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Worksheets

Review 1 Physics

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 4hrs 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which expression has the same SI base units as pressure?

a)

forcelength  × speed\frac{force}{length\ \ \times\ speed}

b)

forcelength  ×  time\frac{force}{length\ \ \times\ \ time}

c)

masslength  ×  (time)2\frac{mass}{length\ \ \times\ \ \left(time\right)^2}

d)

mass  ×  (time)2length\frac{mass\ \ \times\ \ \left(time\right)^2}{length}

2.

What is an approximate value for the speed of sound in air?

a)

30ms–1

b)

300ms–1

c)

30,000ms–1

d)

300,000,000ms–1

3.

A pendulum bob is held stationary by a horizontal force H. The three forces acting on the bob are

shown in the diagram.


The tension in the string of the pendulum is T. The weight of the pendulum bob is W. The string is held at an angle of 30° to the vertical.


Which statement is correct?

a)

H = T cos 30

b)

T = H sin30

c)

W = T sin30

d)

W = T cos 30

4.

A student is investigating an electrical signal using a cathode-ray oscilloscope (c.r.o).

The frequency of the signal is 50kHz.

Which time-base setting on the oscilloscope should be used?

a)

50mscm–1

b)

1mscm–1

c)

10µscm–1

d)

0.5 µscm–1

5.

A student wishes to measure a distance of about 10cm to a precision of 0.01cm.

Which measuring instrument should be used?

a)

meter rule

b)

micrometer

c)

tape measure

d)

vernier calipers

6.

An aircraft, initially stationary on a runway, takes off with a speed of 85kmh–1 in a distance of no

more than 1.20km.

What is the minimum constant acceleration necessary for the aircraft?

a)

0.23ms–2

b)

0.46ms–2

c)

3.0 ms–2

d)

6.0 ms–2

7.

The acceleration of free fall on Pluto is 0.66ms–2.

An object weighs 6.0N on Earth.

What would this object weigh on Pluto?

a)

0.40N

b)

0.93N

c)

4.0 N

d)

39N

8.

A radio-controlled toy car travels along a straight line for a time of 15s.

The variation with time t of the velocity v of the car is shown.

What is the average velocity of the toy car for the journey shown by the graph?

a)

–1.5ms–1

b)

0.0ms–1

c)

4.0ms–1

d)

4.5ms–1

9.

Water flows out of a pipe and hits a wall
When the jet of water hits the wall, it has horizontal velocity v and cross-sectional area A.
The density of the water is ρ. The water does not rebound from the wall.What is the force exerted on the wall by the water?

a)

ρvA\frac{\rho v}{A}  

b)

ρv2A\frac{\rho v^2}{A}  

c)

ρAv\rho Av  

d)

ρAv2\rho Av^2  

10.

A stationary firework explodes into three pieces. The masses and the velocities of the three

pieces immediately after the explosion are shown.

What are speed v1 and speed v2 respectively?

a)

4.0, 4.0

b)

9.2, 9.2

c)

14,14

d)

16,16

11.

A spherical object falls through water at constant speed. Three forces act on the object.

Which diagram, showing these three forces to scale, is correct?

a)
b)
c)
d)
12.

A uniform metre rule of weight 2.0N is pivoted at the 60 cm mark. A 4.0N load is suspended from

one end, causing the rule to rotate about the pivot.

At the instant when the rule is horizontal, what is the resultant moment about the pivot?

a)

0.0Nm

b)

1.4 Nm

c)

1.6 Nm

d)

1.8 Nm

13.

The vertical forces that the ground exerts on a stationary van are shown.

The van is 2.50m long with the wheels at a distance of 0.600m from the front of the van and

0.400m from the rear of the van.

What is the horizontal distance of the van’s centre of gravity from the front of the van?

a)

0.540m

b)

0.960m

c)

1.14m

d)

1.36m

14.

An object hangs by means of two cords around two rods, as shown.

The object is held in equilibrium by the forces F1 and F2. The object weighs 10N. There is

negligible friction between the rods and cords. Angle θ is 90°.

Which row of the option gives the value of F1 and F2 respectively for an angle θ of 90°?

a)

4.0, 6.0

b)

6.0, 4.0

c)

6.0, 8.0

d)

8.0, 6.0

15.

Which force is caused only by a pressure difference?

a)

friction

b)

upthrust

c)

viscous force

d)

weight

16.

