wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

IB Chemistry HL Review

Total questions: 140

Worksheet time: 4hrs 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What compound is formed when lithium reacts with selenium?

a)

LiSe

b)

Li2Se

c)

LiSe2

d)

Li2Se2

2.
How many non-bonding pairs of electrons are there in a nitrogen molecule?
a)
0
b)
1
c)
2
d)
3
3.

Which molecule contains a bond angle of approximately 120°?

a)

CH4

b)

C2H2

c)

C2H4

d)

C2H6

4.

Which compound does not form hydrogen bonds between its molecules?

a)

CH3NH2

b)

CH3COCH3

c)

CH3COOH

d)

CH3CH2OH

5.
Which substance does not conduct electricity?
a)
Solid zinc
b)
Molten zinc
c)
Solid zinc chloride
d)
Molten zinc chloride
6.
Which is the best description of ionic bonding?
a)
The electrostatic attraction between positively charged nuclei and an electron pair
b)
The electrostatic attraction between positive ions and delocalized negative ions
c)
The electrostatic attraction between positive ions and delocalized electrons
d)
The electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions
7.

Which is the best description of the bonding present in silicon dioxide, SiO2?

a)

Each silicon atom forms four single covalent bonds to oxygen atoms.

b)

Each silicon atom forms two double covalent bonds to oxygen atoms.

c)

Each silicon atom forms two single covalent bonds to oxygen atoms.

d)

Each silicon atom forms four double covalent bonds to oxygen atoms.

8.

Which statement best describes the intramolecular bonding in HCN(l)?

a)

Electrostatic attractions between H+ and CN- ions

b)

Only van der Waals’ forces

c)

Van der Waals’ forces and hydrogen bonding

d)

Electrostatic attractions between pairs of electrons and positively charged nuclei

9.
Which statement best describes metallic bonding?
a)
Electrostatic attractions between oppositely charged ions
b)
Electrostatic attractions between a lattice of positive ions and delocalized electrons
c)
Electrostatic attractions between a lattice of negative ions and delocalized protons
d)
Electrostatic attractions between protons and electrons
10.

Metal M has only one oxidation number and forms a compound with the formula MCO3. Which formula is correct?

a)

MNO3

b)

MNH4

c)

MSO4

d)

MPO4

11.

Which molecule has the shortest bond between carbon atoms?

a)

C2H6

b)

C2H4

c)

C2H2

d)

C2H4Cl2

12.

What is the bond angle in the H3O+ ion?

a)

104°

b)

107°

c)

109°

d)

120°

13.

Which molecule contains a dative covalent (coordinate) bond?

a)

HCN

b)

H2O2

c)

CO2

d)

CO

14.

Which structure has delocalized electrons?

a)

O3

b)

CO

c)

HCN

d)

CO2

15.
Which substance is made up of a lattice of positive ions and free moving electrons?
a)
Graphite
b)
Sodium Chloride
c)
Sulfur
d)
Sodium
16.

What is the formula of magnesium fluoride?

a)

Mg2F3

b)

Mg2F

c)

Mg3F2

d)

MgF2

17.

What is the shape of the ammonia molecule, NH3?

a)

Trigonal planar

b)

Trigonal pyramidal

c)

Linear

d)

V-shaped (bent)

18.

Which molecule is polar?

a)

CH2Cl2

b)

BCl3

c)

Cl2

d)

CCl4

19.

Which compound has a covalent macromolecular (giant covalent) structure?

a)

MgO

b)

Al2O3

c)

P4O10

d)

SiO2

20.

Which molecule has an octahedral shape?

a)

SF6

b)

PCl5

c)

XeF4

d)

BCl3

21.
Which bonds are arranged in order of increasing polarity?
a)
H–F < H–Cl < H–Br < H–I
b)
H–I < H–Br < H–F < H–Cl
c)
H–I < H–Br < H–Cl < H–F
d)
H–Br < H–I < H–Cl < H–F
22.

