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Nursing Advanced Skills Review

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Once obtained from the lab, how long does the nurse have to start the blood infusion?

a)

1 hour

b)

30 minutes

c)

5 minutes

d)

4 hours

2.

Once the Packed Red Blood Cells (PRBC) start to infuse, how long do you have to infuse the entire bag?

a)

30 minutes

b)

12 hours

c)

4 hours

d)

1 hour

3.

The nurse knows that this blood type is the universal recipient:

a)

AB+

b)

O+

c)

O-

d)

AB-

4.

The student nurse knows that the listed critical step in NG tube insertion is:

a)

Verification of placement by x-ray

b)

Applying lubrication to tip of NG tube

c)

Positioning client in supine position

d)

Measure from tip of nose, to clavicle, to sternum

5.

The first step, before performing any procedure, is to:

a)

Introduce yourself as the student nurse.

b)

Provide privacy.

c)

Check the order.

d)

Explain the procedure.

6.

Which skill requires the use of a mask by the nurse?

a)

Inserting a peripheral IV

b)

Inserting a NG tube

c)

Hanging blood

d)

Completing a central line dressing change

7.

Which EKG tracings would require defibrillation? Select all that apply.

a)

Ventricular tachycardia, with a pulse

b)

Ventricular tachycardia, without a pulse

c)

Supraventricular Tachycardia

d)

Ventricular Fibrillation

8.

The nurse knows that this type of fluid will only be hung with blood.

(a)  

9.

A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube (NG) tube placed for gastric decompression. The client reports persistent coughing and discomfort after the tube placement. What is the nurse’s priority action?
Credit: Amanda Binford

a)

Administer an antitussive medication as prescribed.

b)

Assess the placement of the NG tube.

c)


Irrigate the NG tube with sterile water to clear any blockages.

d)


Reposition the client to a high Fowler’s position.

10.

A nurse is taking care of a patient with nasogastric tube who is receiving enteral nutrition daily. Which of the following nursing interventions is most important to ensure the patient’s safety during feeding?

Credit: Ia Hang

a)

Flush the NGT with warm water before and after each feeding.

b)

Monitor patient’s blood sugar levels every two hours during feeding.

c)

Have patient in supine position during feeding.

d)

Check the NGT placement before every feeding.

11.

When placing a nasogastric tube, which steps are important to ensure prior to placement?

Select all that apply.

Credit: Taylor Henthorne

a)

Assess the NG tube

b)

Measure the distance from the tip of the nose to the xiphoid process of the sternum

c)

Place the patient in a supine position

d)

Checking the order

e)

Discuss ways to communicate such as thumbs up or thumbs down

12.

A new nurse on the unit is explaining the nursing interventions for chest tube management. Which statement by the nurse indicates the need for further teaching?

Credit: Merrysa Janzen

a)

Respiratory exam must be completed every 2-4 hours.

b)

Be sure the position of the system is upright and above the client's chest.

c)

Assess chest tube drainage system every 4 hours.

d)

Make sure water seal chamber is filled to two centimeters.

13.


When managing a closed chest tube drainage system, the nurse must follow a specific order when completing the care on the client and equipment. In what order should these tasks be completed? Please write the number to your answers (1-6, with 1 being the first task to be completed).

Credit: Tiffanie Zillmer

  1. Ensure the chest tube drainage system is below the level of the insertion site and upright to prevent back flow of fluid.

  2. Verify the provider’s order regarding chest tube care and management. (Indication and location)

  3. Document the procedure, assessments, and interventions completed.

  4. Confirm the identity of the patient with 2 identifiers.

  5. Assess the dressing over the insertion site, as well as the drainage system to ensure it is working properly.
    6. Ensure the prescribed suction is set at the correct level.

4 lines
14.

What are the possible reasons we would not want to place an NG tube? Select all that apply

Credit: Cortney Johnston

a)

a client who recently had a nasal/sinus surgery

b)

a client who broke their arm in an accident

c)

client taking warfarin

d)

client who has frequent nosebleeds with no known cause

e)

a client who is scared about the procedure

15.

Which of the following are indications for placing an NG tube? Select all that apply.

Credit: Alyssa Heimen

a)

To provide nutrition for patients in cases that oral nutrition is unable to be done 

b)

To decompress the stomach in cases of bowel obstruction

c)

To give medications when oral medications are unable to be given

d)

To monitor blood glucose levels in diabetic patients

16.

A client has just had an NG tube placed and taped at 55cm at the nares. Which of the following is a sign that the nasogastric tube has been placed incorrectly?

Credit: Abby Wallace

a)

Bleeding from the nose

b)

Uncontrollable coughing and cyanosis

c)

Brown output from the tube

d)

Aspirate pH of 5.5

17.

