material

99.

What was the significance of the 'transforming principle' discovered by Griffith?

a)

It showed that DNA can be transferred between organisms

b)

It demonstrated that proteins carry genetic information

c)

It indicated that lipids are responsible for heredity

d)

It proved that RNA is the genetic material

100.

What was the primary conclusion of Oswald Avery's DNA research?

a)

Lipids are the molecule responsible for heredity

b)

Proteins are the molecule responsible for heredity

c)

DNA is the molecule responsible for heredity

d)

RNA is the molecule responsible for heredity

101.

Which experiment did Oswald Avery's research build upon?

a)

Meselson and Stahl's DNA replication experiment

b)

Watson and Crick's DNA model

c)

Griffith's transformation experiment

d)

Hershey and Chase experiment

102.

What is Chargaff's Rule primarily concerned with?

a)

The structure of the DNA double helix

b)

The sequence of nucleotides in RNA

c)

The ratio of adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine in DNA

d)

The ratio of purines to pyrimidines in DNA

103.

According to Chargaff's Rule, if a DNA sample contains 30% adenine, what percentage of thymine should it contain?

a)

20%

b)

30%

c)

40%

d)

50%

104.

Which of the following statements is true according to Chargaff's Rule?

a)

The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of guanine in DNA.

b)

The amount of cytosine is equal to the amount of thymine in DNA.

c)

The amount of guanine is equal to the amount of uracil in DNA.

d)

The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine in DNA.

105.

What type of bond holds the two strands of a DNA molecule together?

a)

Hydrogen bonds

b)

Covalent bonds

c)

Metallic bonds

d)

Ionic bonds

106.

How do hydrogen bonds in DNA compare to covalent bonds in terms of strength?

a)

Hydrogen bonds are stronger than covalent bonds

b)

Hydrogen bonds do not exist in DNA

c)

Hydrogen bonds and covalent bonds have equal strength

d)

Hydrogen bonds are weaker than covalent bonds

107.

Why are hydrogen bonds important for the structure of DNA?

a)

They form the backbone of the DNA molecule

b)

They are responsible for the genetic code

c)

They allow the DNA strands to separate during replication

d)

They provide flexibility to the DNA molecule

108.

What does it mean for DNA strands to be antiparallel?

a)

They are identical in sequence

b)

They are parallel but not touching

c)

They run in opposite directions

d)

They run in the same direction

109.

Which of the following best describes the orientation of the sugar-phosphate backbone in DNA's antiparallel strands?

a)

5' to 3' and 5' to 3'

b)

3' to 5' and 3' to 5'

c)

5' to 3' and 3' to 5'

d)

3' to 3' and 5' to 5'

110.

Why is the antiparallel nature of DNA important for replication?

a)

It allows enzymes to read both strands simultaneously

b)

It makes the DNA more stable

c)

It ensures that the leading and lagging strands are synthesized correctly

d)

It prevents the strands from tangling

111.

What is the primary purpose of DNA fingerprinting electrophoresis?

a)

To amplify DNA samples

b)

To separate DNA fragments based on size

c)

To identify protein structures

d)

To sequence the entire genome

112.

What is the primary purpose of DNA fingerprinting?

a)

To identify individuals

b)

To clone DNA

c)

To identify genetic disorders

d)

To sequence the entire genome

113.

Which component of DNA is used in electrophoresis for DNA fingerprinting?

a)

Nitrogenous bases

b)

Sugar backbone

c)

Phosphate groups

d)

Hydrogen bonds

114.

What is the role of restriction enzymes in DNA fingerprinting?

a)

To sequence DNA

b)

To cut DNA at specific sequences

c)

To amplify DNA fragments

d)

To separate DNA fragments by size

115.

What is the first step in the process of DNA replication?

a)

Joining of Okazaki fragments

b)

Synthesis of new DNA strands

c)

Unwinding of the DNA double helix

d)

Binding of RNA primers

116.

Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides to the growing DNA strand during replication?

a)

Helicase

b)

Ligase

c)

Primase

d)

DNA polymerase

117.

What is the role of ligase in DNA replication?

a)

Synthesizes new DNA strands

b)

Adds RNA primers

c)

Joins Okazaki fragments

d)

Unwinds the DNA strands

118.

What is the primary function of telomerase?

a)

To synthesize RNA

b)

To add repetitive nucleotide sequences to the ends of chromosomes

c)

To repair DNA damage

d)

To unwind DNA strands

119.

Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix during replication?

a)

Telomerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Ligase

d)

DNA polymerase

120.

What is a characteristic feature of telomeres?

a)

They are enzymes that repair DNA

b)

They are responsible for cell division

c)

They are involved in protein synthesis

d)

They are found at the ends of chromosomes

121.

Why is RNA primase essential for the initiation of DNA synthesis?

a)

It repairs DNA mismatches

b)

It removes RNA primers

c)

It stabilizes the DNA strands

d)

It provides a starting point for DNA polymerase

122.

What is the primary function of DNA replication?

a)

To produce identical copies of DNA

b)

To break down nucleotides

c)

To synthesize proteins

d)

To create RNA molecules

123.

Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix during replication?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Primase

d)

Ligase

124.

What is the primary function of the replication fork in DNA replication?

a)

To separate the two strands of DNA

b)

To synthesize proteins

c)

To repair DNA damage

d)

To transcribe RNA

125.

Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the DNA at the replication fork?

a)

Helicase

b)

Ligase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

Primase

126.

What do the bands represent in gel electrophoresis?

a)

Different types of cells

b)

Fragments of DNA or proteins separated by size

c)

Different temperatures

d)

Various chemical reactions

127.

How can you determine the distance of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis?

a)

By observing the color of the bands

b)

By counting the number of bands

c)

By comparing the bands to a DNA ladder

d)

By measuring the width of the bands

128.

Which factor primarily affects the movement of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis?

a)

The pH of the gel

b)

The size of the DNA fragments

c)

The color of the gel

d)

The temperature of the environment

129.

What is the primary reason shorter DNA fragments travel further in gel electrophoresis?

a)

They have a higher charge

b)

They encounter less resistance in the gel

c)

They are more attracted to the anode

d)

They are less dense

130.

What is the main purpose of using a gel in electrophoresis?

a)

To increase the speed of DNA migration

b)

To separate DNA fragments based on size

c)

To change the charge of DNA fragments

d)

To provide a medium for DNA to dissolve

131.

Why is it necessary to stain DNA during gel electrophoresis?

a)

To change the charge of DNA

b)

To increase the speed of DNA migration

c)

To prevent DNA degradation

d)

To visualize the DNA fragments

132.

What causes DNA fragments to move towards the positive end in gel electrophoresis?

a)

The positive charge of DNA

b)

The negative charge of DNA

c)

The neutral charge of DNA

d)

The size of DNA fragments