The total energy input Ein in a process is partly transferred to useful energy output U and partly

transfered to energy that is wasted W.

What is the efficiency of the process?

a)

UEin×100%\frac{U}{E_{in}}\times100\%

b)

WEin×100%\frac{W}{E_{in}}\times100\%

c)

UW×100%\frac{U}{W}\times100\%

d)

U+WEin×100%\frac{U+W}{E_{in}}\times100\%

17.

A gas is enclosed inside a cylinder which is fitted with a frictionless piston.

Initially, the gas has a volume V1 and is in equilibrium with the external pressure p. The gas is

then heated slowly so that it expands at constant pressure, pushing the piston back until the

volume of the gas has increased to V2

a)

p(V2 – V1)

b)

12\frac{1}{2} p(V2 – V1)

c)

p(V2 + V1)

d)

12\frac{1}{2} p(V2 + V1)

18.

A projectile is thrown at an angle to the ground.

At a certain time, the projectile has a horizontal velocity of 23.0ms–1 and a vertical velocity

of –10.1ms–1.

What is the speed of the projectile at this time?

a)

12.9ms–1

b)

20.7ms–1

c)

25.1ms–1

d)

33.1ms–1

19.

A car of mass 1400 kg is travelling on a straight, horizontal road at a constant speed of 25ms–1.

The output power from the car’s engine is 30kW.

The car then travels up a slope at 2° to the horizontal, maintaining the same constant speed.

What is the output power of the car’s engine when travelling up the slope?

a)

12kW

b)

31kW

c)

42kW

d)

65kW

20.

Two wires X and Y are made of different metals. The Young modulus of wire X is twice that ofwire Y. The diameter of wire X is half that of wire Y.The wires are extended with the same strain and obey Hooke’s law.What is the ratio                                  tension in wire Y  
                          tension in wire X ?

a)

18\frac{1}{8}  

b)

12\frac{1}{2}  

c)

1

d)

2

21.

What is the globally-agreed system of measurement units formally named in 1960?

a)

Imperial System

b)

Metric System

c)

International System of Units

d)

Customary System

22.

What is the measure of how close a reading is to the true value of a quantity?

a)

Resolution

b)

Precision

c)

Magnitude

d)

Accuracy

23.

What is a physical quantity that has both magnitude and direction?

a)

Scalar

b)

Speed

c)

Distance

d)

Vector

24.

What is the equation to find the area under a velocity-time graph for constant acceleration?

a)

Area = height x base

b)

Area = 1/2 (A + B) x base

c)

Area = 1/2 (u + v) x time

d)

Area = velocity x time

25.

What is the acceleration due to gravity acting on a projectile?

a)

-9.8 m/s^2

b)

9.8 m/s^2

c)

1 m/s^2

d)

0 m/s^2

26.

What is the measure of how close a set of values are to each other when measured multiple times?

a)

Magnitude

b)

Precision

c)

Resolution

d)

Accuracy

27.

According to Newton's 1st law, an object will stay at rest or move with constant velocity unless acted upon by:

a)

Friction

b)

Unbalanced forces

c)

Air resistance

d)

Gravity

28.

In an elastic collision, what happens to the relative speed of approach and separation?

a)

They are zero

b)

Separation speed is greater

c)

Approach speed is greater

d)

They are equal

29.

What is the principle of moments in equilibrium?

a)

Resultant force is zero

b)

Resultant torque is zero

c)

Resultant force and torque are zero

d)

Resultant force is maximum

30.

In a 2D collision, what is the condition for an elastic collision?

a)

Objects have different masses

b)

Objects collide head-on

c)

Objects move along different planes

d)

Objects have same mass

31.

What is the formula for torque of a couple?

a)

Velocity x Time

b)

Mass x Acceleration

c)

Force x Time

d)

Force x Distance

32.

A 9.5 kW heater in an electric shower heats water from 15 °C to 50 °C. Thermal energy transfer to the surroundings is negligible.

What volume of water can be heated by the shower in 1.0 minute when operating under these conditions?

specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 × 103 J kg–1 K–1

density of water = 1000 kg m–3

a)

4.4 × 10–4 m3

b)

2.7 × 10–3 m3

c)

3.9 × 10–3 m3

d)

2.3 × 10–1 m3

33.

