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Hematology

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
a)
typical lymph
b)
reactive lymph
c)
monocyte
d)
blasts
2.
a)
lymphocyte
b)
myeloblast
c)
promyelocyte
d)
monocyte
3.
a)
basophils
b)
malignant cell
c)
degenerating poly
d)
artifact not a cell
4.
a)
auer rod
b)
dohle body
c)
engulfed bacteria
d)
none of the answers is correct
5.
a)
hairy cell
b)
basket cell
c)
degenerating lymphocyte
d)
giant platelet
6.
a)
band neutrophil
b)
metamyelocyte
c)
promyelocyte
d)
monocyte
7.
a)
cll
b)
hairy cell
c)
sezary syndrome
d)
multiple myeloma
8.
TdT positive
a)
L 1
b)
L 2
c)
L 3
d)
Monocytic leukemia
9.
a)
increased rbc
b)
decreased mcv, mchc
c)
elevated ESR
d)
auto antibody (ANA)
10.
a)
Spherocyte
b)
codacyte
c)
platelet
d)
acanthocyte
11.

Match the following equations

a)

MCV

1.

hct/RBC x 1000

b)

MCH

2.

hgb/RBC

c)

MCHC

3.

hgb/hct

12.

Match the following units

a)

MCV

1.

fL

b)

MCH

2.

pg

c)

MCHC

3.

g/L

13.

What is the MCV of the following: RBC = 4.85 x 10^12/L, HGB = 120 g/L, HCT = 0.345 L/L

a)

71 fL

b)

25 pg

c)

348 g/L

14.

What is the MCH of the following: RBC = 4.85 x 10^12/L, HGB = 120 g/L, HCT = 0.345 L/L

a)

71 fL

b)

348 g/L

c)

25 pg

15.

What is the MCHC of the following: RBC = 4.85 x 10^12/L, HGB = 120 g/L, HCT = 0.345 L/L

a)

71 fL

b)

348 g/L

c)

25 pg

16.

What is the MCV of the following: RBC = 5.10 x 10^12/L, HGB = 62 g/L, HCT = 0.345 L/L

a)

68 fL

b)

12 pg

c)

179 g/L

17.

Manual cell counts are only used for WBCs.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Manual counts are performed on a hemocytometer.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

20 uL of blood is diluted with 1.98 mL. What is the dilution factor?

a)

1

b)

10

c)

100

d)

99

20.

50 uL of blood is diluted up to 2.00 mL. What is the dilution factor?

a)

40

b)

41

c)

0.025

d)

5

21.

What is counted in the following area of a Neubauer Chamber?

a)

RBCs

b)

WBCs

c)

PLTs

22.

What is counted in the following area of a Neubauer Chamber?

a)

WBCs

b)

RBCs

c)

PLTs

23.

What is counted in the following area of a Neubauer Chamber?

a)

RBCs

b)

WBCs

c)

PLTs

24.

Match the following:

a)

MCV

1.

Measures average size of RBCs

b)

MCH

2.

Measures weight of hgb in average RBC

c)

MCHC

3.

Measures how much of RBC is hgb

25.

Eosinophils must be counted in a Neubauer chamber only.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

What is the study of blood and the tissues that produce it called?

a)

Hematology

b)

Cardiology

c)

Neurology

d)

Dermatology

27.

What are lab tests performed on blood commonly used for?

a)

To verify or rule out a suspected diagnosis

b)

To measure blood pressure

c)

To check for bone density

d)

To test for allergies

28.

What is one of the most common diagnostic tools in the doctor's office?

a)

Blood analysis

b)

X-ray

c)

MRI

d)

Ultrasound

29.

What is one of the roles of a Medical Assistant (MA)?

a)

Performing surgeries

b)

Collecting the specimen

c)

Prescribing medication

d)

Diagnosing diseases

30.

Within what scope can a Medical Assistant (MA) perform laboratory testing?

a)

Outside their scope of practice

b)

Within their scope of practice

c)

Only under direct supervision

d)

Only in emergency situations

31.

Why must a Medical Assistant (MA) know normal values?

a)

To prescribe medication

b)

To understand what test results reveal

c)

To diagnose diseases

d)

To perform surgeries

32.

What should be included in the patient's electronic medical record for reviewing laboratory test results?

a)

Only abnormal values

b)

Only normal values

c)

At least two abnormal values and at least two normal values

d)

Only the most recent test values

33.