The nurse is performing a sterile dressing change for a central venous catheter (CVC). Which of the following actions should the nurse take to maintain asepsis and prevent complications?

Select all that apply.

Credit: Amanda Binford

a)

Perform hand hygiene and don clean gloves before removing the old dressing.

b)

Assess the catheter insertion site for redness, swelling, or drainage.

c)

Clean the insertion site with chlorhexidine for at least 20 seconds.

d)

Allow the chlorhexidine to dry completely before applying the new dressing.

e)

Don sterile gloves before applying the new dressing.

18.

In an emergency situation where the patient’s Rh status is unknown, which type of blood is safest to transfuse?

Credit: Ia Hang

a)

AB positive

b)


A negative

c)

O negative

d)

B positive

19.

A central venous access device (CVAD) can provide long-term access to the venous or arterial system. The nurse knows that this is the most common complication related to CVAD's:

Credit: Taylor Henthorne

a)

Dislodgement of the catheter

b)

Arm pain

c)

Central line associated bloodstream infections

(CLABSI)

d)

GI upset such as nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea

20.

The nurse caring for a client receiving a blood transfusion, hung by gravity, notes that the blood is transfusing too slowly. Which action by the nurse would be appropriate? Select All That Apply

Credit: Merrysa Janzen

a)

Stop the transfusion and obtain new IV access.

b)

Add normal saline.

c)

Check to make sure the blood isn’t over 4 hours old.

d)

Check the IV site for patency.

e)

Call the provider to report adverse reaction.

21.

An 85 year old male patient with a history of heart failure is receiving a blood transfusion for iron deficiency anemia. Near the end of the transfusion he becomes hypertensive and complains of dyspnea and a cough. You note distention in his neck veins and his SPO2 is decreasing. Which transfusion reaction do you suspect?

Credit: Abby Wallace

a)

Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

b)

Anaphylactic transfusion reaction

c)

Transfusion associated circulatory overload

d)

Transfusion related acute lung injury

22.

A 78 year old patient has been admitted to the medical-surgical floor with a non-tunneled percutaneous central venous catheter that has been placed for short-term medication administration. The nurse enters the client’s room to help the lab in obtaining a blood sample. What task would the nurse complete first?

Credit: Tiffanie Zillmer

a)

Document the procedure, catheter location, patient response, and appearance of the site.

b)

Scrub the connector with an alcohol wipe, use a 3ml syringe to flush the most distal catheter, and then draw back the blood.

c)

Attach a needle adapter, obtain the blood sample, label the tubes, and give them directly to the lab tech.

d)

Identify the patient with 2 identifiers and explain the procedure.

23.

This artery is the only artery in the body to carry deoxygenated blood:

(a)  

24.

The following strip is a 6 second strip. What EKG rhythm is displayed here?

a)

Atrial Fibrillation

b)

Asystole

c)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

d)

Sinus Tachycardia

25.

The nurse knows that with this EKG rhythm, an important intervention will be:

a)

Blood coagulation modifiers

b)

CPR

c)

Defibrillation

d)

Administering epinephrine

26.

Identify what is occurring at the red circled areas.

a)

Asystole

b)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

c)

Premature Ventricular Contraction

d)

Premature Atrial Contraction

27.

The nurse notes this rhythm on the monitor. What action should the nurse take first?

a)

Perform CPR

b)

Prepare for Synchronized Cardioversion

c)

Prepare for Defibrillation

d)

Check for a pulse

28.

Name this rhythm.

a)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

b)

1st Degree Block

c)

3rd Degree Block

d)

Atrial Flutter

29.

Identify this rhythm.

(a)  

30.

Identify this rhythm.

(a)  

31.

Identify this rhythm.

(a)  

32.

The nurse knows that these are possible signs and symptoms of a blood transfusion reaction:

Select all that apply.

a)

Elevated temperature (usually 2 degrees F or 1 degree C)

b)

Hypertension

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Shortness of breath

e)

Low back pain

33.

A nurse is educating a client about nutritional support options. Which statement best describes the difference between enteral and parenteral nutrition?

a)

Enteral nutrition is delivered directly into the bloodstream, while parenteral nutrition is given through the gastrointestinal tract.

b)

Enteral nutrition requires a functioning gastrointestinal tract, while parenteral nutrition bypasses the digestive system and is administered intravenously.

c)

Enteral nutrition provides only carbohydrates, while parenteral nutrition supplies all essential nutrients.

d)

Enteral nutrition is used only for short-term feeding, while parenteral nutrition is always long-term.

34.

What is the critical step for administering an IV push medication?

a)

Check orders. Wash hands.

b)

Cleanse port with alcohol for 15 seconds. Flush with normal saline.

c)

Perform all med checks. Verify compatibility.  Identify patient.

d)

Administer normal saline flush at the same rate the medication was administered.

