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2026 STAAR Science Review

Total questions: 135

Worksheet time: 4hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many molecules and oxygen atoms are in 2H2O2?

a)

1 molecule, 1 oxygen atom

b)

2 molecules, 2 oxygen atoms

c)

2 molecules, 4 oxygen atoms

d)

4 molecules, 8 oxygen atoms

2.
How many Elements are in the compound C2H8O ?
a)
2
b)
1
c)
3
d)
0
3.
How many atoms are in the element Carbon in this compound?
H2C3O4N5
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
4.

Which of these formulas contain equal numbers of nitrogen atoms?

a)

Formulas I and III

b)

Formulas I and IV

c)

Formulas I, II and V

d)

Formulas II and III

5.
How many Sodium atoms are in the compound 6NaCl?
a)
1
b)
12
c)
6
d)
4
6.

How many atoms of oxygen are found in aluminum nitrate, Al(NO3)3?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

7

d)

9

7.

In the equation shown, what are the reactant(s)?

a)

N2 + H2

b)

NH3

8.

In the equation shown, what are the product(s)?

a)

N2 + H2

b)

NH3

9.

Is this equation balanced?

a)

Yes

b)

No

10.

Is this equation balanced?

a)

Yes

b)

No

11.
What is the Law of Conservation of mass?
a)
Mass is created in a chemical reaction
b)
Mass is created in a physical change
c)
New chemicals formed from a chemical reaction have a larger overall mass than the original reactants
d)
Mass is never created or destroyed
12.

A student heated a 10 gram sample of a chemical in an open container. A chemical reaction occurred, and the mass of the sample was measured again. The mass of the sample was found to be less than before the reaction. Which of the following best explains the decrease in mass of the sample?

a)

The heat caused the chemical to become less dense.

b)

The reaction gave off more heat than was added.

c)

Some of the lighter particles were destroyed.

d)

Some of the particles escaped as a gas formed.

13.

A student dissolved 25 grams of salt into 1,000 grams of water. What should the mass of the saltwater mixture be?

a)

975 grams

b)

1,000 grams

c)

1,025 grams

d)

2,500 grams

14.

Which of the models of a chemical reaction best represents the Law of Conservation of Mass?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

15.
Students are playing tug-of-war. If group B pulls the rope to the right with a force of 400 N and group A pulls the rope to the left with a force of 250 N, what will happen to the ribbon in the middle of the rope?
a)
The ribbon will move to the left and group A will win the tug-of-war.
b)
The ribbon will move to the left and group B will win the tug-of-war.
c)
The ribbon will move to the right and group B will win the tug-of-war.
d)
The ribbon will move to the right and group A will win the tug-of-war.
16.

Student A is pushing at 63 newtons, and student B is pushing at 56 newtons. What is the net force (calculation).

a)

119 N Right

b)

7

c)

7 N Right

d)

119

17.

Student A is pulling at 57 newtons and student B is pushing at 96 newtons. What is the net force (calculation).

a)

153 N Left

b)

39 N Left

c)

153 N Right

d)

39

18.

What is the net force (calculation).

a)

5 N Right

b)

19 N Left

c)

13 N Right

d)

13 N Left

19.

Forces that have a net force of zero ( the object is still) are ?

a)

Unbalanced

b)

Balanced

20.
Which one is balanced?
a)
top
b)
bottom
c)
both
21.
Is this a balanced or unbalanced force?
a)
Balanced
b)
Unbalanced
c)
Neither
d)
Both
22.

What is Newton's First Law

a)

F=ma

b)

Every action has an equal and opposite reaction

c)

An object at rest stays at rest, an object in motion stays in motion.

d)

Friction

23.
It takes more force to accelerate the iron man on the left than the iron man on the right because the iron man on the left has more mass. This best describes
a)
Newton's first law, the law of inertia
b)
Newton's second law, the law of acceleration
c)
Newton's third law, the law of action reaction 
d)
The law of universal gravitation
24.

Which is an example of the Newton's 1st Law (Inertia)?

a)

A rocket taking off from Earth

b)

A crash test dummy flies through the windshield in a collision

c)

A small rock skips on a pond faster than a large rock

25.

Which is an example of Newton's Second Law?

a)

A rocket taking off from Earth

b)

A crash test dummy flies through the windshield in a collision

c)

A small rock skips a pond faster than a large rock

26.