What is the first step in the method for differentiating between normal and abnormal test values?

a)

Document the patient’s record

b)

Highlight any abnormal results

c)

Review incoming lab results and compare with reference values

d)

Follow the physician’s orders regarding scheduling appointments

34.

According to the procedure, when should results be released to the patient?

a)

Immediately after the test

b)

When the patient requests them

c)

Only when authorized by the physician

d)

After documenting the results

35.

What should be done after highlighting any abnormal results per facility policy?

a)

Schedule a follow-up appointment

b)

Obtain the patient’s electronic medical record and alert the physician

c)

Document the patient’s record

d)

Release the results to the patient

36.

What is the purpose of documenting the patient’s record accordingly?

a)

To ensure accuracy in patient care

b)

To release the results to the patient

c)

To compare with future test results

d)

To follow the facility policy

37.

Who regulates the blood specimen collection process?

a)

CDC

b)

FDA

c)

OSHA

d)

WHO

38.

What standard precautions should be followed during blood specimen collection?

a)

WHO standard precautions

b)

FDA standard precautions

c)

OSHA standard precautions

d)

CDC standard precautions

39.

What standards must laboratories adhere to for blood specimen collection?

a)

OSHA standards

b)

CLIA standards

c)

FDA standards

d)

HIPAA standards

40.

Who must follow regulation guidelines in blood specimen collection?

a)

Doctors

b)

Nurses

c)

Medical Assistants (MA)

d)

Patients

41.

What are the main functions of the blood?

a)

Transportation and protection

b)

Digestion and absorption

c)

Respiration and circulation

d)

Excretion and filtration

42.

Which of the following is a function of blood related to oxygen?

a)

Blood takes oxygen and nutrients to the body and removes carbon dioxide.

b)

Blood takes waste products to the lungs, liver, kidneys, and skin for elimination.

c)

Blood helps in the digestion of food.

d)

Blood regulates body temperature.

43.

Where does blood take waste products for elimination?

a)

Lungs, liver, kidneys, and skin

b)

Heart, brain, and muscles

c)

Stomach, intestines, and pancreas

d)

Bones, joints, and cartilage

44.

What are the main functions of the blood?

a)

Transportation and protection

b)

Digestion and absorption

c)

Respiration and excretion

d)

Sensation and movement

45.

How does blood help in fighting off infection?

a)

By carrying red blood cells

b)

By carrying white blood cells

c)

By carrying oxygen

d)

By carrying carbon dioxide

46.

What role do platelets play in the blood?

a)

They help in oxygen transport

b)

They help in fighting infections

c)

They begin the healing process

d)

They regulate body temperature

47.

How does blood assist in regulating body temperature?

a)

By carrying oxygen

b)

By carrying white blood cells

c)

By carrying platelets

d)

By distributing heat throughout the body

48.

What is the liquid component of blood called?

a)

Plasma

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Platelets

d)

Red blood cells

49.

Approximately what percentage of the composition of blood does plasma make up?

a)

45 percent

b)

55 percent

c)

65 percent

d)

75 percent

50.

What is one of the primary functions of plasma in the blood?

a)

To carry oxygen to the cells

b)

To fight infections

c)

To carry blood cells and other substances to different parts of the body

d)

To clot the blood

51.

What is the key component of plasma?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Fibrinogen

c)

Platelets

d)

Leukocytes

52.

What is serum?

a)

Plasma with fibrinogen

b)

Plasma without fibrinogen

c)

Plasma with hemoglobin

d)

Plasma without water

53.

What percentage of plasma is water?

a)

90 percent

b)

95 percent

c)

99 percent

d)

100 percent

54.

What percentage of plasma is composed of solid substances that dissolve in it?

a)

1 percent

b)

5 percent

c)

10 percent

d)

20 percent

55.

What is the formation of blood cells called?

a)

Hematopoiesis

b)

Hemostasis

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Hemolysis

56.

From which type of stem cell do blood cells originate?

a)

Mesenchymal stem cell

b)

Hematopoietic stem cell

c)

Neural stem cell

d)

Epithelial stem cell

57.

How many individual types of cells can blood cells mature into?

a)

Five

b)

Six

c)

Seven

d)

Eight

58.

