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CIA 2 review

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 3hrs 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following would likely be a limiting factor to a population?

a)

Abundance of food

b)

Living near a water source

c)

Presence of a natural predator

d)

Multiple sources for shelter

2.

When rabbits were introduced to Australia, they began to breed exponentially. However, over time their population has begun to decrease due to a limiting factor.


What is most likely the limiting factor in this situation?

a)

Abundant space to breed and live

b)

No available predator in the area

c)

Rabbits choosing not to mate to conserve space

d)

Lack of available food

3.

Habitat availability increases for a population. How would the carrying capacity of the prey change?

a)

The carrying capacity would increase as more resources become available.

b)

Carrying capacity occurs independent of factors in the environment.

c)

The carrying capacity would decrease as more resources became available.

d)

The carrying capacity is set in an environment and cannot change.

4.

When Yellowstone National Park was created in the late 1800s, wolves were on the decline. The last wolves in Yellowstone were killed in 1926, but in the 1800s, there were between 100-160 wolves in the park. In 1995, gray wolves were reintroduced to the park.


Which graph (drawn in red) below shows a prediction of how the population would change if there was less water available in the ecosystem?

a)
b)
c)
d)

There would be no change to carrying capacity.

5.

A scientist was studying a population of fish in a pond over a period of 10 years. He observed that the population increased each year for 3 years, and then remained nearly constant for the rest of the study. The best explanation for this observation is that the population had

a)

stopped reproducing

b)

reached carrying capacity

c)

mutated into a different species

d)

run out of food and all died

6.

What is the carrying capacity of the graph?

a)

around 500

b)

more than 800

c)

less than 300

d)

around 700

7.

What is the carrying capacity of the graph?

a)

1000

b)

8000

c)

800

d)

600

8.

All of the organisms of one species living in the same area.

a)

Individual

b)

Population

c)

Community

d)

Ecosystem

9.

"Five green and speckled frogs, sitting on a speckled log, eat some most delicious bugs."


Which level of organization is this?

a)

Individual

b)

Population

c)

Community

d)

Ecosystem

10.

Which of the following is an abiotic factor?

a)

Grass

b)

Spider

c)

Turtle

d)

Rock

11.

What type of growth is demonstrated in the graph?

a)

Exponential

b)

Carrying capacity

c)

Linear

d)

Negative

12.

Leveling off of the population after the maximum number the environment can support has been reached.

a)

Exponential

b)

Carrying capacity

c)

Linear

d)

Negative

13.

Which of the following would likely be a limiting factor to a population?

a)

Abundance of food

b)

Living near a water source

c)

Presence of a natural predator

d)

Multiple sources for shelter

14.

When rabbits were introduced to Australia, they began to breed exponentially. However, over time their population has begun to decrease due to a limiting factor.


What is most likely the limiting factor in this situation?

a)

Abundant space to breed and live

b)

No available predator in the area

c)

Rabbits choosing not to mate to conserve space

d)

Lack of available food

15.

Which of the following demonstrates population growth when there is limited available water in an area?

a)
b)
c)
16.

Habitat availability increases for a population. How would the carrying capacity of the prey change?

a)

The carrying capacity would increase as more resources become available.

b)

Carrying capacity occurs independent of factors in the environment.

c)

The carrying capacity would decrease as more resources became available.

d)

The carrying capacity is set in an environment and cannot change.

17.

When Yellowstone National Park was created in the late 1800s, wolves were on the decline. The last wolves in Yellowstone were killed in 1926, but in the 1800s, there were between 100-160 wolves in the park. In 1995, gray wolves were reintroduced to the park.


Which graph (drawn in red) below shows a prediction of how the population would change if there was less water available in the ecosystem?

a)
b)
c)
d)

There would be no change to carrying capacity.

18.
What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
19.
With what 3 letters do enzymes typically end?
a)
-ose
b)
-ase
c)
-ese
d)
-tic
20.

Enzymes are an example of

a)

Lipids

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

21.
Each enzyme only has 1 substrate that will fit its active site.  What is this called?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
22.
In the diagram, what is letter A? 
a)
product
b)
substrate
c)
enzyme-substrate complex
d)
active site
23.
Letter D...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
24.
Letter B...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
25.
Letter C...
a)
active site
b)
enzymes
c)
substrate
d)
products
26.
Letter E...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
27.
An enzyme speeds up a reaction by
a)
lowering the activation energy.
b)
raising the activation energy.
c)
releasing energy.
d)
absorbing energy.
28.