Which example best describes Newton’s 3rd Law?

a)

Paddling a canoe to make the boat move

b)

A large truck takes longer to slow down than a car

c)

Falling forward in a train that is slowing down quickly

27.
Newton's third law states that any action will have a(n) _______ and ______ reaction
a)
Equal and similar
b)
Equal and opposite
c)
Equal and different
d)
Greater and opposite
28.

What is the resulting net force?

a)

5000 N right

b)

4000 N right

c)

40 N left

d)

4000 N left

29.
How much force is needed to accelerate a 3kg skateboard at 5m/s2. 
a)
8N
b)
1.6N
c)
0.6N
d)
15N
30.
A runners races in the 100 meter dash.  It takes her 10 seconds to finish.  What is her average speed?
a)
10 m/s
b)
1000 m/s
c)
100 seconds
d)
10 seconds
31.
If a cheetah runs 180 miles in 3 hours, what is its average speed?
a)
60 hours
b)
60 miles
c)
60 miles/hour
d)
60 miles/second/second
32.

A swing has potential energy if

a)

it is sitting still

b)

moving at a constant speed

c)

accelerating at a fast pace

d)

using multiple units of kinetic energy

33.

What energy transformations take place when a battery operated radio is in use?

a)

electrical to chemical to sound

b)

thermal to nuclear to electrical

c)

chemical to electrical to sound

d)

chemical to sound to thermal

34.

According to the Law of Conservation of Energy, energy cannot be ______ or _______

a)

destroyed, determined

b)

created, nuclear

c)

destroyed, remade

d)

created,destroyed

35.

Plants turn_______ energy into _______ energy for food.

a)

thermal, mechanical

b)

radiant, chemical

c)

electromagnetic, light

d)

potential, kinetic

36.

The roller coaster cart has the most gravitational potential energy at position

a)

Z

b)

Y

c)

W

d)

X

37.

On a rollercoaster, where is maximum kinetic energy?

a)

At the top of the big hill

b)

At the bottom of a big hill

c)

On the way up a big hill

d)

At the top of the hill ,where the car stops for a brief moment

38.

What type of energy transformation in an electric hot plate is plugged in?

a)

electrical to light

b)

mechanical to electrical to light

c)

thermal to mechanical to light

d)

electrical to thermal

39.

A hairdryer converts-

a)

chemical to electrical

b)

electrical to thermal

c)

electrical to solar

d)

thermal to mechanical to light

40.

What is the energy transformation?

a)

Chemical to Electrical to Light

b)

Mechanical to Electrical to Light

c)

Electrical to Thermal to Mechanical

d)

Kinetic to Sound to Potential

41.
What is the energy transformation?
a)
Potential to Kinetic
b)
Kinetic to Potential
c)
Electrical to Kinetic
d)
Kinetic to Electromagnetic
42.
What does this graph represent?
a)
Constant Speed
b)
Acceleration
c)
Not moving
43.
What does this graph represent?
a)
Constant speed
b)
Acceleration
c)
Not moving
44.

Match the description to the graph:

"The car is stopped."

a)
b)
c)
45.

Match the description to the graph:

"The car is coming back."

a)
b)
c)
d)
46.

Segment A-B The bus is _________________.

a)

at rest

b)

returning (to original position)

c)

moving forward

47.

Which of the graphs shows that one of runners started in the same place?

a)
b)
48.

Match the description to the graph:

"The car is slowing down."

a)
b)
c)
d)
49.
What two measurements are necessary for calculating speed?
a)
Mass and time
b)
Temperature and mass
c)
Mass and distance
d)
Distance and time
50.

Describe the motion in the graph:

a)

Constant Speed (positive slope)

b)

Stopped (at rest)

c)

Acceleration (increasing speed)

d)

Return Home (negative slope)

51.

Describe the motion in the graph:

a)

Constant Speed (positive slope)

b)

Stopped (at rest)

c)

Acceleration (increasing speed)

d)

Return Home (negative slope)

52.

Which is faster?

a)

walking

b)

skating

c)

biking

53.

Which scene matches the graph?

a)

Jonathon walked to his girlfriends house - stayed a while then walked home

b)

Justice rode her bike to the mall

c)

Yeshua walked home from school

54.

Which graph shows the object moving from fast to slow?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

55.

What is the speed of the object during segment B?

a)

0.5 m/s

b)

1.3 m/s

c)

2 m/s

d)

2.5 m/s

56.

Which star stage does our sun belong to?

a)

Supergiant

b)

Giant

c)

Main Sequence

d)

White Dwarf

57.

Which type of star is the coldest?

a)

Yellow Star

b)

Red Star

c)

Orange Star

d)

Blue Star

58.

In the diagram given, what happens as we move from right to left?

a)

Stars get larger

b)

Stars get colder

c)

Stars get hotter

59.

Compared to the rest of the stars, our sun is considered...

a)

Extremely large and cooler

b)

Small with a medium temperature

c)

Medium size with medium temperature

60.

Blue stars are the _____________.

a)

hottest

b)

coolest

c)

smallest

d)

biggest

61.

What determines the color of a star?

a)

Size

b)

Temperature

c)

Composition

d)

They are all the same color

62.

As you move from the bottom to the top of the H-R diagram the __________ changes.

a)

Temperature

b)

Luminosity or Brightness

63.
As a whole, Giants are considered hotter than White Dwarfs.
a)
True
b)
False
64.
The category that contains the most stars is...
a)
Main Sequence
b)
Supergiants
c)
Giants
65.

What is found on the X-axis of an H-R diagram?

a)

Luminosity

(or brightness)

b)

Temperature

c)

Star Size

d)

Distance

66.

Which group is found in the bottom left corner of the H-R Diagram?

a)

Supergiants

b)

Giants

c)

Main Sequence

d)

White Dwarfs

67.

What Seasons is position A?

a)

Northern Hemisphere (Summer)/ Southern Hemisphere (Winter)

b)

Northern Hemisphere (Fall)/ Southern Hemisphere (Winter)

c)

Northern Hemisphere (Spring)/ Southern Hemisphere (Fall)

d)

Northern Hemisphere (Winter)/ Southern Hemisphere (Summer)

68.

What Seasons is position A?

a)

Northern Hemisphere (Summer)/ Southern Hemisphere (Winter)

b)

Northern Hemisphere (Fall)/ Southern Hemisphere (Winter)

c)

Northern Hemisphere (Spring)/ Southern Hemisphere (Fall)

d)

Northern Hemisphere (Winter)/ Southern Hemisphere (Summer)

69.

Which part of the Earth is receiving the most direct Sunlight?

a)

Northern Hemisphere

b)

Southern Hemisphere

c)

Polar Hemisphere

d)

MidAtlantic Hemisphere

70.

Which part of the Earth is receiving the the least direct Sunlight?

a)

Northern Hemisphere

b)

Southern Hemisphere

c)

Polar Hemisphere

d)

MidAtlantic Hemisphere

71.

What happens during the Summer Solstice?

a)

Most direct sunlight

b)

Least direct sunlight

c)

Moderate sunlight

d)

temperate sunlight

72.

What happens during the Summer Solstice?

a)

shortest day

b)

longest day

c)

easy day

d)

slow day

73.

What happens during the Autumnal/Vernal Equinoxes?

a)

Equal day and Night

b)

Longer Days, shorter nights

c)

Shorter Days, longer nights

d)

Indirect sunlight

74.

The REVOLUTION around the Sun and the TILT on the Earth's axis cause what?

a)

Seasons

b)

Rain

c)

Tidal Waves

d)

Moon Phases.

75.

A[n] ______________ tide occurs when the sun is at right angles to the line between Earth and the moon.

a)

high

b)

neap

c)

low

d)

spring

76.

A[n] ___________ tide occurs when the sun, Earth, and the moon are in a straight line.

a)

spring

b)

high

c)

low

d)

neap

77.

Which body has the greater effect on Earth's tides?

a)

Sun

b)

Saturn

c)

Moon

d)

Venus

78.

Wha type of tide would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?

a)

full moon tide

b)

new moon tide

c)

neap tide

d)

spring tide

79.

What type of tides would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?

a)

neap tide

b)

spring tide

c)

new moon tide

d)

full moon tide

80.
What happens when there is a spring tide
a)
Short Tides and semi-short tides
b)
High tides and very low tides
c)
low tides and medium tides
d)
small tidal ranges
81.
a)

cold

b)

stationary

c)

warm

d)

occluded

82.
a)

cold

b)

stationary

c)

occluded

d)

warm

83.

What will the weather be like in the area of high pressure?

a)

will be hotter

b)

will be windy

c)

will be relatively calm

d)

will be cold

84.

Cool, dry air belongs to which pressure system?

a)

High

b)

Low

85.

Warm, moist air belongs to which pressure system?

a)

High

b)

Low

86.

What does this symbol represent?

a)

Low pressure

b)

High pressure

c)

Hot air

d)

Hot temperature

87.

What can cause a Hurricane to get weak?

a)

Cooler Air/Water

b)

Reaching land

c)

Both

88.

Where do Hurricanes form?

a)

NEAR the Equator

b)

Away from the Equator

c)

NEAR the North/South Poles

89.

Hurricanes develop in ________ regions.

a)

Arctic/Polar

b)

Tropical

90.

Which of the following helps to explain why tectonic plates move?

a)

Plates move because of the gravitational force of the moon pulling on Earth's surface.

b)

Plates moves because the asthenosphere is slowly moving.

c)

Plates move because landforms cause them to move in different directions.

d)

Plates move because they are slowly expanding and growing larger.

91.

This diagram shows a subduction zone. What type of plate boundary is shown in the image, and what type of landform is likely to occur here?

a)

divergent boundary; a trench

b)

convergent boundary; continental volcanic arc

c)

divergent boundary; island volcanic arc

d)

convergent boundary; folded mountains

92.

Which land features is associated with a convergent boundary?

a)

Folded mountains, volcanoes, and deep ocean trenches

b)

Fault-block mountains, rift valleys, rift zones and flat-topped plateaus

c)

earthquakes, and mountain ranges

93.

What event is associated with the activity at a transform boundary when there is a sudden release of energy?

a)

volcano

b)

earthquake

c)

mountain ranges

94.
A student drew the model to represent a part of a watershed and some human activities that affect the watershed. How do the industrial, agricultural, and residential activities of humans most likely affect the groundwater in the area?
a)
The activities prevent most of the water from evaporating into the atmosphere
b)
Pollutants from the activities percolate through the soil and enter the water table
c)
The activities replace the groundwater used.
d)
All of the above
95.
A company known as Arten Industries is wanting to build a factory in the watershed that is pictured. The company wants to limit the ecological impact it has on surrounding areas. Where should the company build its factory?
a)
top of the river so the rain can dilute the pollution
b)
away from the river so the pollution can not reach the river
c)
the middle of the river so the pollution can have time to settle.
d)
the bottom of the river so it effects a smaller amount of land
96.

Which of the following is a harmful influence of human activity on groundwater?

a)

Natural filtration through soil.

b)

Contamination from leaking septic systems.

c)

Recharge from rainwater.

d)

Conservation efforts to protect aquifers.

97.

How do human activities such as overfishing impact ocean systems?

a)

They increase the biodiversity of marine life.

b)

They can lead to the depletion of fish populations.

c)

They have no significant impact on ocean systems.

d)

They help in the natural regeneration of coral reefs.

98.

What role do oceans play in regulating Earth's climate?

a)

They have no effect on the climate.

b)

They absorb and store solar energy.

c)

They only affect local weather patterns.

d)

They cool the Earth's core.

99.

Which of the following is a sustainable practice to reduce human impact on ocean systems?

a)

Overfishing.

b)

Using single-use plastics.

c)

Implementing marine protected areas.

d)

Dumping waste into the ocean.

100.

What is the impact of agricultural runoff on ocean systems?

a)

It provides nutrients for marine life.

b)

It can cause harmful algal blooms.

c)

It has no effect on ocean systems.

d)

It purifies ocean water.

101.

Which of the following is a benefit humans receive from healthy ocean systems?

a)

Increased air pollution.

b)

Decreased biodiversity.

c)

Abundant seafood resources.

d)

More desertification.

102.

Select all Abiotic factors that contribute to an ecosystem. (Select ALL that apply)

a)

Soil

b)

Wind

c)

Trees

d)

Sunlight

e)

Air

103.

Select all Biotic factors that contribute to an ecosystem. (Select ALL that apply)

a)

Insects

b)

Wind

c)

Trees

d)

Sunlight

e)

Birds

104.

Why is biodiversity important?

a)

Species diversity ensures natural sustainability

b)

Species are more resistant to disease and disturbances

c)

Creates a functional and healthy ecosystem

d)

Purifies our air and water supplies

e)

All of the above

105.

Which trophic level has the most energy?

a)

Producers

b)

Primary consumers (herbivores)

c)

Secondary consumers (carnivores)

d)

Tertiary consumers (top carnivores)

106.

Which trophic level has the lowest population?

a)

Producers

b)

Primary consumers (herbivores)

c)

Secondary consumers (carnivores)

d)

Tertiary consumers (top carnivores)

107.