Which compound forms hydrogen bonds in the liquid state?

a)

C2H5OH

b)

CHCl3

c)

CH3CHO

d)

(CH3CH2)3N

23.
Which particles are responsible for electrical conductivity in metals?
a)
Anions
b)
Cations
c)
Electrons
d)
Protons
24.

Which molecule has a non-bonding (lone) pair of electrons on the central atom?

a)

BF3

b)

SO2

c)

CO2

d)

SiF4

25.

The number of electrons in the valence shell of elements A and B, are 6 and 7 respectively. What is the formula and type of bonding in a compound formed by these elements?

a)

A2B, covalent

b)

AB2, covalent

c)

A2B, ionic

d)

AB2, ionic

26.
Which change explains why the boiling points of the halogens increase as their molecular masses increase?
a)
The intermolecular attraction due to temporarily induced dipoles increases.
b)
The gravitational attraction between molecules increases.
c)
The polarity of the bond within the molecule increases.
d)
The strength of the bond within the molecule increases.
27.

Which species does not contain delocalized electrons?

a)

CH3CH2O-

b)

CH3CO2-

c)

O3

d)

NO3-

28.
What is the shape of the molecule?
a)
Bent (V-shaped)
b)
Linear
c)
T-shaped
d)
Triangular planar
29.

What is the formula of the ionic compound formed when calcium and nitrogen react together?

a)

Ca2N3

b)

Ca3N2

c)

Ca5N2

d)

Ca2N5

30.
Which bond is the least polar?
a)
C–H
b)
F–H
c)
O–H
d)
N–H
31.

Diamond, C60 fullerene and graphite are allotropes of carbon. Which statements are correct about these allotropes?

I. In diamond each carbon is held in a tetrahedral arrangement.

II. In C60 fullerene each carbon is held in a trigonal arrangement.

III. In graphite each carbon is held in a tetrahedral arrangement.

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

32.
Which statement about the physical properties of substances is correct?
a)
The only solids that conduct electricity are metals.
b)
All substances with covalent bonds have low melting points.
c)
Ionic solids are always brittle.
d)
All metals have high densities.
33.
Zinc metal contains metallic bonding. Which is the best description of a metallic bond?
a)
The electrostatic attraction between a pair of electrons and positively charged nuclei.
b)
The electrostatic attraction between a lattice of positive ions and delocalized electrons.
c)
The electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions.
d)
The bond formed when one atom provides both electrons in a shared pair.
34.

Which species contain dative covalent bonds?

I. CO

II. NH3

III. H3O+

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

35.

Which compounds have an ionic lattice structure in the solid state?

I. Silicon dioxide

II. Sodium fluoride

III. Ammonium nitrate

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

36.

Which statements are correct about hydrogen bonding?

I. It is an electrostatic attraction between molecules.

II. It is present in liquid ammonia.

III. It is a permanent dipole-permanent dipole attraction.

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

37.

Which non-metal forms an oxide XO2 with a relative molecular mass of 60?

a)

C

b)

N

c)

Si

d)

S

38.

4.00 mol of a hydrocarbon with an empirical formula of CH2

has a mass of 280 g. What is the molecular formula of this compound?

a)

C2H4

b)

C3H6

c)

C4H10

d)

C5H10

39.

Which are likely to be reduced when an experiment is repeated a number of times?

a)

Random errors

b)

Systematic errors

c)

Both random and systematic errors

d)

Neither random nor systematic errors

40.

The molar mass of a compound is approximately 56 g

mol−1. Which formula is possible for this compound?

a)

NaNO3

b)

AgOH

c)

MgO

d)

KOH

41.

Which compound has the empirical formula with the largest mass?

a)

C2H6

b)

C2H4

c)

C2H2

d)

C3H6

42.

What is the coefficient for O2(g) when the equation for the combustion of 1 mole of pentane is balanced?