What is the unit of specific latent heat in fundamental (base) units?

a)

J kg–1

b)

m2 s–2 K–1

c)

m2 s–2

d)

kg m2 s–2

34.

Which is the correct unit for U-value?

a)

J m–2 K–1

b)

J K–1

c)

W m–2 K–1

d)

W2 K–1

35.

Which process would cause the internal energy of a gas to change by – 40 J?

a)

The gas is cooled losing 120 J of energy and expands doing 80 J of work.

b)

The gas is cooled losing 120 J of energy and 80 J of work is done on the gas by compressing it.

c)

The gas is heated gaining 120 J of energy and expands doing 80 J of work.

d)

The gas is heated gaining 120 J of energy and 80 J of work is done on the gas by compressing it.

36.

An insulated tube of negligible heat capacity contains 100 identical lead pellets. The tube is turned upside down so that the pellets fall from the top to the bottom through the same vertical distance. It is found that after 220 turns of the tube the temperature of the pellets has increased by 5 °C.

The experiment is repeated with 400 of these lead pellets in the tube.

How many turns of the tube are needed to increase the temperature of 400 pellets by 5 °C?

a)

55

b)

220

c)

440

d)

880

37.

An electrical shower has a power of 10.5 kW. Water of specific heat capacity 4200 J kg–1 K–1 passes through the shower at a rate of 9.3 × 10–2 kg s–1. The water enters the shower at 20 °C and leaves at 45 °C.

Some energy is wasted in heating the components of the shower.

How much energy is wasted in one second?

a)

0.74 kJ

b)

3.5 kJ

c)

2.7 kJ

d)

9.8 kJ

38.

Two thermal insulation boards X and Y have the same dimensions.

Board X has U-value U.

Board Y has a rate of heat transfer that is 50% more than that of board X for the same temperature difference.

What is the U-value of board Y?

a)

U/4

b)

3U/2

c)

2U

d)

3U

39.

The temperature of a hot liquid in a container falls at a rate of 2 K per minute just before it begins to solidify. The temperature then remains steady for 20 minutes by which time all the liquid has all solidified.

What is the quantity  (Specific heat capacity of the liquid)/(Specific latent heat of fusion) ?

a)

1/40

b)

1/10

c)

10

d)

40

40.

A car of mass M travelling at speed V comes to rest using its brakes. Energy is dissipated in the brake discs of total mass m and specific heat capacity c. The rise in temperature of the brake discs can be estimated from

a)

(mV2)/(2Mc)

b)

(2MV2)/(mc)

c)

(MV2)/(2mc)

d)

(2mc)/(MV2)

41.

A raindrop of mass m falls to the ground at its terminal speed v. The specific heat capacity of water is c and the acceleration of free fall is g. Given that 25% of the energy is retained in the raindrop when it strikes the ground, what is the rise in temperature of the raindrop?

a)

(mv2)/8c

b)

v2/4mc

c)

mg/(4c)

d)

v2/8c

42.

A liquid flows continuously through a chamber that contains an electric heater. When the steady state is reached, the liquid leaving the chamber is at a higher temperature than the liquid entering the chamber. The difference in temperature is Δt.

Which of the following will increase Δt with no other change?

a)

Increasing the volume flow rate of the liquid

b)

Changing the liquid to one with a lower specific heat capacity

c)

Using a heating element with a higher resistance

d)

Changing the liquid to one that has a higher density

43.

What is the formula for work done when a force acts on an object and makes it move?

a)

Work = mass x acceleration

b)

Work = power x time

c)

Work = force x distance

d)

Work = energy x time

44.

What is the principle of conservation of energy?

a)

Energy in a system decreases over time

b)

Energy is always created in a system

c)

Energy can be destroyed in a system

d)

Total energy in a system remains constant

45.

What is the efficiency of a system?

a)

The useful energy output of a system

b)

The ratio of total energy output to useful energy input

c)

The ratio of useful energy output to total energy input

d)

The total energy output of a system

46.

What is the formula for gravitational potential energy changes in a uniform gravitational field?

a)

ΔEP = ma

b)

ΔEP = mgΔh

c)

ΔEP = mv^2

d)

ΔEP = Fv

47.

What is kinetic energy?

a)

Energy from motion

b)

Energy from position

c)

Energy from charge

d)

Energy from stress

48.