How does natural selection select for specific traits in a species?

a)

Traits that increase their chance of survival

b)

Traits that increase their chance of attracting a mate

c)

Traits that increase their chance of passing down their genes

d)

All of the above

108.
What are examples of pioneer species in a primary succession?
a)
Bushes and Shrubs
b)
Oak trees
c)
Mossess and Lichens 
d)
A rose Bush
109.
A pioneer species is...
a)
a large organism
b)
the first organisms to adapt to a new environment 
c)
The best organism 
d)
Abiotic organisms 
110.
A climax community is ….
a)
the beginning of a new ecological succession.
b)
the rocks in a new environment.
c)
the fire that will cause destruction.
d)
an area that reaches its greatest growing potential.
111.
What is the difference between primary and secondary succession?
a)
Primary succession already has soil.
b)
Primary has soil and secondary does not
c)
soil is present in both
d)
primary has no soil and secondary has soil
112.
A large tree forest is an example of ...
a)
a small community
b)
a abiotic community
c)
a climax community
d)
a pioneer species 
113.
Why does primary succession take longer to reach climax community?
a)
Because trees do not perform photosyntheses.
b)
Because climax community is in a forrest.
c)
Because primary succession already has soil
d)
Because primary succession does not have soil
114.
Which is the correct order in primary succession?
a)
Rocks, Lichens & Mosses, Bushes & Shrubs, Trees
b)
Lichens & Mosses, Rocks, Trees, Bushes & Shrubs 
c)
Trees, Bushes and Shrubs, Lichens & Mosses, Lichens & Mosses
d)
Rocks, Grass, Trees, Bushes & Shrubs
115.
The picture shows what type of succession?
a)
primary
b)
secondary
c)
tertiary
d)
quadanary
116.
The picture shows what type of succession?
a)
primary
b)
secondary
c)
tertiary
d)
quadanary
117.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.
118.
Mutations are a change in what?
a)
DNA
b)
tRNA
c)
genotype
d)
phenotype
119.
All of these finches have different shaped beaks, they are an adaptation to gain access of 
a)
Water
b)
Food
c)
Shelter
120.
Individuals in a population have to compete for resources.
a)
Species
b)
Variation
c)
Mutation
d)
Competition
121.
What did the beak type of finches on different islands tell Darwin?
a)
Finch populations evolved over time to favor beaks based on food type
b)
Finch populations had not evolved over time
c)
The finch beaks had no relationship to the available food on the islands
d)
Humans artificially selected finches based on their desired beak type
122.
What does the cell membrane do?
a)
controls activities of cell
b)
releases energy
c)
stores food, water, and waste
d)
controls movement in and out of cell
123.
What is the function of the nucleus?
a)
store food, water, and waste
b)
control cell activities
c)
take in energy from the sun
d)
give the cell shape
124.
In what kind of cell can you find a cell wall?
a)
plant 
b)
animal 
c)
both
d)
neither
125.
Why is the mitochondria called the powerhouse of the cell?
a)
because it releases energy from food 
b)
because it creates food
c)
because it stores food
d)
because it makes proteins
126.
What is the function of chloroplasts?
a)
make proteins
b)
collect sun's energy
c)
create food (sugar) from sun's energy
d)
control cell activities
127.
Which structure is not in a bacteria cell?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
cell membrane
d)
DNA
128.
Which type of cell is not eukaryotic?
a)
plant
b)
animal
c)
bacteria 
d)
they all are
129.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
130.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
131.

How many chromosomes do human cells have?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

2

d)

44

132.
What is a gene?
a)
A bundle (like a hot dog bun) that the DNA is packed into
b)
something inside the nucleus
c)
a piece of DNA
d)
all of your DNA
133.

What happens to the potential energy of a ball as it rolls down a hill?

a)

It turns into sound energy

b)

It increases

c)

It remains constant

d)

It decreases

134.

Which of the following best describes the energy transformation in a battery-powered flashlight?

a)

Chemical to electrical to light

b)

Electrical to thermal to sound

c)

Thermal to electrical to light

d)

Mechanical to chemical to light

135.

According to Newton's Second Law, what is the relationship between force, mass, and acceleration?

a)

Force equals acceleration divided by mass

b)

Force equals mass plus acceleration

c)

Force equals mass divided by acceleration

d)

Force equals mass times acceleration

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