C5H12(g) + _ O2(g) --> _ CO2(g) + _ H2O(g)

a)

5

b)

6

c)

8

d)

16

43.

A student recorded the volume of a gas as 0.01450 dm3. How many significant figures are there in this value?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

44.

What is the maximum mass, in g, of magnesium oxide that can be obtained from the reaction of oxygen with 2.4 g of magnesium?

a)

2.4

b)

3.0

c)

4.0

d)

5.6

45.

Which would be the best method to decrease the random uncertainty of a measurement in an acid-base titration?

a)

Repeat the titration

b)

Ensure your eye is at the same height as the meniscus when reading from the burette

c)

Use a different burette

d)

Use a different indicator for the titration

46.

What is the sum of the coefficients that would balance this equation?


__ MnO2 + __ HCl → __ MnCl2 + __ Cl2 + __ H2O

a)

6

b)

7

c)

9

d)

10

47.

What volume of carbon dioxide, in dm3 under standard conditions, is formed when 7.00 g of ethene (C2H4, Mr=28.1) undergoes complete combustion?


C2H4 + 3O2 --> 2CO2 + 2H2O

a)

(22.4 × 28.1) / 7.00

b)

(22.4 × 7.00) / 28.1

c)

(2 × 22.4 × 7.00) / 28.1

d)

(2 × 22.4 × 7.00) / 28.1

48.

What is the total number of nitrogen atoms in two mol of NH4NO3?

a)

4

b)

6.02 × 1023

c)

1.20 × 1024

d)

2.41 × 1024

49.

On analysis, a compound with molar mass 60 gmol−1 was found to contain 12 g of carbon, 2 g of hydrogen and 16 g of oxygen. What is the molecular formula of the compound?

a)

CH2O

b)

CH4O

c)

C2H4O

d)

C2H4O2

50.

Density can be calculated by dividing mass by volume. 0.20±0.02 g of a metal has a volume of 0.050±0.005 cm3. How should its density be recorded using this data?

a)

4.0 ± 0.025 gcm−3

b)

4.0 ± 0.8 gcm−3

c)

4.00 ± 0.025 gcm−3

d)

4.00 ± 0.8 gcm−3

51.

What is the coefficient of Fe3O4 when the following equation is balanced using the lowest whole numbers?


__ Al(s) + __ Fe3O4(s) → __ Al2O3(s) + __ Fe(s)

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

52.

What is the mass, in g, of one molecule of ethane, C2H6?

a)

3.0 × 10−23

b)

5.0 × 10−23

c)

30

d)

1.8 × 1025

53.

Which molecular formula is also an empirical formula?

a)

PCl3

b)

C2H4

c)

H2O2

d)

C6H12O6

54.

How many significant figures are there in 0.00370?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

5

d)

6

55.

A sample of element X contains 69% of 63X and 31% of 65X. What is the relative atomic mass of X in this sample?

a)

63.0

b)

63.6

c)

65.0

d)

69.0

56.

What is the sum of the coefficients when the following equation is balanced using whole numbers?


___ Fe2O3(s) + ___ CO(g) → ___ Fe(s) + ___ CO2(g)

a)

5

b)

6

c)

8

d)

9

57.

A student heated a solid in a crucible. The student measured the mass of the solid and crucible before and after heating and recorded the results.


Mass of crucible and solid before heating = 101.692 g

Mass of crucible and solid after heating = 89.312 g


What value should the student record for the mass lost in grams?

a)

12.4

b)

12.38

c)

12.380

d)

12.3800

58.

What is the sum of all coefficients when the following equation is balanced using the smallest possible whole numbers?


__ C2H2 + __ O2 → __ CO2 + __ H2O

a)

5

b)

7

c)

11

d)

13

59.

How many molecules are present in a drop of ethanol, C2H5OH, of mass 2.3×10−3 g?


(L = 6.0 × 1023 mol−1)

a)

3.0 × 1019

b)

3.0 × 1020

c)

6.0 × 1020

d)

6.0 × 1026

60.

