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arterial: non-imaging testing

Total questions: 148

Worksheet time: 2hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the key aspects to know for all types of testing in arterial testing?

a)

Capabilities and limitations, physical principles, technique, interpretation.

b)

Only physical principles and technique.

c)

Interpretation and technique only.

d)

Capabilities and limitations only.

2.

compression of the popliteal artery by the medial head of the gastrocnemius muscle or fibrous bands. Usually young male pt complaining of claudication in calf w/ exercise.

Eval: PPG on tor. plantar flexion and dorsiflexion

findings: normal at rest. Only compressed when muscle is activated. Waveforms will diminish or flatten upon flexions.

a)

popliteal entrapment syndrome

b)

thoracic outlet syndrome

3.

compression of neuromuscular bundle by shoulder structures (ribs, ligaments, muscles). pt complain pain, tingling, weakness in arm when in certain positions. most common cause is neurogenic. must also test when replicating compression.

technique: PPG sensors on index finger

rest w/ hand in lap, arm raised at 90degr. to body! 180 degrees, exagerated miltary stand (shoulders back), adson maneuver (exaggerated military stance w/ head turned sharply toward arm being tested & then switched) , caustive position

a)

popliteal entrapment syndrome

b)

thoracic outlet syndrome

4.

In regards of compression disorders if there is arterial compression = _____

a)

A. normal in position

b)

B. normal at rest, attenuated/flatted in position

c)

C. attenuated/flattened at rest

d)

D. A and C

5.

TRASCUTANEOUS OXIMETRY (TcPO2)

T/F

evaluates wound healing potential and also determines amputation level (special sensors measure oxygen tension)

normal >30mmHg

poor <40mmHg (impaired wound healing)

critical <50mmHg (Non-healing)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

6.

what are the physical principles of digital pressure and PPG?

a)

use pneumatic cuffs (BP cuffs w/ special sensor) detects changes in volume

b)

when volume increases in systole sensor shows peak on PVR

c)

when volume decrease in diastole less pressure on cuff so there is downslope on PVR

d)

small sensor on digit sends light and the capillary pulsations reflects the light.

7.

what are some techniques used with digital pressure and PPG

a)

obtain bilat brach pressures

b)

use PPG to obtain digital pressures (when pulsation returns record pressure)

c)

for raynauds - cold stress: 1st perform at rest, 2nd soak in ice water for 3min or to tolerance obtain pressures & waveforms

d)

use same cuffs as segmental pressure study. cuff inflated to 40-65mmHg (not to occlude vessel)

e)

brach cuff and forearm cuff, obtain pressures from the vessels in that area (brach & radial)

8.

a normal interpretation of digital pressure & PPG w/in the finger(FBI)

a)

>0.8

b)

>0.6

c)

>0.3

d)

<0.8

e)

<0.9

9.

what is a normal interpretation of digital pressure & PPG of the toes (TBI)

a)


>0.8


b)

>0.6

c)

>0.3

d)

<0.8

e)

<0.9

10.

if there is obstructive disease (secondary raynauds) within a digital pressure or PPG exam there will be _______ and ______

a)

dropped pressures

b)

dampended waves

c)

elevated pressures

d)

peaked waves

11.

what are some capabilities and limitations of penile pressure and testing?

a)

evaluate for vasculogenic impotence (erectile dysfunction caused by vascular inflow or outflow)

b)

leriche syndrome: terminal Ao. obstruction impotence, hip, and thigh claudication

c)

performed with segmental pressure study and not vessel specific = understimate disease.

d)

useful in PT with cold sensitivity and medial calcinosis

12.

_____ are capabilities of digital pressure and ppg.

a)

detects presence of arterial disease

b)

useful in patients with cold sensitivity & medial calcinosis

c)

dx fixed arterial obstruction vs vasospasm

d)

assesses effect of treatment

e)

vessel specific

13.

____ are capabilities of plethsmography

a)

dx true arterial claudication vs nonvascular related

b)

evaluates functional aspects of disease

c)

performed with Segmental pressure

d)

localizes level of obstruction

e)

assess results of medical and or exercise therapy

14.
Question Image

in regards of plethysmography what is its physical principles?

(image shows when the grey area(vesse) dilates with higher volume of blood flow it increases peak amplitude) vise versa

a)

uses pneumatic cuffs( BP cuffs w/ special spensors to detect changes in volume)

1.

1

b)

air is introduced to cuff before exam 40-65mmhg

2.

