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DRHS-ANAT-Practice EOC #2

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 4hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the inner most meningeal layer of the brain?

a)

Arachnoid

b)

Dura mater

c)

Pia mater

d)

Ventricles

2.

What part of the brain deals with appetite and temperature control?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Cerebrum

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Brain stem

3.
What are the 2 major divisions of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
a)
Sensory & Motor
b)
Peripheral & Central
c)
Somatic & Autonomic
d)
Brain & Spinal Cord
4.
What is the purpose of the myelin sheath on the axon?
a)
To maintain temperature
b)
To improve conductivity
c)
To protect the axon
d)
To release neurotransmitters
5.
Label the Neuron-What does the letter "C" represent?
a)
Dendrite
b)
Axon
c)
Axon Terminal
d)
Cell Body
6.
Label the Neuron-What does the letter "A" represent?
a)
Dendrite
b)
Axon
c)
Myelin Sheath
d)
Node of Ranvier
7.
This part of the nervous system regulates involuntary actions such as heart function, blood pressure, breathing, digestion.
a)
Autonomic Nervous System
b)
Sensory Nervous System
c)
Motor Nervous System
d)
Peripheral Nervous System
8.

What is the name of a motor nerve that conducts impulses to muscles that move the eyes and other muscles?

a)

trigeminal (V)

b)

vagus (X)

c)

accessory (XI)

d)

trochlear (IV)

9.

Which mixed nerve includes sensory nerves that lead to the eyes, scalp, forehead, teeth, and jaws, and motor nerves that lead to the jaw and mouth?

a)

facial (VII)

b)

abducens (VI)

c)

trochlear (IV)

d)

trigeminal (V)

10.

Which of the following is a motor nerve with fibers conducting impulses to muscles that move the tongue?

a)

vestibulocochlear (VII)

b)

glossopharyngeal (IX)

c)

facial (VII)

d)

hypoglossal (XII)

11.

Which sensory nerve has fibers the conduct impulses associated with hearing and equilibrium?

a)

vestibulocochlear (VIII)

b)

facial (VII)

c)

oculomotor (III)

d)

trochlear (IV)

12.

Which mixed nerve has sensory fibers conducting impulses to the pharynx, larynx, esophagus, and viscera of the chest and abdomen, and motor fibers associated with speech, swallowing, and conducting impulses to the heart?

a)

accessory (XI)

b)

vagus (X)

c)

hypoglossal (XII)

d)

trigeminal (V)

13.
Which structure is shown by number 3
a)
Cerebellum
b)
Cerebrum
c)
Pons
d)
Medulla Oblongata
14.
Which lobe is shown in green-
a)
Frontal
b)
Parietal 
c)
Occipital
d)
Temporal
15.
Which lobe is shown in yellow-
a)
Frontal
b)
Parietal 
c)
Occipital
d)
Temporal
16.
Which lobe is shown in red-
a)
Frontal
b)
Parietal
c)
Occipital
d)
Temporal
17.
The pons and medulla oblongata make up the- 
a)
brain stem
b)
cerebrum
c)
frontal lobe
d)
cerebellum
18.
a)
Corpus Callosum
b)
Amygdala
c)
Thalamus
d)
Hypothalamus
19.

TV + IRV + ERV =

a)

residual vol

b)

tidal vol

c)

vital capacity

d)

heart rate

20.

What is tidal volume

a)

normal breath in and out

b)

additional air to breath in

c)

air that isnt used

d)

the entire volume of air in the lungs and tubes

21.
The amount of air you can still inhale after a normal breath in
a)
Vital Capacity
b)
Inspiratory Reserve
c)
Functional Residual Capacity
d)
Inspiratory Capacity
22.
The air sacs that are covered with capillaries where gas exchange takes place
a)
bronchi
b)
lungs
c)
oxygen
d)
alveoli
23.

The flap of skin that prevents food and water to enter the trachea.

a)

vocal cords

b)

pharynx

c)

larynx

d)

epiglottis

24.

The trachea branches off into two large tubes in the lungs called.....

a)
Alveoli
b)
Bronchi
c)
Bronchioles
25.

Valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle.

a)

tricuspid valve

b)

mitral valve

c)

pulmonary valve

d)

aortic valve

26.

Thickest walled chamber of the heart.

a)

left atrium

b)

right ventricle

c)

left ventricle

d)

right atrium

27.

Valve between the right atrium and the right ventricle.

a)

mitral valve

b)

pulmonary valve

c)

aortic valve

d)

tricuspid valve

28.

Blood in the pulmonary artery:

a)

Oxygenated

b)

Deoxygenated

29.

Blood in the pulmonary veins:

a)

Oxygenated

b)

Deoxygenated

30.

This initiates the action potential that causes the heart to beat

a)

Inferior vena cava

b)

Atrioventricular node (AV node)

c)

Superior vena cava

d)

Sinoatrial node (SA node)

31.

Which best explains why capillary walls are so thin?

a)

because they do not need to pump blood

b)

because they are found only in the smallest organs and tissues

c)

because they maximize diffusion of nutrients

d)

because blood only travels through them slowly

32.

What is labeled A?

a)

Left common carotid artery

b)

Left subclavian artery

c)

Arch of aorta

d)

Brachiocephalic artery

e)

Right subclavian artery

33.

What is labeled B?

a)

Left common carotid artery

b)

Left subclavian artery

c)

Arch of aorta

d)

Brachiocephalic artery

e)

Right subclavian artery

34.

What is labeled D?

a)

Left common carotid artery

b)

Left subclavian artery

c)

Arch of aorta

d)

Brachiocephalic artery

e)

Right subclavian artery

35.