What is the total energy equation when no work is done against friction and gravity is the only force present?

a)

Total Initial Energy = 0

b)

Total Initial Energy > Total Final Energy

c)

Total Initial Energy < Total Final Energy

d)

Total Initial Energy = Total Final Energy

49.

What are the three constituents of an atom?

a)

Protons, neutrons, and muons

b)

Protons, neutrons, and electrons

c)

Neutrons, electrons, and neutrinos

d)

Protons, electrons, and positrons

50.

What is the specific charge of a proton?

a)

1.58 × 10^9 Ckg^-1

b)

9 × 10^7 Ckg^-1

c)

1.6 × 10^-19 C

d)

0.67 × 10^-27 kg

51.

What is an isotope?

a)

Atoms with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons

b)

Atoms with different numbers of protons and neutrons

c)

Atoms with different numbers of electrons

d)

Atoms with the same mass but different charges

52.

What force keeps nuclei stable?

a)

Gravitational force

b)

Strong nuclear force

c)

Weak nuclear force

d)

Electromagnetic force

53.

What occurs during alpha decay?

a)

Nucleon number stays the same

b)

Proton number increases by 1

c)

Nucleon number increases by 4

d)

Proton number decreases by 2

54.

What is the antiparticle of the electron?

a)

Neutrino

b)

Positron

c)

Photon

d)

Muon

55.

What is the role of exchange particles?

a)

To emit photons

b)

To stabilize atomic nuclei

c)

To create new particles

d)

To carry energy and momentum between particles

56.

What is the baryon number of a proton?

a)

-1

b)

1

c)

2

d)

0

57.

What is the work function of a metal?

a)

The maximum energy of emitted electrons

b)

The minimum energy required for electrons to be emitted

c)

The energy needed to excite an electron

d)

The energy required to ionize an atom

58.

What happens during pair production?

a)

A neutron decays into a proton

b)

An electron is emitted from a nucleus

c)

A particle and antiparticle collide

d)

A photon is converted into matter and antimatter

59.

What is the threshold frequency?

a)

The minimum frequency needed to emit photoelectrons

b)

The maximum frequency of emitted photons

c)

The frequency of the strongest light source

d)

The frequency at which electrons are ionized

60.

What is the main characteristic of leptons?

a)

They are always stable

b)

They have a baryon number of 1

c)

They are made of quarks

d)

They do not experience the strong nuclear force

61.

What is the energy of a photon directly proportional to?

a)

Charge

b)

Mass

c)

Frequency

d)

Wavelength

62.

What is the significance of the photoelectric equation?

a)

It determines the charge of an electron

b)

It calculates the energy of a photon based on its mass

c)

It relates work function, maximum kinetic energy, and frequency

d)

It describes the behavior of photons in a vacuum

63.

What is the formula for density?

a)

Density = Mass + Volume

b)

Density = Mass / Volume

c)

Density = Volume / Mass

d)

Density = Mass x Volume

64.

What is the equation for pressure in fluids?

a)

Pressure = ρhg

b)

Pressure = ρgΔh

c)

Pressure = ρVg

d)

Pressure = ρA

65.

What principle states that an object immersed in a fluid experiences an upthrust equal to the weight of the fluid displaced?

a)

Boyle's Law

b)

Archimedes' Principle

c)

Newton's Third Law

d)

Pascal's Law

66.

What is the formula to calculate the upthrust force using Archimedes' principle?

a)

Upthrust = ρgA

b)

Upthrust = ρgh

c)

Upthrust = ρVg

d)

Upthrust = ρgV

67.

What is the relationship between the weight of an object and the upthrust force when fully submerged in a fluid?

a)

Upthrust = Weight of object

b)

Upthrust > Weight of object

c)

Upthrust = 0

d)

Upthrust < Weight of object

68.

What is Energy?

a)

The movement of a body because of a force

b)

E = ft

E = 1/2mv^2

W = df

c)

The ability for a body to do work

d)

E = 1/2mv^2

W = fd

E = mgh

69.

The velocity at which an object falls depends on its mass. (Providing that there is no air resistance)

a)

True

b)

False

70.

What is the equation that would give you N?

(using opposite, adjacent, hypotenuse)

a)

tan(a/h)

b)

tan^-1(a/o)

c)

hcos(θ)

d)

hsin(θ)

71.

If a ball is dropped from 10m, what is its velocity?

a)

Cannot Calculate

b)

10kms-1

c)

14ms-1

d)

10ms-2

72.