Where does hematopoiesis primarily occur in adults?

a)

Liver

b)

Spleen

c)

Bone marrow

d)

Lymph nodes

59.

What is the primary function of red blood cells (erythrocytes)?

a)

Transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide

b)

Production of antibodies

c)

Regulation of body temperature

d)

Clotting of blood

60.

Which of the following is NOT a type of granular leukocyte?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Basophils

d)

Lymphocytes

61.

What is the primary function of white blood cells (leukocytes)?

a)

Oxygen transport

b)

Defense

c)

Blood clotting

d)

Nutrient transport

62.

How many types of white blood cells (leukocytes) are there?

a)

Three

b)

Four

c)

Five

d)

Six

63.

A patient takes longer than average to stop bleeding after a blood draw. The patient has the following labs.
     PT = Normal
     aPTT = High
     BT = High
     PLT = Normal
What is the diagnosis?

a)
Hemophilia A
b)
Von Willebrand Disease
c)
Thrombocytopenia
d)
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
64.

A patient has a high PT, high aPTT, high BT, and low PLT. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Hemophilia A

b)

Von Willebrand Disease

c)

Thrombocytopenia

d)

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

65.

A patient has a high aPTT, but normal PT, BT, and PLT. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Hemophilia A

b)

Von Willebrand Disease

c)

Thrombocytopenia

d)

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

66.

aPTT is elevated in von Willebrand's Disease ___ of the time

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

67.

Liver disease would cause elevations in

a)

PT only

b)

aPTT only

c)

PT and aPTT

d)

PT, aPTT, BT

68.

Hypocalcemia would affect

a)

Intrinsic pathway only

b)

Extrinsic pathway only

c)

Common pathway only

d)

All three pathways

69.

John Doe, a 28-year-old male engineer, presented to the Hematology Clinic with a history of recurrent episodes of uncontrolled bleeding. He reported multiple instances of prolonged bleeding following minor injuries, dental extractions, and spontaneous nosebleeds since childhood. His family history was significant for a maternal uncle who had similar bleeding tendencies. John sought medical attention due to increasing concerns about the frequency and severity of his bleeding episodes. John's family history revealed a strong predisposition to bleeding disorders. His maternal uncle had a confirmed diagnosis of hemophilia B, and there were anecdotal reports of other male relatives experiencing excessive bleeding after minor injuries. How would you treat John's condition?

a)

Administer clotting factor VIII

b)
Perform a blood transfusion
c)
Administer clotting factor IX
d)
Recommend a high protein diet
70.

Hemophilia A is treated with ___ and Hemophilia B is treated with ___

a)
Factor VIII and Factor IX
b)
Factor IX and Factor VIII
c)
Factor VII and Factor X
d)
Factor X and Factor VII
71.

Tissue Plasminogen Activator (tPA) initiates the conversion of ___ to ___

a)
plasminogen to plasmin
b)
fibrinogen to fibrin
c)
prothrombin to thrombin
d)
angiotensinogen to angiotensin
72.

D-dimer test can be used for which of the following conditions?

a)

DIC

b)

DVT

c)

PE

d)

Stroke

73.

Hemophiliacs bleed faster. True or false?

a)
True
b)
False
74.

A patient presents with a prolonged bleeding time, normal PT, and normal aPTT. Platelet count is also normal. What could be the possible diagnosis?

a)

Hemophilia A

b)

Von Willebrand Disease

c)

Thrombocytopenia

d)

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

75.

Mary Smith, a 45-year-old schoolteacher, presented to the Hematology Clinic with a history of easy bruising, nosebleeds, and gum bleeding for the past two months. She reported multiple episodes of spontaneous nosebleeds, even with minimal trauma or no apparent cause. Additionally, she noticed that her gums bled when she brushed her teeth, and she had a series of unexplained bruises on her arms and legs. Concerned about these symptoms, she decided to seek medical attention. Complete Blood Count (CBC) reveals the following:

  • Hemoglobin: 12.8 g/dL (Reference Range: 12.0-15.5 g/dL)

  • Platelet count: 32,000/mm³ (Reference Range: 150,000-450,000/mm³)

  • Prothrombin Time (PT): Normal

  • Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT): Normal

What is Mary's diagnosis?

a)

Hemophilia A

b)

Hemophilia B

c)
Thrombocytopenia
d)

Von Willebrand's disease

76.