2

c)

volume increase under cuff bladder at systole sensor shows peak in PVR/c, decrease in diastole less pressure in cuff so PVR/c downslopes

3.

3

d)

paired w/ Segmental pressure or accuracy

4.

4

e)

if paper is used to chart recording speed is set at 25mm/sec

5.

5

15.

what is the proper technique to perform a plethysmography exam?

a)

use same cuff as segmental pressure study

b)

cuff inflated to 40-65mmHg (not to occlude vessel)

c)

obtain bilateral brachial pressures use ppg to obtain digital pressures

d)

none of these

16.

match the proper interpretation for plethysmography disease limits

a)

1.

normal, sharp peak dicrotic notch

b)

2.

mild sharp peak, absent dicrotic notch

c)

3.

flattened peak, slow upstroke/downslope

d)

4.

flattened, dampened pulse

17.

in regards of segmental pressure testing of the upper extremities, what are some capabilities and limitations?

a)

presence/absence of disease & approximate level and severity

b)

not exact location or stenosis vs occlusion

c)

medial calcinosis: incompressible vessels. often seen in diabetics & end stage renal disease. pressures will be inaccurately high

d)

pt w/ dialysis fistula stents, DVT, or hx of lymphedema cannot have this exam

e)

any surgical modifications

18.

in regard of segmental pressure testing of the upper extremities, upper and lower extremities use the same cuff technique

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

19.

in regards to segmental pressure testing within the lower extremities, what are some capabilities and limitations?

a)

presence/absence of disease

b)

approximate level and severity

c)

not exact location or stenosis vs occlusion

d)

medial calcinosis: incompressible vessels. often seen in diabetics and End stage renal disease.

e)

pt w/ dialysis fistula, stents, DVT, or hx of lymphedema

20.

in regard to segmental pressure testing of the lower extremities include all the techniques to complete this exam :

a)

pt in basal state (resting for at least 20 mins)

  • - supine = no hydrostatic pressure

b)

CUFFS: bilat brach cuffs

4 cuff method: 2 thighs, calf, ankle

3 cuff method: 1 large thigh, calf , ankle

c)

width of cuff: 1.2x greater than diameter of limb

too wide:false low pressure

too narrow: false high pressure

d)

Use Cw probe to locate arterial pressure distally (ex. pta or dpa)

e)

inflate cuff to suprasystolic pressure(30 ^ than last audible signal) , slowly deflate record pressure when pulsation returns

21.

in regard to segmental pressure testing of the lower extremities include all the interpretations for this exam:

a)

calculate ankle/brachial index ABI

ankle pressure divided by highest brachial pressure

b)

normal ankle pressures should be about the same as the brachial

c)

in presence of arterial disease - pressure drops

d)

ankle< brachial = disease ABI would be <1.0

ankle> brachial would give an ABI >1.0 no disease proximally

e)

Abi > 1.3 indicates the vessels are likely incompressible: NOT accurate

22.

In regards to segmental pressure of the upper extremities, place the interpretation of this exam in order:

a)

pressures DROP abnormally distal to disease

1.

1

b)

compare both brachial to each other. normally they should be within 20mmHg of each other. if greater than 20 diff. prox disease on arm w/ lower pressure

2.

2

c)

look for drops of 20 or more between consecutive vertical levels. 20 or more drop means disease between those levels.

3.

3

d)

always compare up. radial to brachial, ulnar to brachial.

4.

4

e)

remember: arterial obstructive disease will decrease the pressures. disease is proximal to the lower pressure.

5.

5

23.

in regards to the allen test, what is the purpose of an Allen test?

a)

evaluate patency of the palmar arch, wrist and digital arteries

b)

evaluate the patency of the brachial artery

c)

evaluate the patency of the basilic artery

d)

evaluate the patency of the ulnar artery

24.

Allens test: useful to see if its possible to confirm usability of the _____ in cases of (harvesting for coronary bypass, hemodialysis access graft or angiography)

a)

radial artery

b)

ulnar artery

c)

brachial artery

d)

cephalic artery

25.

in regards to the allen test what is the proper technique for this test?

a)

apply pressure to radial artery to occlude it, make fist. hand will turn pale as blood is drained from hand open hand maintaining pressure on artery.

b)

apply pressure to cephalic artery to occlude it, make fist. hand will turn pale as blood is drained from hand open hand maintaining pressure on artery.

c)

apply pressure to ulnar artery to occlude it, make fist. hand will turn pale as blood is drained from hand open hand maintaining pressure on artery.

d)

apply pressure to brachial artery to occlude it, make fist. hand will turn pale as blood is drained from hand open hand maintaining pressure on artery.