A burette reading is recorded as 27.70 ± 0.05 cm3. Which of the following could be the actual value?


I. 27.68 cm3

II. 27.78 cm3

III. 27.74 cm3

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

61.

Which sample has the greatest mass?

a)

1 mol of SO2

b)

2 mol of N2O

c)

2 mol of Ar

d)

4 mol of NH3

62.

The relative molecular mass of a gas is 56 and its empirical formula is CH2. What is the molecular formula of the gas?

a)

CH2

b)

C2H4

c)

C3H6

d)

C4H8

63.

What is the sum of the coefficients for the equation when balanced using the smallest possible whole numbers?


__ N2H4(g) + __ O2(g) → __NO2(g) + __ H2O(g)

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

64.

A piece of metallic aluminium with a mass of 10.044 g was found to have a volume of 3.70 cm3. A student carried out the following calculation to determine the density.


Density (gcm−3) = 10.044 / 3.70


What is the best value the student could report for the density of aluminium?

a)

2.715 gcm−3

b)

2.7 gcm−3

c)

2.71 gcm−3

d)

2.7146 gcm−3

65.

Which contains the greatest mass of chloride ions?

a)

0.3 mol NaCl

b)

0.2 mol CaCl2

c)

0.1 mol FeCl3

d)

0.1 mol ZnCl2

66.
What are the steps of operation in the mass spectrometer?
a)
Accelerate, Deflect,Ionize, Detect
b)
Deflect,Ionize, Accelerate, Detect
c)
Ionize, Accelerate, Deflect, Detect
d)
Detect, Accelerate, Deflect, Ionize
67.
Which species would get deflected by the greatest degree in the mass spectrometer?
a)
12C+
b)
13C+
c)
13C2+
d)
14C+
68.
What do the peaks on the mass spectrum represent?
a)
anions
b)
different isotopes
c)
atoms with differing numbers of electrons
d)
numbers of electrons
69.
What do the heights of the peaks represent in the mass spectrum?
a)
number of isotopes
b)
relative abundance of each isotope
c)
average atomic mass
d)
charge:mass ratio
70.
A sample of pure chlorine gas is analyzed in the MS. Which of the following is a correct interpretation?
a)
Chlorine has an isotope with a mass of 70 amu
b)
Chlorine has three known isotopes
c)
Chlorine is diatomic
d)
Chlorine is highly reactive
71.
A sample of pure chlorine gas is analyzed in the MS. Which of the following is a correct interpretation?
a)
Chlorine has an isotope with a mass of 70 amu
b)
Chlorine has three known isotopes
c)
Chlorine is diatomic
d)
Chlorine is highly reactive
72.
What is the average atomic mass for this element?
a)
10 amu
b)
10.8 amu
c)
19.9 amu
d)
11 amu
73.
The average atomic mass rhenium, Re, is 186.21 amu. If 37.1% of rhenium has mass# = 185, what is the other stable isotope?
a)
Rhenium-183
b)
Rhenium-181
c)
Rhenium-187
d)
Rhenium-189
74.
The electron configuration of an atom is 1s22s22p6.  The number of electrons in the atom is 
a)
3
b)
6
c)
8
d)
10
75.
What is the noble gas shorthand electron for Sulfur atom?
a)
[Ar] 3p4
b)
[He] 3s23p4
c)
[Ne] 3s23p4
d)
[Na] 3s23p4
76.
How many electrons does Si contain? (click to see image)
a)
14
b)
28
c)
2
d)
4
77.
How many valence electrons does Si contain? (click to see image)
a)
14
b)
28
c)
2
d)
4
78.
How many electrons can the first energy level hold?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
8
d)
0
79.
How many electrons can the first energy level hold?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
8
d)
0
80.
What is the electron configuration for this atom?
a)
1s22s22p6
b)
1s22s22p5
c)
1s22s22p3
d)
2s22p3
81.
What is the highest occupied energy level?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
82.
Valence electrons are: 
a)
Electrons farthest away from the nucleus
b)
Electrons closest to the nucleus
c)
Electrons that just come and go - they don't stay with the atom
83.
Magnesium's ion
a)
Mg+
b)
Mg2+
c)
Mg-
d)
Mg2-
84.
Which element is depicted from this orbital diagram
a)
Fluorine
b)
Neon
c)
Chlorine
d)
Argon
85.
A wave with a large wavelength will have a ______ frequency and _____ energy
a)
high, low
b)
high, high
c)
low, high
d)
low, low
86.
The _______________ determines the color of visible light. 
a)
wavelength
b)
speed
c)
amplitude
d)
light
87.
Light is emitted when an electron moves from the ________ state to the _________ state
a)
excited, ground
b)
ground, excited
88.
For an electron to change from ground state to an excited stated it must...
a)
Absorb energy
b)
Release energy
89.
As the energy level increases the difference in the energy level ...
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
stays the same
d)
none of these
90.
The arrows pointing down represents...
a)
photon absorption
b)
proton emission
c)
electron absorption
d)
electron transition
91.

