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Unit 6 AP Biology Review 2

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the process called where sections of the pre-mRNA, called introns, are removed and exons are joined together?

a)

RNA Splicing

b)

DNA Replication

c)

Protein Synthesis

d)

Cell Division

2.

What do introns do in the RNA splicing process?

a)

Do not code for amino acids

b)

Code for amino acids

c)

Create proteins

d)

Form ribosomes

3.

What are exons responsible for in the RNA splicing process?

a)

Code for amino acids

b)

Do not code for amino acids

c)

Create lipids

d)

Form cell walls

4.

Why does splicing occur in RNA processing?

a)

A single gene can code for more than one kind of protein

b)

To create more DNA

c)

To destroy RNA

d)

To form carbohydrates

5.

What must first bind to the DNA for RNA polymerase to start transcription?

a)

Transcription factors

b)

Ribosomes

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

Helicase

6.

What is the repeating sequence known as in the promoter region?

a)

TATA box

b)

GC box

c)

CAAT box

d)

ATCG box

7.

In which direction does RNA polymerase move along the DNA strand?

a)

5' to 3'

b)

3' to 5'

c)

2' to 4'

d)

4' to 2'

8.

What is the mRNA known as before it undergoes processing?

a)

Pre-mRNA

b)

Post-mRNA

c)

Mature mRNA

d)

Processed mRNA

9.

What is the first step in the transcription process for a prokaryotic cell?

a)

RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region.

b)

RNA polymerase binds to the terminator region.

c)

RNA polymerase binds to the ribosome.

d)

RNA polymerase binds to the cytoplasm.

10.

In which direction does RNA polymerase move along the DNA strand during transcription?

a)

5' to 3' direction

b)

3' to 5' direction

c)

Left to right direction

d)

Top to bottom direction

11.

What happens when RNA polymerase transcribes through a terminator sequence?

a)

RNA polymerase detaches from the DNA.

b)

RNA polymerase starts translation.

c)

RNA polymerase binds to the ribosome.

d)

RNA polymerase continues transcription indefinitely.

12.

What is a key player in translating mRNA to an amino acid sequence?

a)

DNA

b)

tRNA

c)

Protein

d)

Lipid

13.

Where does translation occur?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Cell membrane

d)

Mitochondria

14.

What does tRNA carry that the mRNA codes for?

a)

Amino acid

b)

Sugar

c)

Lipid

d)

Vitamin

15.

How many subunits do ribosomes have?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

16.

What is the site on the large ribosomal subunit that holds the tRNA carrying the growing polypeptide chain?

a)

A site

b)

P site

c)

E site

d)

D site

17.

How does the tRNA interact with the mRNA?

a)

By binding to the ribosome

b)

By carrying amino acids

c)

By matching its anticodon with the mRNA codon

d)

By forming a peptide bond

18.

What codes for the amino acid?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Codon

c)

Anticodon

d)

Subunit

19.

What are the three sites on the large ribosomal subunit?

a)

E, P, A

b)

A, B, C

c)

X, Y, Z

d)

L, M, N

20.

What starts when the next tRNA comes into the A site?

a)

Elongation

b)

Termination

c)

Initiation

d)

Replication

21.

What does each mRNA codon code for?

a)

An amino acid

b)

A sugar

c)

A lipid

d)

A vitamin

22.

What occurs when a stop codon in the mRNA reaches the A site of the ribosome?

a)

Termination

b)

Elongation

c)

Initiation

d)

Replication

23.

What is the role of a stop codon?

a)

Signals for a release factor

b)

Starts the process

c)

Binds amino acids

d)

Replicates DNA

24.

What is the first level of protein structure called?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

25.

Which level of protein structure involves the coiling and folding of the polypeptide chain?

a)

Secondary

b)

Primary

c)

Quaternary

d)

Tertiary

26.

What is the term for the final shape of a protein?

a)

Tertiary structure

b)

Primary structure

c)

Secondary structure

d)

Quaternary structure

27.

What type of virus is an exception to the standard flow of genetic information?

a)

Retrovirus

b)

Bacteriophage

c)

Influenza

d)

Rhinovirus

28.

What does an allosteric activator bind to?

a)

Active site

b)

Inactive site

c)

Substrate site

d)

Promoter site

29.

What happens to the enzyme shape when an allosteric inhibitor binds?

a)

Active sites become inactive

b)

Enzyme shape becomes unstable

c)

Active sites remain active

d)

Enzyme shape is unchanged

30.

What does the trp operon control the synthesis of?

a)

Tryptophan

b)

Glucose

c)

Lactose

d)

RNA

31.

What happens to transcription when the trp operon is switched off?

a)

It is repressed

b)

It is activated

c)

It is unchanged

d)

It is enhanced

32.

What binds to the operator when tryptophan is present?

a)

Trp repressor

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

Promoter

d)

Substrate

33.