26.

in regards to the allen test, what is the proper interpretation?

a)

standard: color returns to normal

modified: PPG waveforms are maintained throughout compression

repeat w/ ulnar artery compression

b)

calculate ankle/brachial index ABI , ankle pressure divided by highest brachial pressure.

c)

compare both brachial to each other, normally they should be within 20mmHg of each other.

d)

none of these

27.

True or False

in regards to segmental pressure criteria

pressures drop abnormally distal to disease

a)

True

b)

False

28.

What does qualitative analysis in arterial testing focus on?

a)

How it looks, NOT measurable, waveform contour.

b)

Quantitative measurements, numerical data, blood pressure levels.

c)

Statistical data, measurable outcomes, heart rate.

d)

Chemical composition, blood sugar levels, cholesterol.

29.

in regard to segmental pressure criteria:

normal thigh pressures on the 3 cuff study type should:

a)

A. thigh should have the same or higher than brachial

b)

B. high thigh should be 30 or more higher than highest brachial

c)

none of these

d)

both A & B are normal thigh pressures

30.

in regard to segmental pressure criteria:

normal thigh pressures on the 4 cuff study type should:

a)

A. thigh should have the same or higher than brachial

b)

B. high thigh should be 30 or more higher than highest brachial

c)

none of these

d)

both A & B are normal thigh pressures

31.

in regard to segmental pressure criteria:

look for drops of ___ or more between consecutive vertical levels.

<(less than)__ difference between levels is NORMAL. ____ or more drop means disease between those levels.

a)

30

b)

40

c)

35

d)

45

32.

reactive hyperemia is for pts that cannot do ______

a)

treadmill

b)

stair master

c)

segmental pressures

d)

all of the above

33.

____ purpose is to produce ischemia and distal vasodilation. cutting off the flow forces of the body to vasodilate. then when the cuff is released we see how the hyperemia (increase in flow) reacts = how quick it gets down

a)

reactive hyperemia

b)

exercise testing

c)

segmental pressure testing

d)

none of these is correct

34.

in regards to reactive hyperemia, what is the proper technique?

a)

inflate thigh cuff to suprasystolic pressures 3-5min

  • - release cuff and record ankle pressures

b)

inflate brachial cuff to suprasystolic pressures 3-5min

c)

constant load treadmill(unchanging) <12% grade and 1.5 mph for a max of 5min

d)

pt in a basal state (resting for atleast 20mins)

supine & no hydrostatic pressure

35.

in regards to reactive hyperemia, what is considered normal?

a)

transient drop in pressure that returns to resting w/in 1min(<34%)

b)

no change or increase in ankle pressures

c)

transient drop in pressure that returns to resting immediately

d)

no change or decrease in ankle pressure

36.

in regards to reactive hyperemia, what is considered abnormal:

a)

big drop in pressures

b)

<50% drop= single level

c)

>50% drop= multi level

d)

increase in ankle presure

37.

arterial exercise testing abnormal results represent:

a)

no change or increase in ankle pressures

b)

decrease in ankle presures

c)

repeat ankle pressures every 2 min until return to resting

d)

if it return <(less than)6 min: single level

if it return >6min: multi level

38.

what types of recording does CW doppler record?

a)

audio: doppler shifts w/in audible range

b)

analog: zero crossing frequency meter on strip chart recorder estimates freq shifts, not very sensitive

c)

spectral analysis: displays true or individual freq shifts according to time. more sensistive

d)

all of the above

39.

What does quantitative analysis in arterial testing focus on?

a)

How it measures, velocities, ratios, indices, % diameter reduction.

b)

Blood pressure levels.

c)

Heart rate variability.

d)

Cholesterol levels.

40.

Which of the following is included in non-imaging testing?

a)

CW

b)

Pressure testing

c)

Plethysmographic studies

d)

All of the above

41.

What are capabilities of CW doppler analysis?

a)

Exact location of disease

b)

confirms arterial occlusive disease

c)

provides follow up info about progression of disease

d)

Depth specificity

e)

gives an approx location of significant obstruction

42.

what are some techniques for CW doppler?

a)

supine

b)

8-10MHz CW probe

c)

45-60degree angle

d)

9-14MHz

e)

25-60degree angle

43.

when interpreting a normal waveform which of the above are normal waveforms?

a)

triphasic

b)

biphasic

c)

monophasic

d)

continuous

44.

CW doppler analysis requires how many crystals?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

45.

CW doppler analysis is a (a)   technique.