35.

What are the 3 critical steps in IV insertion?

a)

Engage the needle safety device

b)

Identify client and perform med check.

c)

Prime extension piece using 0.9% sodium chloride flush. Leave the syringe attached.

d)

Insert needle bevel up at a 15 to 30-degree angle.

e)

Secure the catheter and apply dressing.

36.

Continuous bubbling in which chamber of the chest tube drainage system is indicative of an air leak?

a)

Vacuum chamber

b)

Tension chamber

c)

Water-seal chamber

d)

Suction control chamber

37.

During transport, the chest tube gets disconnected from the chest tube drainage system and cannot be reconnected. The nurse should immediately do what with the tubing?

a)

Leave in place and contact the HCP

b)

Wrap in sterile gauze and secure with tape

c)

Immediately immerse in (2cm) sterile water

d)

Lift exposed in above the level of the patient's heart

38.

The nurse knows that lack of bubbling is abnormal in which chamber?

a)

Air leak chamber

b)

Water-seal chamber

c)

Collection chamber

d)

Suction chamber in a wet suction system (Ocean)

39.

A nurse is monitoring a client with a chest tube connected to a water-seal drainage system. The nurse notes tidaling in the water-seal chamber. What is the most appropriate interpretation of this finding?

a)

Tidaling indicates an air leak in the chest tube system.

b)

Tidaling is a normal finding and occurs with the patient’s breathing.

c)

Tidaling suggests the tube is occluded and requires immediate intervention.

d)

Tidaling means the lung has fully re-expanded and the chest tube should be removed.

40.

Chest tubes reestablish what type of pressure?

a)

Water seal pressure

b)

Positive pressure

c)

Equal pressure

d)

Negative pressure

41.

The nurse knows that it is most important to do what prior to the removal of a chest tube?

a)

Explain the care of the insertion site after the removal

b)

Make sure blood products are available

c)

Administer pain Rx 30-60 minutes before procedure

d)

Ensure the patient has normal respirations

42.

The definition of a central line is a line/catheter placed within the venous circulation that ends in the

(a)  

43.

A client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line complains of pain, swelling, and redness at the insertion site. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Apply a warm compress to relieve discomfort

b)

Continue using the line but monitor for worsening symptoms

c)

Stop the infusion and assess for signs of thrombophlebitis or infection

d)

Flush the catheter with normal saline to clear any occlusion

44.

A nurse is caring for a client with a central line who suddenly develops shortness of breath, chest pain, and hypotension. The nurse suspects an air embolism. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Place the patient in Trendelenburg position on the left side and administer oxygen

b)

Flush the central line with normal saline to remove the air

c)

Remove the central line immediately to prevent further complications

d)

Notify the provider and continue to monitor vital signs

45.

A nurse is teaching a client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line about home care. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?

a)

"I will wash my hands before touching my PICC line."

b)

"I will cover my PICC line with plastic when I shower."

c)

"I will flush my PICC line with normal saline once a day to keep it from clotting."

d)

"If I notice swelling or drainage at the site, I will just monitor it for a few days before calling my provider."

46.

The nurse administered ceftriaxone 1 gram via IV push, which was 4 mL (250 mg/mL) over 5 minutes. If the nurse was to flush 10 mL of normal saline after giving the antibiotic, all at the same rate, how long would it take to flush the 10 mL?

a)

10 minutes

b)

5 minutes

c)

15 minutes

d)

12.5 minutes

47.

A nurse is inserting an IV catheter and observes blood return in the flashback chamber. What is the next step the nurse should take?

a)

Remove the needle and apply pressure to the site

b)

Lower the angle of the catheter and advance 1/4 inch more

c)

Flush the catheter with normal saline to ensure patency

d)

Secure the catheter and begin IV fluid administration

48.

A nurse is caring for a client with a newly inserted peripheral IV catheter. Which of the following findings requires immediate intervention?

a)

Slight redness at the IV site

b)

Patient reports mild discomfort when moving the arm

c)

Cool, swollen skin around the IV insertion site

d)

A few small air bubbles in the IV tubing

49.

A nurse is administering an IV push medication through a saline lock (a capped IV catheter). What is the correct sequence of steps for safe medication administration?

a)

Flush with saline, administer medication, then flush again with saline

b)

Administer the medication, then flush with saline

c)

Flush with saline, administer the medication, then flush with heparin

d)

Flush with heparin, administer medication, then flush with normal saline

50.

A nurse is caring for a client receiving an IV push opioid for pain management. What is the most important assessment to perform before and after administration?

a)

Blood pressure and heart rate

b)

Respiratory rate and level of consciousness

c)

Urine output and bowel sounds

d)

IV site condition and patient’s ability to move the extremity