What is the formula for the compound formed by calcium and nitrogen?

a)

CaN

b)

Ca2N

c)

Ca2N3

d)

Ca3N2

92.

The electron arrangement of sodium is 1s22s22p63s1. How many occupied main electron energy levels are there in an atom of sodium?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

10

d)

11

93.

How many protons, neutrons and electrons are there in the species 26Mg2+ ?

a)

10 protons, 14 neutrons, 12 electrons

b)

12 protons, 14 neutrons, 10 electrons

c)

12 protons, 26 neutrons, 10 electrons

d)

14 protons, 12 neutrons, 12 electrons

94.

Which is the correct description of polarity in F2 and HF molecules?

a)

Both molecules contain a polar bond.

b)

Neither molecule contains a polar bond.

c)

Both molecules are polar.

d)

Only one of the molecules is polar.

95.
In the modern periodic table elements are arranged by:
a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
valence electrons
d)
number of isotopes
96.
Each column in the periodic table is called a 
a)
period
b)
group
c)
cluster
d)
unit
97.
The atomic number tells you what?
a)
number of electrons
b)
number of protons
c)
number of neutrons
d)
both electrons and protons in an atom.
98.
Which group of the periodic table is composed of inert (not reactive)  gases?
a)
alkali metals
b)
alkaline earth metals
c)
halogens
d)
noble gases
99.
Elements which are shiny, conduct electricity and heat are called
a)
metal
b)
nonmetal
c)
metalloid
d)
nonexistent
100.
"Reacts explosively with water" is a description for which alkali metal?
a)
Sodium
b)
Lithium
c)
Rubidium
d)
Potassium
101.
Group 17 elements exist as diatomic molecules.
a)
true
b)
false
102.
Which property generally decreases across period 3?
a)
Atomic number
b)
Electronegativity 
c)
Atomic Radius 
d)
First Ionization Energy
103.
Which statement about the elements in group 17 is correct?
a)
Br2  will  oxidize Cl-.
b)
F2 has the least tendency to be reduced.
c)
Cl2 will oxidize I-.
d)
I2 is a stronger oxidizing agent than F2.
104.
How many valence electrons does selenium have?
a)
2
b)
6
c)
16
d)
34
105.
Which is the most reactive element?
a)
Iodine 
b)
Bromine 
c)
Chlorine 
d)
Fluorine 
106.
What electron configuration matches an oxygen atom?
a)
1s22s22p63s2, 3p64s23d104p5
b)
1s22s22p4
c)
1s22s22p6
d)
1s22s22p63s23p64s23d1
107.
What atom matches this electron configuration?
1s22s22p63s23p64s23d10
a)
Zinc
b)
Copper
c)
Nickel
d)
Germanium
108.
What atom matches this electron configuration?
1s22s22p63s2
a)
Neon
b)
Magnesium
c)
Aluminum
d)
Potassium
109.
A thermometer measures temperature which is best described as
a)
heat movement of particles
b)
average kinetic energy of particles
c)
calorimetry experiment
d)
specific heat of a substance
110.
Ionization energy is...
a)
the energy required to add an electron to a specific atom
b)
how much energy it takes to remove an electron from an atom
c)
the energy required to shield the outer electrons from the nucleus
d)
a measure of the ability of an atom to attract electrons
111.
As you move down the periodic table atoms get bigger.  This is because ____________.
a)
The atoms have more mass.
b)
The atoms have more protons.
c)
The atoms have more energy levels
d)
The atoms have more nuetrons
112.
Which of the following will have a lower ionization energy than Scandium (Sc)?
a)
Helium (He)
b)
Titanium (Ti)
c)
Calcium (Ca)
d)
Magnesium (Mg)
113.
Which of the following will have a higher electronegativity than arsenic (As)?
a)
Carbon (C)
b)
Neon (Ne)
c)
Antimony (Sb)
d)
Germanium (Ge)
114.
Which of the following will have a larger radius than Zinc?
a)
Gallium
b)
Aluminum
c)
Magnesium
d)
Strontium
115.
What is the name of the molecular geometry for this Lewis Structure?
a)
trigonal planar
b)
trigonal pyramidal
c)
tetrahedral
d)
bent
116.