Choose from the below words
non-Imaging
imaging
46.

Fill in the blank: CW doppler analysis has no depth specificity, also known as _______.

a)

range resolution

b)

depth ambiguity

c)

frequency shift

d)

velocity estimation

47.

What is the probe angle for CW doppler analysis?

a)

45-60 degrees to skin surface

b)

30-45 degrees to skin surface

c)

60-75 degrees to skin surface

d)

75-90 degrees to skin surface

48.

What is the normal qualitative interpretation of vascular signals?

a)

A) Monophasic

b)

B) Triphasic or Biphasic

c)

C) Continuous

49.

What does a deterioration in signal contour from one level to the next indicate?

a)

Disease between those levels

b)

Improvement in signal quality

c)

No change in condition

d)

Signal interference from external sources

50.

What does the pulsatility index measure?

a)

Resistance

b)

Velocity

c)

Pressure

d)

Flow

51.

What does an increased acceleration time greater than 133 msec indicate?

a)

A) Distal disease

b)

B) Proximal (inflow) disease

c)

C) No disease

52.

time from beginning of systole to peak AKA upstroke

a)

acceleration time

b)

pulsatile index

c)

peak systolic

d)

none of these

53.

how do you obtain pulsatility index?

a)

peak to peak / mean

b)

peak to end / mean

c)

peak to end / peak

d)

none of these

54.

What is one of the capabilities of segmental pressure testing?

a)

Exact location of stenosis

b)

Presence/absence of disease

c)

Cure for renal disease

d)

Treatment for lymphedema

55.

normal pulsatile index decreases as you go down the limb

TRUE/FALSE:

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

56.

_____ causes inaccurately high pressures in segmental pressure testing?

hint: its associated to diabetic pts and pts w/ end stage renal disease due to incompressible vessels

a)

Diabetes

b)

Medial calcinosis

c)

Hypertension

d)

Lymphedema

57.

Patients with which condition cannot have segmental pressure testing?

a)

Diabetes

b)

DVT

c)

Hypertension

d)

Obesity

58.

pt w/ dialysis, fistula, stents, DVT or hx of lymphedema will have

a)

innacurate results

b)

cannot have exam

c)

extremely low pressures

d)

elevated pressures

59.

Fill in the blank: The width of the cuff should be ______ greater than the diameter of the limb.

a)

1.2x

b)

1.5x

c)

1.8x

d)

2.0x

60.

In segmental pressure testing, pressures must be taken distal to proximal. Arrange the following in the correct order:

a)

ankle > calf > thigh

b)

thigh > calf > ankle

c)

calf > ankle > thigh

d)

thigh > ankle > calf

61.

What is the formula to calculate the Ankle/Brachial Index (ABI)?

a)

Ankle pressure divided by HIGHEST brachial pressure.

b)

Ankle pressure divided by LOWEST brachial pressure.

c)

Brachial pressure divided by Ankle pressure.

d)

Ankle pressure multiplied by Brachial pressure.

62.

According to the ABI criteria, what ABI value indicates normal condition?

a)

1.0

b)

0.9-1.0

c)

0.8-0.9

d)

<0.5

63.

According to the ABI criteria, what ABI value indicates claudication condition?

a)

1.0

b)

0.9-1.0

c)

0.8-0.9

d)

0.5-0.8

64.

What does an ABI value of >1.3 indicate?

a)

Normal

b)

Vessels are likely incompressible

c)

Mild disease

d)

Severe disease

65.

What is the purpose of exercise testing in vascular registry review?

a)

Produces physiologic stress on circulation and reproduces ischemia.

b)

Improves muscle strength and flexibility.

c)

Increases heart rate variability.

d)

Enhances respiratory function.

66.

What is a contraindication for exercise testing?

a)

Difficulty walking or breathing, severe HTN, cardiac issues.

b)

Mild headache, slight fatigue, normal blood pressure.

c)

Good physical fitness, regular exercise routine, healthy diet.

d)

Normal heart rate, no history of heart disease, regular check-ups.

67.

What is the technique used in exercise testing?

a)

Constant load treadmill with <12% grade and 1.5 mph for a max of 5 min.

b)

Variable load treadmill with >12% grade and 2.0 mph for a max of 10 min.

c)

Constant load cycling with <10% resistance for a max of 5 min.

d)

Variable load rowing with >15% resistance for a max of 8 min.

68.

In exercise testing, what is considered normal?

a)

No change or increase in ankle pressures.

b)

Decrease in ankle pressures.

c)

Significant increase in heart rate.

d)

Drop in blood oxygen levels.