What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?

a)

The enzymes die.

b)

The shape of the enzyme are changed and it denatures

c)

The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.

d)

The enzymes remain the same

29.
The graph shows how enzymes affect reactions in cells. Which statement best summarizes the information shown in the graph?
a)
Enzymes increase the energy of the reactants.
b)
Enzymes decrease the energy level of the products.
c)
Enzyme decrease the activation energy of the reaction.
d)
Enzymes reverse the direction of the reaction.
30.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
31.
Any substance that is acted upon by an enzyme is called a(n)?
a)
Coenzyme
b)
Substrate
c)
Vitamin
d)
Polypeptide
32.
What is the function of an enzyme?
a)
enzymes break themselves into small pieces
b)
enzymes slow down chemical reactions
c)
enzymes speed up chemical reactions
d)
enzymes combine products to form reactants 
33.
Which of these is most likely an enzyme?  
a)
Sucrose
b)
Galactose
c)
Fructose
d)
Amylase
34.
Which enzyme is most efficient in a basic solution?
a)
A
b)
B
35.
What is structure A?
a)
Substrate
b)
Active site
c)
Enzyme
d)
Products
36.
What is structure D?
a)
Substrate
b)
Active site
c)
Enzyme
d)
Products
37.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
38.
Which substrate would this enzyme catalyze?
a)
Δ
b)
σ
c)
∅
d)
μ
39.
What factors affect an enzyme's reaction rate?
a)
temperature 
b)
pH
c)
substrate concentration
d)
all of these
40.
Which process is the largest contributor to the release of CO2 
a)
Citric Acid Cycle or Krebs Cycle
b)
Pyruvate Oxidation
c)
Glycolysis
d)
Oxidative Phosphorylation 
41.
Which of the following molecules is NOT a byproduct of cellular respiration? 
a)
CO2
b)
Heat
c)
H2O
d)
ATP
42.
If the delta G of a reaction is negative, which response shows the best conclusion for that reaction? 
a)
The reaction will release more energy than was needed to form the reaction.
b)
Energy from the reaction can be used to do work. 
c)
Energy is absorbed by the reaction which then can be used to power other reactions. 
d)
Energy is absorbed within the reaction and distributed unevenly throughout the molecule. 
43.
If ADP is phosphorylated then what is this indicating in the reaction? 
a)
ADP is forming into ATP
b)
ADP is becoming AMP
c)
ADP is being used to power other reactions
d)
ADP is being created by the reaction
44.
Why is ATP considered the most significant energy carrying molecule? 
a)
It's delta G is negative. 
b)
ATP has different bond energy between its phosphate groups. 
c)
ATP can hold large amounts of energy between all of its bonds. 
d)
ATP's positive delta G contributes to the large amounts of energy between its 3rd and 2nd phosphate groups. 
45.
Which process least amount of ATP in cells? 
a)
Glycolysis
b)
Citric Acid cycle
c)
Lactic acid Fermentation
d)
Pyruvate Oxidation
46.
Which process does not occur in aerobic conditions? 
a)
Fermentation
b)
Pyruvate Oxidation
c)
Citric Acid Cycle or Krebs cycle 
d)
Oxidative Phosphorylation 
47.
What is the main job of the electron carriers in cellular respiration? 
a)
Transport electrons and hydrogen atoms to the electron transport chain 
b)
Capture energy throughout the process of cellular respiration
c)
Provide the reactants for the process of cellular respiration
d)
Pump positive hydrogen ions and shuttle electrons across the electron transport chain and contribute to chemiosmosis
48.

How is cellular respiration related to photosynthesis?

a)

Both require oxygen to start

b)

It is the reverse reaction of photosynthesis

c)

Both start with glycolysis

d)

Both end with 38 ATP for cells

49.

Which of the following statements are false?

a)

Glycolysis does not require oxygen

b)

Glycolysis is the first step in both anaerobic and aerobic respiration

c)

Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondria

d)

Glycolysis produces 2 ATP, 2 Pyruvates, and 2 NADH

50.
Glucose is broken down into pyruvate in a process known as 
a)
glycolysis
b)
electron transport
c)
the Krebs cycle
d)
phosphorylation
51.