Is this molecule polar or nonpolar?

a)

polar

b)

nonpolar

117.
If electrons are shared equally then the bond is....
a)
Non-polar covalent
b)
Ionic
c)
Non-polar ionic
d)
Polar covalent
118.
Predict the bond that will form between Sr and S.
a)
Ionic
b)
Covalent
119.
Ionic Bonding involves...
a)
The transfer of protons
b)
The transfer of nuetrons 
c)
The transfer of electrons
d)
None Of the above
120.
2H2   +   O2  →  2H2O
How many moles of water can be produced if 8 moles H2 are used?
a)
4 moles
b)
8 moles
c)
16 moles
d)
2 moles
121.

What is the molecular shape and the hybridization of the nitrogen atom in NH3 ?

a)

Molecular shape: tetrahedral

Hybridization: sp3

b)

Molecular shape: trigonal planar

Hybridization: sp2

c)

Molecular shape: trigonal pyramidal

Hybridization: sp2

d)

Molecular shape: trigonal pyramidal

Hybridization: sp3

122.

Which statement about sigma and pi bonds is correct?

a)

Sigma bonds are formed only by s orbitals and pi bonds are formed only by p orbitals.

b)

Sigma bonds are formed only by p orbitals and pi bonds are formed only by s orbitals.

c)

Sigma bonds are formed by either s or p orbitals, pi bonds are formed only by p orbitals.

d)

Sigma and pi bonds are formed by either s or p orbitals.

123.

What type of bonding occurs between the metal ion and ligand in the complex ion

[Cu(H2O)6]2+?

a)

metallic

b)

ionic

c)

hydrogen

d)

dative covalent

124.

Which is an essential feature of a ligand?

a)

a negative charge

b)

an odd number of electrons

c)

the presence of two or more atoms

d)

the presence of a non-bonding pair of electrons

125.

The relative first ionisation energies of four elements with consecutive atomic numbers below 20 are shown on the graph.


One of the elements reacts with hydrogen to form a covalent compound with formula HX. Which element could be X?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

126.

Which of the following elements would have it's largest jump in successive ionization energies between removing it's 3rd and 4th electron?

a)

Sodium

b)

Aluminum

c)

Phosphorous

d)

Chlorine

127.

The hybridization of the sulfur atom in XeF4 can best be described as:

a)

sp3d2

b)

sp3d1

c)

sp3

d)

sp2

128.

Which statements are correct for ionic compounds?