What is the base unit for the Joule?

a)

kg^2 m s^-1

b)

kg m^2 s^-2

c)

kg ms^-2

d)

J

73.

Which one of these is a base quanitity?

a)

Force

b)

Nm^-1

c)

kg m^2 s^-2

d)

Distance

74.

Which one of these is a base unit?

a)

Nm^-1

b)

Kg m^2 s^-2

c)

Weight

d)

Distance

75.

Which of these are the correct SUVAT equations?

a)

s = (u+v)t/2

b)

v = u + at

c)

s = (u-v)t/2

d)

v^2 = u^2 + 2as

e)

s = ut + 1/2at^2

76.

How do you calculate efficiency?

a)

useful power out / total in

b)

total power in - useful out / total in

c)

unused power/total in

d)

useful out - useless out / total in

77.

How do you calculate power?

a)

F x d

b)

P = et

c)

P = e / t

d)

F /d

78.

What is Resistivity?

a)

the measurement of resistance in a circuit

b)

the properties of a circuit that meaures how strongly it resists current

c)

the properties of a wire that meaures how strongly it resists current

d)

the physical properties of a wire that create potential difference

79.

The component follows (a)   law

80.

What is this component likely to be?

(a)  

81.

A component that follows Ohm's law...

a)

Has an exponential resistance curve

b)

Has the same current in as out

c)

Has a straight I vs V graph

d)

Has a constant resistance at any changing temperature

82.

What component has this I vs V graph?

(a)  

83.

A filament bulb follows Ohm's Law

a)

True

b)

False

84.

What component is this?

(a)  

85.

What is a potential divider?

a)

a circuit used to produce P.D

b)

a circuit used to produce EMF

c)

a circuit used to split P.D

d)

a circuit used to split EMF

86.

What is Kirchoff's 1st law?

a)

Current into a junction is equal to current out in one wire

b)

Current into a junction is equal to sum of the currents out

c)

i1 = i2 + i3 + ...

d)

1/it = 1/i1 + 1/i2 + ...

87.

What is Kirchoff's second law?

a)

i1 = i2 + i3

b)

The P.d into the circuit must be equal to the sum of the P.d across the components in the circuit

c)

The current into the circuit must be equal to the sum of the current across the components in the circuit

d)

1/Rt = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + ....

88.

What is the equation for resistors in series?

a)

1/Rt = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + ...

b)

Rt = R1 + R2 + ...

89.

Which is the equation for resistors in parallel

a)

1/Rt = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + ...

b)

Rt = R1 + R2 + ...

90.

What would be the P.d over the 4Ω resistor?

(a)  

91.

What is EMF?

a)

Electromotive Force

b)

Potential Difference

c)

Chemical Energy into a circuit (per coulomb of charge)

d)

Electrical energy out of a circuit (per coulomb of charge)

92.

What is P.d?

a)

Potential Difference

b)

Electro Motive force

c)

Electrical energy into a circuit (per coulomb of charge)

d)

Electrical energy out of a circuit (per coulomb of charge)

93.

What is Hookes law?

a)

Extension is directly proportional to length

b)

Extension is directly proportional to force applied

c)

Extension is inversly proportional to force applied

d)

Peter Pan isn't nice

94.

Denisty it measured in what units?

a)

kgm3kgm^3

b)

kg2mkg^2m

c)

kgm−3kgm^{-3}

d)

yardsinch\frac{yards}{inch}

95.

Tensile (a)   is force applied per cross sectional area

96.

Tensile (a)   is a measure of how to material stretches

97.

A brittle material is one which:

a)

Doesn't deform plastically but breaks when the stress is too high

b)

Deforms plastically

c)

Deforms elastically and will return to its original shape

d)

Deforms to a new shape with little force

98.

The elastic limit is the force above which a material will (a)   deform

99.

Area under a force-extension graph represents

(a)  

100.

What is Young's Modulus?

a)

StressStrain\frac{Stress}{Strain}

b)

StrainStress\frac{Strain}{Stress}

c)

FLΔLA\frac{FL}{\Delta LA}

d)

∞\sqrt{\infty}

101.

How do you find the Young's Modulus from a stress-strain graph?

a)

Area under the line

b)

Gradient of the line

c)

Integral of the line

d)

ΔxΔy\frac{\Delta x}{\Delta y}

102.