What are the products of aerobic cellular respiration?

a)

ATP

b)

Carbon dioxide (CO2)

c)

Water

d)

All of the above

52.

What is cellular respiration?

a)

the catabolism of glucose to transfer energy to ATP

b)

the breakdown of glucose to release NADH

c)

the breakdown of glucose to release FADH

d)

the breakdown of glucose to release carbon

53.

The Electron Transport Chain (ETC) occurs across the ________ and so extra folds called ________ enable it to occur more often

a)

Mitochondrial matrix, villi

b)

Outer mitochondrial membrane, flagella

c)

Inner mitochondrial membrane, cristae

d)

Cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum

54.

After strenuous exercise, a muscle cell would contain decreased amounts of ______ and increased amounts of ______ ____

a)

glucose; ATP

b)

ATP; glucose

c)

oxygen; lactic acid

d)

lactic acid; ATP

55.

What process is found in both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism?

a)

the Kreb's cycle

b)

oxidative phosphorylation

c)

the citric acid cycle

d)

glycolysis

56.

During chemiosmosis

a)

H+ ions serve as the final electron acceptor

b)

a concentration gradient is generated when H+ ions are passively transported from the matrix to the inner mitochondrial membrane

c)

energy is released as H+ ions move freely across the mitochondrial membrane

d)

ATP is synthesized when H+ ions move through a channel in ATP synthase

57.

The final electron acceptor of aerobic respiration is _______ and this allows _______________ to continue.

a)

oxygen, electron flow

b)

water, citric acid cycle

c)

carbon dioxide, aerobic respiration

d)

NAD+, chemiosmosis

58.

The main purpose of fermentation is to

a)

produce oxygen

b)

replenish NAD+ for glycolysis

c)

replenish oxaloacetic acid for the Krebs cycle

d)

produce ATP

59.
Use the diagram to answer the question. Between which parts of the molecule must the bonds be broken to form an ADP molecule?
a)
A and B
b)
A and C
c)
B and C
d)
C and D
60.

It is possible for both prokaryotes and eukaryotes to perform glycolysis because it occurs in the _____________

a)

mitochondrial matrix

b)

inner membrane

c)

cytoplasm

d)

cell membrane

61.

Anaerobic respiration yields about ______ ATP per glucose whereas aerobic respiration yields about _______ ATP per glucose.

a)

38, 2

b)

2, 38

c)

2, 18

d)

18, 2

62.

The electrons that transfer energy to pump protons across the inner mitochondrial membrane were supplied by

a)

ATP and NADPH

b)

NADH and FADH2

c)

water and oxygen

63.

Which reaction moves the cellular respiration process from the cytoplasm to the mitochondria?

a)

glycolysis ---> pyruvate

b)

pyruvate ---> acetyl CoA

c)

acetyl CoA ---> PGA

d)

PGA ---> PGAL

64.

Aerobic cellular respiration also occurs in some aerobic bacteria (prokaryotes). Since these organisms do not have mitochondria, what is the likely location of the electron transport chain (ETC)?

a)

the nuclear membrane

b)

the endoplasmic reticulum

c)

the cell membrane

d)

the chloroplast

65.

Photosynthesis is an energy storing process (in glucose) and cellular respiration is an energy releasing process (to ATP)

a)

true

b)

false

66.
What is photosynthesis?
a)
The process in which humans eat their food
b)
When a photographer takes a photo.
c)
To get your pictures from the photo lab.
d)
The process in which plants make their food.
67.
Which organisms perform Photosynthesis?
a)
Only Autotrophs
b)
Only Heterotrophs
c)
Autotrophs and Heterotrophs
68.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
CO2 + light + H2O --> O2 + Sugar
b)
CO2 + sugar + H2O --> O2 + light
c)
O2 + light + H2O --> CO2 + Sugar
d)
CO2 + O2 + H2O --> Light+ Sugar
69.
Which organelle performs PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
Chloroplast
b)
Mitochondria
70.
What is the pigment in chloroplasts that performs photosynthesis?
a)
Chlorosynthesis
b)
Chlorophyll
c)
ADP
d)
Electron Transport
71.
What is the ultimate ORIGINAL source of energy for living things
a)
Sugar
b)
Sun
c)
Moon
d)
Carbon Dioxide
72.
What do plants need for the photosynthesis process?
a)
a camera and tripod
b)
light, carbon dioxide, and water
c)
roots, flowers, and bees
d)
soil, air, and oxygen
73.
What are the reactants of photosynthesis?
a)
carbon dioxide and oxygen
b)
water and oxygen
c)
carbon dioxide and water
d)
water and glucose
74.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and water
75.

How does most of the water needed by the plant get into its leaves?

a)

It enters through the stomata

b)

The roots absorb it and then it travels up the stem

c)

It's made during a chemical reaction in the leaf

d)

The flowers capture water and deliver it to the leaves

76.
How does carbon dioxide get into the leaves of a plant?
a)
It's absorbed by the roots
b)
It's made in a chemical reaction in the stem
c)
It enters through the stomata
d)
It goes through the flowers
77.
The stacks of disks in the chloroplast are called:
a)
Lamellae
b)
Grana
c)
Stroma
d)
Thylakoid
78.
The interior space of the chloroplast is called:
a)
Lamellae
b)
Grana
c)
Stroma
d)
Thylakoids
79.
What is the main purpose of the light reactions?
a)
To provide the energy and electrons for the calvin cycle
b)
To capture energy and make sugar
c)
To reflect green light
d)
To make sugars
80.
What is the function of NADPH and ATP?
a)
They absorb light
b)
They power the light-dependent reactions
c)
They are light-reflecting pigments
d)
They are short term energy carriers
81.

Where do the dark reactions (Calvin cycle) take place?

a)

thylakoid membrane

b)

lumen

c)

stroma

82.
What are the two products of the light reactions that are needed for the calvin cycle?
a)
NAD and NADPH
b)
NADP + and Glucose
c)
NADPH and ATP
d)
Oxygen and NADPH
83.
After photosynthesis, plants store their energy as _________ .
a)
chlorophyll
b)
pigment
c)
glucose (sugar)
d)
Oxygen
84.

Which of the following correctly shows a flow of energy through the food web?

a)

Grasshopper --> sparrow --> hawk

b)

Snake --> toad --> grasshopper

c)

Sparrow --> hawk --> rabbit

d)

Rabbit --> hawk --> grass

85.

Based on the food web, the populations of which two organisms would directly impact the population of grasshoppers?

a)

Carrots and owls

b)

Birds and grasses

c)

Mice and grains

d)

Foxes and mice

86.

In an energy pyramid, which organism would have the least amount of energy from the Sun?

a)

A blueberry bush

b)

A rabbit

c)

A grizzly bear

d)

A bald eagle

87.

The Sea Otter is a keystone species in its food web. It feeds on abalone, urchins, and mussels. Those three organisms feed on the kelp in the ecosystem. Why would the food web fall out of balance if the Sea Otters were no longer in the ecosystem?

a)

The kelp would over grow.

b)

There would be no real difference.

c)

The three organisms that eat kelp would over eat it until there is no food left in the ecosystem.

d)

The three organisms that eat kelp would eat less of it and the kelp would take over the ecosystem.

88.

Which is the most likely scenario to happen if the top predator in an ecosystem is eliminated from it?

a)

decomposers will adjust to become the top predator

b)

animals that are normally prey would overpopulate and over eat

c)

herbivores would evolve and become carnivores

d)

herbivores would reproduce more and eat less producers.

89.

A partial tundra food web is shown. Based on the information in the food web, which of the following food

chains shows one way energy flows in this ecosystem?

a)
b)
c)
d)
90.

A partial swamp food web is shown. In this food web,

energy is transferred directly between -

a)

mosquitos and

mudskippers

b)

kingfishers and

mangrove crabs

c)

prawns and

mosquito larvae

d)

kingfishers and

mangrove trees

91.

A partial hedgerow food web is shown. Which table shows the correct role of organisms in the food web?

a)
b)
c)
d)
92.

A partial forest food web is shown. What role do

turkeys play in this food web?

a)

Decomposer

b)

Predator

c)

Consumer

d)

Producer

93.

A wetlands food chain is shown below.


Which table shows the correct role of each organism?

a)
b)
c)
d)
94.

What role do bobcats play in a

forest food web?

a)

Bobcats break down dead

plants and animals and return

nutrients to the soil.

b)

Bobcats are consumers of

marmots and grouses.

c)

Bobcats produce their own

energy.

d)

Bobcats are predators of

grasses and berries.

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