69.

In reactive hyperemia, what indicates a multi-level disease?

a)

A drop in pressure >50%

b)

A rise in pressure >50%

c)

No change in pressure

d)

A drop in pressure <20%

70.

In reactive hyperemia, what indicates a single-level disease?

a)

A drop in pressure <50%

b)

A rise in pressure >50%

c)

No change in pressure

d)

A drop in pressure <20%

71.

In segmental pressure testing, what should be the normal difference in mmHg between both brachial pressures?

a)

Within 20mmHg of each other.

b)

Within 10mmHg of each other.

c)

Within 30mmHg of each other.

d)

Within 5mmHg of each other.

72.

What happens to pressures distal to the disease in arterial obstructive disease?

a)

Pressures DROP abnormally distal to disease.

b)

Pressures INCREASE abnormally distal to disease.

c)

Pressures remain UNCHANGED distal to disease.

d)

Pressures FLUCTUATE abnormally distal to disease.

73.

What is the standard interpretation of the Allen test?

a)

Color returns to normal.

b)

Color does not return to normal.

c)

Pulse is absent.

d)

Skin becomes pale.

74.

____ testing: produces physiological stress on circulation & repodruces ischemia( reduced flow)

  • - ___ test Dx true vs Pseudo claudication

  • - contraindications: difficulty walk/breathing, HTN ,cardiac

  • technique: constant load treadmill ( unchanging) <12% grade and 1.5mph for a max of 5min.

  • - leave ankle cuffs on. after exercise, repeat ankle pressures.

a)

exercise testing

b)

segmental pressure testing

c)

reactive hyperemia

d)

none of these

75.

a normal ______ exam will show no change or increase in ankle pressure

a)

exercise testing

b)

segmental pressure testing

c)

reactive hyperemia

d)

none of these

76.

What is plethysmography usually performed with?

a)

Segmental pressure study

b)

Ultrasound imaging

c)

MRI scan

d)

CT scan

77.

a abnormal ______ exam will show

  • - decrease in ankle pressure

  • - if abnormal repeat ankle pressures every 2 mins until return to resting

  • - if return <6mins = single level disease

  • - if return >6mins = multi level disease

a)

exercise testing

b)

segmental pressure testing

c)

reactive hyperemia

d)

none of these

78.

Plethysmography is vessel specific and cannot underestimate disease.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

What does plethysmography use to detect changes in volume?

a)

Pneumatic cuffs (BP cuffs with special sensor)

b)

Ultrasound waves

c)

X-ray imaging

d)

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

80.

Which of the following is NOT a term used in plethysmography interpretation?

a)

Triphasic

b)

Biphasic

c)

Monophasic

d)

High resistance

81.

if cuff too wide: _____

a)

falsely low pressure

b)

falsely high pressure

c)

undetermined pressure

82.

if cuff is too narrow: _____

a)

falsely high pressure

b)

undetermined pressure

c)

falsely low pressure

83.

What is the interpretation of a waveform with a sharp peak and dicrotic notch?

a)

Normal

b)

Abnormal

c)

Irregular

d)

Erratic

84.

when performing a segmental pressure exam patient must be

a)

standing

b)

supine

c)

prone

d)

basal state

85.

What does PVR detect in the limb?

a)

The overall volume of blood in the limb at that level.

b)

The temperature of the limb.

c)

The nerve activity in the limb.

d)

The muscle strength in the limb.

86.

What is indicated by a high amplitude 'fair' PVR contour in the presence of abnormal pressures?

a)

Severe disease but presence of collateral development.

b)

Mild disease with no collateral development.

c)

Normal condition with no disease.

d)

Moderate disease with partial collateral development.

87.

What is the capability of Digital Pressure and PPG?

a)

Same as plethysmography; useful in patients with cold sensitivity and medial calcinosis.

b)

Measures blood glucose levels.

c)

Monitors heart rate variability.

d)

Assesses lung capacity.

88.

What is the normal Finger FBI value?

a)

Normal >0.8

b)

Normal <0.8

c)

Normal =0.8

d)

Normal >=0.8

89.

What does a 'Peaked pulse' after cold stress indicate?

a)

Functional disease

b)

Structural disease

c)

Infectious disease

d)

Genetic disorder

90.

What is evaluated for penile vasculogenic impotence?

a)

Vascular inflow or outflow

b)

Hormonal levels

c)

Neurological function

d)

Psychological factors

91.

What is the normal Penile/Brachial Index (PBI)?

a)

Normal ≥ 0.65

b)

Normal ≥ 0.75

c)

Normal ≥ 0.55

d)

Normal ≥ 0.45

92.

What does a normal ABI with abnormal PBI indicate?

a)

Disease isolated to internal iliac vessels

b)

Normal vascular function

c)

Disease isolated to external iliac vessels

d)

No vascular disease

93.

What is the significance of a dorsal venous velocity greater than 4cm/s?

a)

Venous leak

b)

Normal finding

c)

Arterial insufficiency

d)

Deep vein thrombosis

94.

What is the normal range for Transcutaneous Oximetry TcPO2?

a)

Normal >50mmHg

b)

Normal <30mmHg

c)

Normal 30-40mmHg

d)

Normal 40-50mmHg

95.

What is the common complaint of a young male patient with Popliteal entrapment syndrome?

a)

Tingling in the arm

b)

Claudication in calf with exercise

c)

Headache

d)

Chest pain

96.

In Popliteal entrapment syndrome, what happens to the waveforms upon flexions?

a)

Waveforms will increase

b)

Waveforms will diminish or flatten

c)

Waveforms will remain unchanged

d)

Waveforms will become erratic

97.

What is the most common cause of Thoracic outlet syndrome?

a)

Muscular compression

b)

Neurogenic (nerves)

c)

Vascular compression

d)

Bone fracture

98.

in compression disorders if only neurogenic (most likely finding) = ______

a)

all normal w/ and w/o causative positions.

b)

normal at rest

c)

attenuated/flattened in position

d)

attenuated/flattened at rest

99.


What are Limitations of Continuous Wave doppler analysis?

a)

CHF

(inflow&outflow)

b)

temperature

c)

Patients w/ bandages & casts cannot participate

d)

cannot dx stenosis vs occlusion

e)

tech dependent

100.

Match the following

  • - X which is the line left to right = time

  • - Y which is the line up & down = frequency/amplitude

a)

1.

analog triphasic waveform

b)

2.

spectral analysis w/ triphasic waveform

c)

3.

analog w/ absence of flow reversal

d)

4.

spectral analysis w/ flow reversal

101.

for the audible signal method on continuous wave testing paired with segmental pressures,

how does the examiner know the signals that are being detected?

a)

right headphone provides retrograde flow

b)

left headphone provides retrograde flow

c)

right headphone provides antegrade flow

d)

left headphone provides antegrade flow

102.

Quality interpretations for continuous wave testing includes _____ & _____ as NORMAL.

a)

triphasic

b)

multiphasic

c)

sharp upstroke, sharp peak, rapid down stroke, short peak below baseline & resumption of forward flow above baseline

d)

monophasic , biphasic

e)

non-pulsatile

103.

match the continuous wave doppler signals on analog that are abnormal or normal

a)

1.

abnormal, monophasic

b)

2.

abnormal/ biphasic

c)

3.

normal triphasic

104.

this image was obtained

a)

post-exercise

b)

post stenosis

c)

prestenosis

d)

all of these

105.

this waveform was obtained in the common femoral artery what is the cause of this

a)

normal waveform

b)

iliac artery occlusion

c)

post exercise

d)

pre exercise

106.

this flow is called ____ caused by 60-cycle noise & can be adjusted by increasing the filter or reducing gain.

a)

thrill flow

b)

trickle flow

c)

monophasic flow

d)

venous flow

107.

T/F

patient with a warm relaxed extremity could also have normal monophasic low resistance continuous flow

a)

true because it creates vasodilation

b)

false because that only occurs when there's proximal obstruction or disease

108.

the value of pulsatile index (PI) decreases in the presence of

a)

proximal disease

b)

distal disease

c)

total occlusion

d)

all of these

109.

is the pulsatile index in this image increased or decreased?

a)

decreased abnormally

b)

decreased normally

c)

increased normally

d)

increased abnormally

110.

continous wave is used for segmental pressure

a)

true

b)

false

111.

In resting segmental pressures the patient should be resting ____ in supine position

a)

20mins

b)

30mins

c)

45mins

d)

1hr

112.

where is the disease according to the segmental pressure

a)

left iliofemoral disease

b)

pelvic mass

c)

popliteal disease

d)

right iliofemoral disease

113.

what is occuring in the segmental pressures on this patient.

a)

within normal limits

b)

pelvic pass

c)

iliofemoral disease on the left exremity

d)

none of these

114.

what is occurring within these segmental pressures?

a)

right femoral-popliteal occlusive disease

b)

left femoral popliteal occlusive disease

c)

pelvic mass

d)

right iliofemoral occlusive disease

115.

which pressures are most reliable and less likely to be misleading?

a)

toes

b)

ankles

c)

calves

d)

all of these are reliable

116.

T/F

Resting segmental pressures are compared to pressures taken after exercise or after reactice hyperemia testing.

a)

true

b)

false

117.

if the pressures taken after exercise testing have a drop and remain dropped for >6minutes it indicates

EXAMPLE: resting = 50mmhg

post exercise & 7minutes have passed = 45mmhg

a)

single level disease

b)

multilevel disease

c)

entire leg disease

d)

pelvic mass

118.

if the pressures taken after exercise testing have a drop and remain dropped for >6minutes it indicates

EXAMPLE: resting = 50mmhg

post exercise & drop in pressures & 3 minutes have passed and then it = 50mmhg

a)

single level disease

b)

multilevel disease

c)

entire leg disease

d)

pelvic mass

119.

in reactive hyperemia there are bilateral cuffs places at highest thighs & ankles

initial resting SPT are compared to post reactive hyperemia pressures (suprasystolic pressure >30mmhg)

Example: resting SPT : 120mmhg

post reactive hyperemia SPT: 60mmhg

what occured here?

a)

single level disease

b)

multilevel disease

c)

entire leg disease

d)

pelvic mass

120.

in reactive hyperemia there are bilateral cuffs places at highest thighs & ankles

initial resting SPT are compared to post reactive hyperemia pressures (suprasystolic pressure >30mmhg)

Example: resting SPT : 120mmhg

post reactive hyperemia SPT: 90mmhg

what occured here?

a)

transient drop of 17-34%

b)

single level disease

c)

multilevel disease

d)

entire leg disease

121.

in reactive hyperemia there are bilateral cuffs places at highest thighs & ankles

initial resting SPT are compared to post reactive hyperemia pressures (suprasystolic pressure >30mmhg)

what is considered normal?

a)

transient drop in 17%

b)

transient drop of 34%

c)

big drop of >50

d)

drop of <50

122.

in reactive hyperemia there are bilateral cuffs places at highest thighs & ankles

initial resting SPT are compared to post reactive hyperemia pressures (suprasystolic pressure >30mmhg)

what is considered single level disease?

a)

<50 drop in pressures

b)

>50 drop in pressures

c)

>6minutes

d)

transient 17%-34% drop

123.

in reactive hyperemia there are bilateral cuffs places at highest thighs & ankles

initial resting SPT are compared to post reactive hyperemia pressures (suprasystolic pressure >30mmhg)

what is considered multi level disease in reactive hyperemia?

a)

<50 drop in pressures

b)

>50 drop in pressures

c)

>6minutes

d)

transient 17%-34% drop

124.

in Upper extremity SPT a difference of _____ between the radial & ulnar artery suggest obstruction in the artery w/ the lower pressure

a)

\ge 20

b)

\ge 30

c)

\ge 45

d)

\le 20

125.

arterial obstruction/disase occurs most frequently in the

a)

upper ext

b)

lower ext

c)

abdomen

d)

brain

126.

there is an incomplete palmar arch about ____ of the time

a)

50%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

never

127.

During the allen test limitations include

excessive ____ and _____ cause compression of radial or ulnary artery creating a false positive& pallor.

a)

plantar flexions

b)

dorsiflexions

c)

exagerated hand/finger extensions

d)

fist compression

e)

wrist resting

128.
Question Image

match the following for the allen test ( modified and standard testing)

a)
  • - PPG on 2-3 fingers

  • - get Wave before/after comp.

  • - obtain tracing before comp. & during while the ppg is on

1.

modified allen test

b)
  • - compress radial a.

  • -make a fist = pallor

  • -keep compressed

  • -relax hand

2.

standard allen test

c)
  • - hand in fist = pale

  • - radial comp. & hand relaxed = color returns

    = ulnar artery took over

3.

Normal standard allens test

d)
  • - radial a.= comp

  • - hand relaxed = remains pale

  • - radial a dependent

4.

abnormal standar allens test

e)
  • - waveform remains w/ radial a comp= ulnar a patent

  • - waveform distorts w/ radial a. ulnar a not patent

5.

modified Allens interpretation

129.

____ helps dx wound/ulcer healing

helps dx healing potential by amputation level

helps w/ calcified arteries in diabetics

these are capabilities of ;

a)

laser doppler

b)

resting SPT

c)

reactive hyperemia SPT

d)

exercise SPT testing

130.