I. Lattice energy increases as ionic radii increase.

II. Within the same group, the melting point of salts tends to decrease as the radius of the cation increases.

III. Solubility in water depends on the relative magnitude of the lattice energy compared to the hydration energy.

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

II and III only

129.

Which combination describes the PH4+ ion?

a)

Tetrahedral; sp3 hybridization

b)

Square Planar, sp3 hybridization

c)

Tetrahedral, sp2 hybridization

d)

Square Planar, sp2 hybridization

130.

Which species have resonance structures?

I. Ozone, O3

II. Carbon dioxide, CO2

III. Benzene, C6H6

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

131.

Which does not show resonance?

a)

PO43–

b)

C6H6

c)

C6H12

d)

O3

132.

Which is the first step in the CFC-catalysed destruction of ozone in UV light?

a)

CCl2F2 → CClF2+ + Cl–

b)

CCl2F2 → •CClF2 + Cl•

c)

CCl2F2 → CCl2F+ + F–

d)

CCl2F2 → •CCl2F + F•

133.

Which statement is correct?

a)

Sigma bonds are formed only by the combination of s atomic orbitals.

b)

Pi bonds can be formed in the absence of sigma bonds.

c)

Pi bonds are formed parallel to the axis between atoms.

d)

Pi bonds are formed only by the combination of hybrid orbitals.

134.

Ammonia is a stronger ligand than water. Which is correct when concentrated aqueous ammonia solution is added to dilute aqueous copper(II) sulfate solution?

a)

The d-orbitals in the copper ion split.

b)

There is a smaller splitting of the d-orbitals.

c)

Ammonia replaces water as a ligand.

d)

The colour of the solution fades.

135.

What is the correct explanation for the colour of [Cu(H2O)6]2+?

a)

Light is absorbed when an electron moves to a d orbital of higher energy.

b)

Light is released when an electron moves to a d orbital of higher energy.

c)

Light is absorbed when electrons move from the ligands to the central metal ion.

d)

Light is absorbed when electrons move between d and s orbitals.

136.

Which best explains why transition metal complexes are coloured?

a)

As electrons return to lower energy levels, light of a certain colour is emitted, and the complementary colour is observed.

b)

As electrons return to lower energy levels, light of a certain colour is emitted, so the complex appears to have the same colour.

c)

As electrons are promoted to higher energy levels, light of a certain colour is absorbed, and the complementary colour is observed.

d)

As electrons are promoted to higher energy levels, light of a certain colour is absorbed, so the complex appears to have the same colour.

137.

Which species breaks the octet rule?

a)

PCl3

b)

BF4−

c)

SCl4

d)

NH4+

138.

In which group do both compounds contain delocalized electrons?

a)

C6H10, C5H10

b)

Na2CO3, NaOH

c)

NaHCO3, C6H6

d)

NaHCO3, C6H12

139.

Which species has bond angles of 90°?

a)

AlCl4-

b)

ICl4-

c)

NH4+

d)

SiCl4

140.

Which ionic compound has the largest value of lattice enthalpy?

a)

MgS

b)

MgO

c)

CaBr2

d)

NaF

Similar Resources on Wayground

PRACTICE - Semester 2 Final Exam PRACTICE Questions

145 questions

PRACTICE - Semester 2 Final Exam PRACTICE Questions

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Unit 4 Review: Periodic table, Bonding , Nomenclature

142 questions

Unit 4 Review: Periodic table, Bonding , Nomenclature

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Quizz de culture générale 4

141 questions

Quizz de culture générale 4

quiz

Worksheet

•

5th Grade - University

(Optional) PS Unit 2 Test Review

141 questions

(Optional) PS Unit 2 Test Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th - 12th Grade

Chemistry Final Study Guide

144 questions

Chemistry Final Study Guide

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade

Honors Unit 2 Review

138 questions

Honors Unit 2 Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

GL revision G9

144 questions

GL revision G9

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade

J6 End-of-Year Exams Revision

135 questions

J6 End-of-Year Exams Revision

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade