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WorksheetsEOC Review MI Unit 1
Total questions: 97
Worksheet time: 53mins
A toxin or other foreign substance which creates an immune response and the production of antibodies
Antigen
Pathogen
Antibody
Immunity
A vaccine made from weakened pathogens is called
Viral Vector Vaccine
Subunit Vaccine
Live-attenuated Vaccine
Inactive Vaccine
Which of the following cells make antibodies?
T Cells
Phagocytes
B Cells
Pathogens
Any virus, bacteria, fungi, or parasite that can cause a disease in a living thing is called a
cancer.
pathogen.
gene.
toxin.
Which of the following base pairs is matched correctly?
Guanine and Thymine
Cytosine and Adenine
Adenine and Thymine
Thymine and Cytosine
What is the purpose of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) in the process of sequencing DNA?
To separate DNA fragments by size
To synthesize copies of template DNA
To change the structure of template DNA
To terminate the elongation of a DNA strand
During PCR, what happens during the Denaturation step?
DNA strands are separated according to size using gel electrophoresis.
Primers form base pairs with the single-stranded template DNA.
DNA polymerase adds new nucleotides to the primer to elongate the new strand.
Hydrogen bonds between bases are broken using high heat to separate DNA strands.
During which PCR step do primers form complementary base pairs with single-stranded template DNA?
Denaturation
Annealing
Extension
Synthesis
DNA has a ___________ charge and will migrate through a gel towards the ___________ electrode.
positive, negative
positive, positive
negative, positive
negative, negative
Larger DNA fragments move through a gel _____________ smaller DNA fragments.
faster than
at the same rate as
slower than
Place the steps of DNA Sequencing below into their correct order.
A. Detection of fluorescence w/ lasers & sensors
B. PCR w/ fluorescent dideoxynucleotides
C. Separate DNA by size w/ gel electrophoresis
D. Match DNA sequence using BLAST database
A, B, C, D
B, C, A, D
B, A, C, D
D, B, C, A
Write the correct sequence that matches this chromatogram.
(a)
Which of the following is the main purpose of ELISA testing?
to recognize an antigen.
to identify antibodies.
to detect COVID.
to identify a protein and its concentration.
After adding the secondary antibody and enzyme complex to the ELISA, what is added next (after washing?)
substrate
primary antibody
enzyme #2
antigen
2.) PCR is used to
cut DNA
clone cells
copy DNA sequences
create recombinant DNA
5.) In what order should you add the reagents to perform an ELISA test?
a.) Primary antibody, antigen sample, enzyme-linked secondary antibody, substrate
b.) Antigen sample, primary antibody, enzyme-linked secondary antibody, substrate
c.) Substrate, enzyme-linked secondary antibody, antigen samples
d.) Primary antibody, enzyme-linked secondary antibody, antigen samples, substrate
9.) What career combines molecular biology and computer analysis?
a.) diagnostic imaging
b.) genetics
c.) bioinformatics
d.) microbiology
10.) Place the following processes for using DNA for bacterial identification in order:
1. obtain bacterial DNA by bursting open bacterial cells with enzymes
2. Determine the sequence of bacterial DNA by reading the order of fluorescent nucleotides
3. Use BLAST to match the bacterial sequence to known organisms
4. Use specific primers and PCR to amplify specific pieces of bacterial DNA.
5. Use fluorescent tagged nucleotides in sequencing PCR.
a.) 1, 4, 5, 2, 3
b.) 1, 4, 3, 5, 2
c.) 1, 2, 5, 3, 4
d.) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
11.) Which structure contains accessory genes such as antibiotic resistance and can be used for recombinant DNA?
a.) pili
b.) plasmid
c.) flagella
d.) capsule
12.) Antibiotics such as penicillin target which bacterial structure?
a.) capsid
b.) cell wall
c.) flagella
d.) ribosome
13.) What is the role of the bones in the ear (ossicles)?
a.) They deliver sound vibrations to the middle ear.
b.) They help maintain balance.
c.) They transfer nerve impulses to the brain to be interpreted.
d.) They collect and direct sound to the tympanic membrane.
14.) Structure 9 in the diagram is the
a.) vestibule
b.) semicircular canals
c.) cochlea
d.) cochlear nerve
15.) Which of the following shows the correct order of how sound travels through the ear?
a.) pinna, tympanic membrane, stapes, cochlea, cochlear nerve
b.) auditory canal, stapes, incus, cochlea, vestibular nerve
c.) pinna, tympanic membrane, vestibule, Eustachian tube
d.) tympanic membrane, incus, malleus, semicircular canal
18.) During a Rinne test, what does it mean when a patient can hear the tuning fork longer through bone conduction than through air conduction?
a.) conductive hearing loss
b.) sensorineural hearing loss
c.) complete hearing loss
d.) a problem with the brain's ability to process sound
21.) Which of the following correctly shows the order of producing recombinant DNA?
I. Restriction enzyme recognizes specific nucleotide sequences on the plasmid.
II. Sticky ends of foreign DNA line up with sticky ends on the plasmid DNA.
III. Plasmid DNA is attached to foreign DNA by DNA ligase, an enzyme that "glues" DNA fragments together.
IV. Restriction enzyme cuts sugar-phosphate backbone on plasmid DNA, opening plasmid.
a.) I, IV, II, III
b.) I, II, III, IV
c.) III, I, IV, II
d.) IV, I, II, III
If 1 mL sample is put into tube #1 that has 49 mL of diluent, what is the tube dilution?
1/49
1/50
1/100
1/5
Which of the following cannot be determined by an ELISA test?
Concentration of antigens
Presence of disease
Genetic sequence of a pathogen
Order of infection
The BLAST database: what type of information do they have
List of symptoms of all known illnesses
DNA and RNA sequences of different pathogens
Samples of different bacterial cultures
Genetically modified laboratory organisms
What does it mean to 'amplify' a DNA sample
Recombine DNA using restriction enzymes
Grow bacteria that host that DNA fragment in a petri dish
Use PCR to make many more copies
Run the DNA fragment through a sequence to get the genome
B cells produce uniquely shaped proteins called antibodies that bind to ______ to mark them for destruction.
Enzymes
Secondary Antibodies
Antigens
Hormones
What is the role of the substrate in an ELISA test?
It binds directly to the antigen if the antigen is present
It washes excess fluid away from the antibodies to the antigen can bind
It binds to the secondary antibody-enzyme and causes a color change
No substrate is used in an ELISA
A doctor orders an ELISA test for two patients. The results show a color change from clear to blue. Patient A results are a dark blue while the results for patient B are a light blue. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Patient A is more infected, or has had the infection longer, more antibodies
Patient B is more infected, or has had the infection longer, more antibodies
The patients are infected equally
Neither patient is infected
If 1 mL sample form tube #1 with a tube dilution of 1/25 is placed in tube #2 with 24 mL of diluent, what is the tube dilution of tube #2?
tube dilution 1/24
tube dilution 1/25
tube dilution 1/25 x 1/25
tube dilution 1/24 x 1/24
Identify the cell part.
capsule
cell wall
cell membrane
flagella
Identify the cell part.
flagellum
pilus
mesosome
plasmid
Identify the pili.
Identify the plasmid.
Identify the cell part.
ribosomes
plasmids
chloroplasts
nucleoid
Which of the following bacteria structures allows for the connection of two bacterial cells to share genetic information between the two of them?
cilia
pilus
plasmid
True or False; Conjugation is a type of genetic transfer that involved bacterial cells picking up DNA from the environment.
True
False
Which Antibiotic affects the continuation of protein synthesis?
Sulfonamides
Fluroquinolones
Tetracyclines
Beta-Lactam
Which kind of antibiotic inhibits the super coiling of chromosomal DNA?
Beta- Lactam
Tetracyclines
Fluoroquinolones
Sulfonamides
Which kind of Antibiotic inhibits enzymes that are involved in creating the cell wall of the bacteria?
Beta-Lactams
Tetracyclines
Fluoroquinolones
Sulfonamides
Which kind of bacteria inhibits the growth of gram positive and gram negative bacteria ?
Beta- Lactam
Tetracyclines
Fluoroquinolones
Sulfonamides
Identify this bacteria...
Gram Negative
Gram Positive
Identify the bacteria....
Gram Negative
Gram Positive
Identify the bacteria...
Gram Positive
Gram Negative
Identify the bacteria...
Gram Positive
Gram Negative
Which of the following types of genetic transfer involves a bacteriaphage?
conjugation
transfomation
transduction
Name that organelle: The DNA-containing area of a bacterial cell
Nucleus
Ribosome
Plasmid
Nucleoid
Name that organelle: Responsible for the translation of RNA to protein
Nucleus
Ribosome
Plasmid
Nucleoid
Gram Negative bacteria...
Stain purple
Stain pink
Strain blue
Gram Positive bacteria...
Stain purple
Stain pink
Strain blue
Which antibiotic: Irreversibly inhibit enzymes involved in the final steps of cell wall synthesis.
Beta Lactam
Tetracyclines
Fluoroquinolones
Sulfonamides
Which antibiotic: Prevents the continuation of protein synthesis
Beta Lactam
Tetracyclines
Fluoroquinolones
Sulfonamides
Bacterial Transfer where a plasmid or free DNA is taken into the cell through the plasma membrane.
Conjugation
Transformation
Transduction
What happens when someone does not take their antibiotics every day?
The person does not need to continue antibiotics after they feel better
The bacteria continue to replicate and could lead to antibiotic resistance
It is fine as long as you take all of the antibiotics at some point
The antibiotics are no longer functional and they need a new prescription from the doctor
Observe the results above. What gene is present in the engineered plasmid?
kanamycin resistant gene
ampicillin resistant gene
tetracycline resistant gene
No plasmid is necessary to grow on plate 3.
Which of these waves would produce a high pitch sound?
Low frequency wave
High frequency wave
Which sound wave would be perceived as a loud, low pitched sound?
A
B
C
D
The Left ear on the audiogram is shown as:
Y-axis
W-axis
X
O
Which region of the ear is affected by sensorineural hearing loss?
outer ear
middle ear
inner ear
Which hearing test uses a tuning fork and can only tell us IF a person has hearing loss, not how much is lost?
pure tone test
rinne test
speech-in-noise test
tinnitus test
Does this audiogram represent normal hearing or hearing loss?
normal hearing
mild hearing loss
severe hearing loss
How would you describe the hearing loss demonstrated in this audiogram?
Moderate hearing loss in right ear at high frequencies
Moderate hearing loss in right ear at low frequencies
Moderate hearing loss in left ear at high frequencies
Moderate hearing loss in left ear at low frequencies
Which audiogram matches mild-to-moderate hearing loss in both ears from otitis media?
A
B
How would you describe this patient's hearing loss based on the audiogram?
severe hearing loss in the lower frequencies
mild hearing loss in the higher frequencies
mild hearing loss in low frequencies
severe loss in high frequencies in the right ear
19.) Which of the following is true about cochlear implant technology?
a.) The entire deaf community supports cochlear implants as a treatment for hearing loss.
b.) Cochlear implants are effective for everyone and have predictable results.
c.) A cochlear implant is an option for treating profound hearing loss.
d.) A cochlear implant is necessary for someone with hearing loss to function in mainstream society.
What type of vaccines use an inactive version of a germ?
mRNA vaccines
Subunit vaccines
Non-live vaccines
Live, attenuated vaccines
Which vaccines use a piece of a germ to teach the immune system?
Live, attenuated vaccines
Non-live vaccines
Subunit vaccines
mRNA vaccines
What is the purpose of a toxoid vaccine?
To make you sick
To fight off toxins created by germs
To spread germs
To weaken the immune system
What is the difference between inactivated and live vaccines?
Inactivated vaccines are made from dead germs, while live vaccines are made from weakened germs
Inactivated vaccines are made from weakened germs, while live vaccines are made from dead germs
There is no difference
Inactivated vaccines make you sick, while live vaccines protect you from illness
An enzyme that cuts DNA molecules at a specific “recognition site” is called
Restriction enzyme
DNA polymerase
RNA polymerase
DNA Ligase
If the target sequence or restriction site is 5'GCTTCG3', what is the complementary sequence read in the 3'-5' direction?
CGAAGC
GCTTCG
CGUUCG
GCUUCG
Developed the first vaccine using cowpox, which protected people from smallpox!
Edward Jenner
Nicolas Copernicus
Galileo Galilei
Isaac Newton
This type of vaccine uses a harmless version of a molecule that bacteria secrete (release) that causes disease or damage.
Killed / Inactivated Vaccine
Live / Attenuated Vaccine
Similar Pathogen Vaccine
Toxoid Vaccine
Subunit / Microbial Antigen Vaccine
This type of vaccine uses a whole pathogen that has been weakened in order to prevent it from causing infection.
Killed / Inactivated Vaccine
Live / Attenuated Vaccine
Similar Pathogen Vaccine
Toxoid Vaccine
Subunit / Microbial Antigen Vaccine
This type of vaccine includes only the protein needed to stimulate an immune response, and NOT the entire pathogenic organism.
Killed / Inactivated Vaccine
Live / Attenuated Vaccine
Similar Pathogen Vaccine
Toxoid Vaccine
Subunit / Microbial Antigen Vaccine
What makes and releases antibodies?
Memory T and B cells
B-cells
helper T-cells
cytotoxic T-cell
This cell type helps attack various infected cells and tumors
Memory B cell
cytotoxic T cell
B cell
helper T cell
A living microbe with reduced virulence that is used for vaccination is considered _____.
conjugated
attenuated
an adjuvant
a toxoid
Full set of chromosomes of a cell arranged with respect to size, shape, and number.
chromatin
karyotype
phenotype
genotype
What type of cut is this photo?
Blunt
sticky
At what temperature does the denaturation step of PCR occur?
95° C
50° C
72° C
At what temperature does the Extension step of PCR occur?
95°C
50-65°C
72°C
Health care experts who study trends in health issues in populations and deploy public announcements, education initiatives, and protocols to protect the health of the nation.
epidemiologists
dermatologists
medical examiners
immunologist