Which graph represents a wire which has plastically deformed?

a)

Left graph

b)

Right graph

103.

How is the work done to stretch or compress a material stored?

(a)  

104.

Name a safety featurea of cars designed to plastically deform (I've only got limited answers, use the plural!)

(a)  

105.

Where is the ultimate tensile stress on a stress-strain graph?

a)

The lowest point

b)

The highest point

c)

The furthest right

d)

The furthest left

106.

What is the ONLY factor that can be applied to the vertical and horizontal motion at the same time?

a)

Initial Velocity

b)

Final Velocity

c)

Acceleration

d)

Time

e)

Distance

107.

When an object falls towards the earth you will already know two things. . what are they?

a)

Acceleration and vertical distance moved

b)

Initial velocity at the top and final velocity at the bottom

c)

Initial velocity at the top and acceleration

d)

Final velocity at the bottom and vertical distance moved

108.

What is the name given to the shape of motion that ball takes.

a)

Parabolic

b)

Sigmoidal

c)

Bilateral

109.

When an object moves vertically upwards away from the earth you will know two things. . what are they?

a)

Final velocity at the top of the movement and Initial velocity

b)

Initial velocity at the bottom and acceleration

c)

Final velocity at the top and acceleration

d)

Final velocity at the bottom and vertical distance moved

110.

What is the only force that acts on an object undergoing projectile motion and in which direction does it act?

a)

Friction acting horizontally against the direction of movement

b)

Gravity acting upwards away from the earth

c)

Thrust acting in direction of object moving

d)

Gravity acting downwards towards the earth

111.

The speed of the aircraft is 30 ms-1 and it is flying horizontally at 50 m above ground when it releases a life raft that lands next to the yacht. That is the horizontal velocity of the life raft when it is dropped?

a)

30 ms-1

b)

0 ms-1

c)

50 ms-1

d)

15 ms-1

112.

The speed of the aircraft is 30 ms-1 and it is flying horizontally at 50 m above ground when it releases a life raft that lands next to the yacht. That is the initial vertical velocity of the life raft when it is dropped?

a)

30 ms-1

b)

0 ms-1

c)

50 ms-1

d)

15 ms-1

113.

The speed of the aircraft is 30 ms-1 and it is flying horizontally at 50 m above ground when it releases a life raft that lands next to the yacht. Calculate the time it takes the life raft to reach the water?

a)

5.1 s

b)

3.19 s

c)

30 s

d)

1.5 s

114.

The speed of the aircraft is 30 ms-1 and it is flying horizontally at 50 m above ground when it releases a life raft that lands next to the yacht. Calculate the velocity of the raft as it hits the water.

a)

31.3 ms-1

b)

15.1 ms-1

c)

50 ms-1

d)

25 ms-1

115.

A catapult is used to throw a backpack across a river. The bag travels at a velocity of 8.2 ms-1 an angle of 50° to the horizontal as shown. Calculate the vertical component of the bags motion.

a)

10.2 ms-1

b)

9.7 ms-1

c)

6.3 ms-1

d)

6.8 ms-1

116.

A catapult is used to throw a backpack across a river. The bag travels at a velocity of 8.2 ms-1 an angle of 50° to the horizontal as shown. Calculate the horizontal component of the bags motion.

a)

10.2 ms-1

b)

9.7 ms-1

c)

6.3 ms-1

d)

5.27 ms-1

117.

The bag is catapulted at a velocity of 9.8 ms-1 an angle of 50° to the horizontal as shown. The vertical component of the bag is 7.51 ms-1 and the horizontal component is 6.3 ms-1. Calculate the time taken to reach maximum height.

a)

0.45 s

b)

0.6 s

c)

1.532 s

d)

0.766 s

118.

A football is kicked at 10 m/s at 53o to the ground. Calculate the time it will take for the ball to reach it's maximum height.

a)

0.21 s

b)

1.6 s

c)

0.56 s

d)

0.81 s

119.

A football is kicked at 10 m/s at 53o to the ground, it takes 0.8 s to reach maximum height. Calculate the total horizontal distance travelled.

a)

7.21 m

b)

2.54 m

c)

9.62 m

d)

4.87 m

120.

Hank kicks the ball 67 o to the ground at 24 m/s. Calculate the total horizontal distance the ball will travel before hitting the ground.

a)

9.53 m

b)

16.63 m

c)

23.32 m

d)

42.49 m

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