All of the following is true about Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation EXCEPT:

a)

Clotting factors and platelets increase in number

b)

Tissue factor (TF) is released and triggers the coagulation pathway

c)

Clots trap platelets and increase clot production, resulting in end-organ damage

d)

Further hemorrhage takes place due to platelets and clotting factor consuption

77.

Which blood type is the universal blood recipient?

(a)  

78.

Choose all the components of blood

a)

Plasma

b)

erythrocytes

c)

Leukocytes

d)

Thrombocytes

79.

White blood cells...

a)

Are biconcaved

b)

Fight against pathogens

c)

Can be differentiated on a CBC

d)

Stored in the lymphatic tissues

80.

When are Newborn Screenings done is Utah?

a)

Within the first 24 hours

b)

1 month

c)

2 weeks

d)

3 days

81.

What is another name for platelets?

a)

Fibrinogen

b)

Thrombocytes

c)

Leukocytes

82.

Two components of the Buffy Coat are?

a)

Platelets

b)

White blood cells

c)

Serum

d)

Erythrocytes

83.

Which blood type is the universal blood donor?

(a)  

84.

Label the parts of a microscope.

a)

Light source

b)

Coarse adjustment nob

c)

stage

d)

Objective lens

e)

Nose piece

f)

Eye piece

g)

Base

h)

Fine adjustment nob

i)

Arm

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
85.

Platelets are cell

(a)  

86.

Hemaglobin A1c

a)

Is 12-16 g

b)

Measured before meals

c)

Is normally <5.6%

d)

Measures your average blood sugar levels over the past 3 months

87.

(a)   are the most abundant WBCs.

Choose from the below words
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils
Monocytes
88.

Rh Factor blood types are..

a)

Labeled with - or +

b)

Named after the Rhesus monkey

c)

Antigen D on the RBC's

d)

Treated with RhoGAM when mothers and babies have incompatible blood

89.

  1.  A person's whole blood is made up of (a)   plasma.

90.

A CBC with diff stands for...

a)

Complete Blood Count that is difficult to read.

b)

Complete Blood Count with differential of WBC's

c)

Complete Blood Count with differential of RBC's

d)

Complete Blood Count that is different than normal

91.

Match the following lab values of a CBC.

a)

RBC

1.

4.200,000-6,000,000

b)

Hb or Hgb

2.

12-16 females

14-18 males

c)

WBC

3.

5,000-10,000

d)

Platelets

4.

150,000-350,000

e)

Hct

5.

37-47% females

40-54% males

92.

  1. Clumping of blood cells due to blood type incompatibly is called?

a)

Confliction

b)

Aggregation

c)

Agglutination

d)

Coagulation

93.

Hemoglobin molecules carry ____________and ___________in the blood.

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Iron

d)

Hematocrit

94.

Match the following

a)

PKU

1.

Lacks a enzyme to destroy phenylalanine

b)

Normal Blood Sugar

2.

80-120

c)

Eldon Card

3.

Used to type your blood

d)

Total Cholesterol should be

4.

<200

e)

Antibodies

5.

Formed in the plasma

95.

Choose all that apply to the abbreviation GTT

a)

a Glucose Tolerance Test

b)

Test blood sugar 2 hours after drinking glucose

c)

Should be tested every 3 months

d)

Must fast for 8-12 hours prior to the test

96.

Blood plasma

a)

is the same thing as blood serum

b)

is 90% water

c)

Contains clotting agents like fibrinogen

d)

Clotted whole blood

97.

Match the following

a)

A positive

1.

Can donate to

AB positive and A positive

b)

B negative

2.

Can receive O negative and B negative

c)

O positive

3.

Can donate to ALL positive blood types

d)

AB negative

4.

Can receive ALL negative blood types

e)

A negative

5.

Can donate to AB+, AB-,

A-, A+

98.

Antigens are...

a)

Found in the plasma

b)

Proteins

c)

Found on the surface of RBC's

d)

Stimulate production of antibodies

99.

Serum is

a)

the liquid that remains after the blood has clotted

b)

the liquid with all the clotting factors

c)

blood plasma without the clotting factors

d)

the portion of the blood that clots

100.

Study of the physiology of the blood.

(a)  

101.

Hematocrit

a)

the volume of red cells in your blood

b)

is always expressed in a %

c)

screens patients for anemia

d)

can be measured using a centrifuge

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