___ cannot be performed with ulcerated skin

patient cooperation of laying down quietly & w/o movement

  • - technician technique

a)

laser doppler

b)

resting SPT

c)

reactive hyperemia SPT

d)

exercise SPT testing

131.

penile pressures are obtained by ONE of these

(meaning its an option but you can only use one to obtain pressures)

a)

PPG

b)

volume plethsmography

c)

continuous wave doppler

d)

duplex

132.

a penile brachial pressure(PBI) of ____ is considered ABNORMAL in young adult with normal sexual response = vasculogenic impotence

a)

>0.75

b)

<0.65

c)

>0.55

d)

none of these

133.

how is the nonimaging technique performed step by step in penile testing.

a)

supine

1.

1

b)

cuffs on bilat arms & ankles & penile shaft cuff

2.

2

c)

calculate ABI to make sure it is normal for the study

3.

3

d)

ppg,plethsmography, or CW @ dorsal, ventral & medial aspects

4.

4

e)

penile divided by highest brachial

at or greater >0.75

5.

5

134.

Match the following plethysmographic waveforms

a)

sharp, systolic peak w/ prominent dicrotic notch

1.

normal

b)

sharp peak absent dicrotic notch, downslow bowed away from baseline

2.

mildy abnormal

c)

flattened systolic peak, upslope/downslope time decreased, dicrotic absent

3.

moderately abnormal

d)

low amplitude equal upslope/downslope time or absent

4.

severely abnormal

135.

Match the following imaging technique to perform penile testing

a)

supine w/ 7-10MHz probe

1.

1

b)

bilat PSV of cavernous & dorsal arteries obtained

2.

2

c)

vasodilator injected = erection

3.

3

d)

repeat PSV at prox cavernous a. & measure Dorsal vein velocity

4.

4

e)

POST injection normal PSV should incr: >30cm/s & venous flow should not go over <3cm/s

5.

5

136.

what may occur post-penile testing when guided injection is performed?

a)

priapism

b)

impotence

c)

thrombus

d)

irreversible damage

137.

this image represents ____ penile testing results

a)

abnormal

b)

normal

c)

mildly abnormal

d)

highly abnormal

138.

____ is the enlargement of veins of spermatic cord , occurs in young men, mostly on left side

patient standing or patient performing valsalva with reversal of flow indicated _______

a)

varicocele

b)

spider-veins

c)

spermatocitis

d)

hydrocele

139.

____ are some limitation of plethsmography

a)

not vesssel specific due to large area covered

b)

difficult to dx major arteries & collaterals

c)

obesity

d)

cannot identify function aspect of disease or true vs false claudication

e)

cannot localize or detect presence/absence of disease/obstruction

140.

another name for plethsmography is

a)

pneumo(air) plethsmography

b)

true plethsmography

c)

laser doppler

d)

trickling doppler

141.

photoplethsmography does not track the volume of blood flow, but instead tracks ____ and the infrared light reflected tracks blood flow.

  • - any increase in blood flow increases attenuation so it decreases reflection.

a)

pulsations

b)

obsutrction

c)

disease

d)

stenosis

142.

moderate or severe abnormal volume plethsmography waveforms indicate _______ proximal to the level of the tracing.

a)

hemodynamically significant disease

b)

moderate disease

c)

no disease

143.

T/F

you can obtain a waveform of fair quality but an abnormal doppler segmental pressure at the same level due to collaterals

a)

true

b)

false

144.

this plethsmography paired with SPT indicates what?

a)

left sided inflow disease (iliofemoral)

b)

bilateral inflow disease

c)

right sided femoral disease

d)

left sided outflow disease (femopopliteal)

145.

this plethsmography(PVR) and SPT indicates disease beginning at

a)

tibial

b)

dpa

c)

popliteal

d)

ileofemoral

e)

bilateral iliofemoral

146.

_____ are limitations of digital pressure and ppg.

a)

scaling/dry skin

b)

ulcerations/gangrene affect placement of cuff or bandages

c)

vasoconstriction affects results due to pt being cold, smoking,nervous

d)

tight cuffs

e)

not vessel specific

147.

____ are limitations of TcpO2/PtcO2

a)

electrolude not intact w/ skin

b)

patient unable to lay still for 20minutes

c)

tech dependent

d)

low pressures in leg

148.

the electrolude uses _____ degree celsuis to heat up skin in TcPo2/pCo2

a)

44-45 degree celsius

b)

50-55degree celsius

c)

45-60 degree celsius

d)

none of these