What is labeled E?

a)

Left common carotid artery

b)

Left subclavian artery

c)

Arch of aorta

d)

Brachiocephalic artery

e)

Right subclavian artery

36.

What is labeled H?

a)

Descending aorta

b)

Ascending aorta

c)

Right coronary artery

d)

Left coronary artery

e)

Right common carotid artery

37.

If a person has type A- blood, then they have _____.

a)

Only the B antigen

b)

Both the A and the Rh antigen

c)

Only the A antigen

d)

Only the Rh antigen

38.

Jenna has been in an accident and needs a blood transfusion. She has been identified as having type B blood. Which of the following BEST describes who Jenna can receive blood from?

a)

1 - Someone with type O blood

b)

2 - Someone with type B blood

c)

3 - Someone with type A blood

d)

4 - Both choices 1 & 2 are correct

39.

Which blood type would only have Rh antigens on the surface of red blood cells?

a)

A+

b)

AB+

c)

B+

d)

B-

e)

O+

40.

Which blood type would only have anti-B antibodies flowing through blood plasma?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

41.

How many types of muscles are there?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

3

d)

1

42.

The connective tissue sheath that surrounds a muscle fasciculus is the

a)

epimysium

b)

endomysium

c)

perimysium

43.
Skeletal muscles are attached to which of the following? 
a)
Bones and ligaments 
b)
Ligaments and tendons
c)
Tendons and bones
d)
Bones and fat 
44.

What is section 7 called?

a)

A Band

b)

Z Disc

c)

H Zone

d)

I band

45.

Is number 3 the...

a)

Myosin

b)

Titin

c)

Myofibril

d)

Actin

46.

what does #4 represent?

a)

Myosin

b)

Actin

c)

I Band

d)

H Zone

47.

#1 Represents one whole...

a)

Actin Filament

b)

Z Disc

c)

Sarcomere

d)

Myosin Filament

48.

Which stage is the muscle fully relaxed

a)

2

b)

3

c)

None of the above

d)

1

49.

What's the name of this muscle?

a)

Pectoral

b)

Deltoid

c)

Bicep

d)

Abdominal

50.

Name this muscle

a)

Gastrocnemius

b)

Gluteus Maximus

c)

Hamstring

d)

Quadricep

51.

Name the highlighted muscle

a)

transvers abdominals

b)

rectus abdominals

c)

external obliques

d)

internal obliques

52.

Name the highlighted muscle

a)

pectorals

b)

deltoid

c)

trapezius

d)

latissimus dorsi

53.

Name the highlighted muscle

a)

latissimus dorsi

b)

obliques

c)

rhomboids

d)

deltoid

54.

Name the highlighted muscle

a)

rectus abdominals

b)

transverse abdominals

c)

Obliques

d)

None of the above

55.

What is the anatomical term for bending a joint and decreasing the angle between two bones?

a)

Abduction

b)

Rotation

c)

Flexion

d)

Extension

56.

Give an example of a ball-and-socket joint in the body.

a)

Elbow joint

b)

Hip joint

c)

Shoulder joint

d)

Knee joint

57.

What is the term for moving a body part towards the midline of the body?

a)

Flexion

b)

Abduction

c)

Rotation

d)

Adduction

58.

What type of joint is the elbow joint?

a)

Hinge joint

b)

Gliding joint

c)

Pivot joint

d)

Ball joint

59.

What type of joint is the hip joint?

a)

Ball-and-socket joint

b)

Gliding joint

c)

Pivot joint

d)

Hinge joint

60.

The blue bone(s) on the posterior end of the skull are called

a)

maxillary bones

b)

parietal bones

c)

nasal bones

d)

temporal bones

61.

The green bone(s) inferior to the parietal bones are called

a)

temporal bones

b)

frontal bones

c)

ethmoid bones

d)

sphenoid bones

62.

The parietal and frontal bones are separated by the

a)

squamous suture

b)

lambdoid suture

c)

coronal suture

d)

maxillary bones

63.

The yellow bone which spans the entire bottom, interior region of the skull is called the

a)

sphenoid bone

b)

the vomer

c)

the nasal bone

d)

the mandilbe

64.

Which suture borders the occipital and the parietal bones?

a)

the lamboid suture

b)

the squamous suture

c)

the coronal suture

65.

Identify 2

a)

Proximal Epiphysis

b)

Diaphysis

c)

Distal Epiphysis

d)

Epiphyseal Line

66.

Identify 5

a)

Spongy Bone

b)

Compact Bone

c)

Articular Cartilage

d)

Epiphyseal Line

67.

Identify 7

a)

Medullary Cavity

b)

Compact Bone

c)

Yellow Marrow

d)

Periosteum

68.

Identify 9

a)

Medullary Cavity

b)

Compact Bone

c)

Yellow Marrow

d)

Periosteum

69.

The carpals could be classified as 

a)
Short Bones
b)
Long Bones
c)
Irregular Bones
d)
Flat Bones
70.

What is the main function of a Sesamoid bone?

a)

To protect your internal organs.

b)

To protect tendons and joints, and improve their movement.

c)

To provide strength and structure.

71.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a long bone?

a)

Sphenoid

b)

Tibia

c)

Fibula

d)

Femur

72.

What is the first layer of the skin?

a)

Epidermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Hypodermis

d)

Locodermis

73.

Which skin layer is only present in thick skin?

a)

stratum corneum

b)

stratum lucidum

c)

stratum spinosum

d)

stratum granulosum

e)

stratum basale (aka: germinativum)

74.

Which skin layer is most deep?

a)

stratum corneum

b)

stratum lucidum

c)

stratum spinosum

d)

stratum granulosum

e)

stratum basale

75.

The pigment that gives skin its color and protects from UV radiation is

a)

keratin

b)

melanin

c)

chromatin

d)

dermatin

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