What does the lac operon control the synthesis of?

a)

Lactase

b)

Amylase

c)

Protease

d)

Lipase

34.

What happens to transcription when the lac operon is inactive?

a)

It is stopped

b)

It is enhanced

c)

It is unchanged

d)

It is doubled

35.

What binds to the lac repressor to make it inactive?

a)

Allolactose

b)

Glucose

c)

Fructose

d)

Sucrose

36.

Where is the lac repressor bound when it is active?

a)

Operator

b)

Promoter

c)

Enhancer

d)

Terminator

37.

Compare and contrast the bacterial lac operon and trp operon.

a)

Both are involved in gene regulation but differ in their response to environmental changes.

b)

Both are identical in function and structure.

c)

Lac operon is only found in plants, while trp operon is found in animals.

d)

Lac operon and trp operon are unrelated to gene expression.

38.

What are the three parts of an operon?

a)

Promoter, operator, and structural genes

b)

Nucleus, cytoplasm, and ribosome

c)

DNA, RNA, and protein

d)

Chromatin, histone, and nucleosome

39.

Diagram showing stages of eukaryotic gene expression, including chromatin remodeling, transcription, RNA processing, mRNA stability, translation, and post-translation.

a)

mRNA stability

b)

Chromatin remodeling

c)

RNA processing

d)

Transcription

e)

Translation

40.

What do chromatin modifications not alter in the DNA?

a)

The sequence

b)

The color

c)

The size

d)

The shape

41.

What can chromatin modifications be passed on to?

a)

Future generations

b)

Past generations

c)

Present generations

d)

No generations

42.

What allows DNA to be more accessible for transcription factors to bind?

a)

Chromatin modifications

b)

DNA replication

c)

Protein synthesis

d)

Cell division

43.

What can gene expression be controlled by?

a)

Activators or repressors

b)

Water or air

c)

Light or darkness

d)

Heat or cold

44.

What is a mutation in the genetic material of a cell?

a)

A change that can alter characteristics

b)

A process that creates new cells

c)

A method of cell division

d)

A way to increase cell size

45.

What is the primary source of genetic variation?

a)

Mutations

b)

Cell growth

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Respiration

46.

What can any disruption in cellular function cause?

a)

Different phenotypes

b)

Faster cell growth

c)

Increased energy

d)

More nutrients

47.

What are the two types of changes in mutations?

a)

Large scale and small scale

b)

Fast and slow

c)

Visible and invisible

d)

Temporary and permanent

48.

What is a point mutation?

a)

A change in a single nucleotide of a gene

b)

A change in the entire DNA sequence

c)

A change in the cell membrane

d)

A change in the protein structure

49.

What does a silent mutation result in?

a)

The same amino acid

b)

A different protein

c)

A new cell

d)

A larger gene

50.

What does a missense mutation result in?

a)

A different amino acid

b)

No change at all

c)

A new cell type

d)

A larger protein

51.

What does a nonsense mutation result in?

a)

A stop codon

b)

A start codon

c)

A longer protein

d)

A new gene

52.

What is a frameshift mutation?

a)

When the sequence of genetic information is altered

b)

When a chromosome is duplicated

c)

When a nucleotide is inserted

d)

When a segment is deleted

53.

What happens during nondisjunction?

a)

Chromosomes do not separate properly

b)

A segment of one chromosome moves to another

c)

A segment is inverted

d)

A nucleotide is deleted

54.

What is translocation in genetics?

a)

A segment of one chromosome moves to another

b)

A segment is duplicated

c)

A nucleotide is inserted

d)

A segment is deleted

55.

How can prokaryotes exchange genetic material?

a)

Through transformation, transduction, and conjugation

b)

Through deletion, inversion, and duplication

c)

Through insertion, deletion, and frameshift

d)

Through nondisjunction, translocation, and inversion

56.

What can both DNA and RNA be manipulated through?

a)

Biotechnology

b)

Chemistry

c)

Physics

d)

Mathematics

57.

What is gel electrophoresis used to separate?

a)

Proteins by color

b)

DNA fragments by size

c)

Cells by shape

d)

Atoms by weight

58.

In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments are charged in which way?

a)

Positively

b)

Neutrally

c)

Negatively

d)

Not charged

59.

What is the purpose of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

a)

To make several copies of a specific DNA segment

b)

To change the color of DNA

c)

To separate proteins by size

d)

To measure the weight of DNA

60.

What does DNA sequencing determine?

a)

The color of nucleotides

b)

The size of nucleotides

c)

The order of nucleotides

d)

The weight of nucleotides

61.

What is cystic fibrosis?

a)

A genetic disease affecting mucus production

b)

A type of cancer

c)

A bacterial infection

d)

A viral infection

62.

How long is the CFTR gene?

a)

27 exons

b)

15 exons

c)

10 exons

d)

5 exons

63.

How would you classify the delta F508del mutation?

a)

Deletion of three base pairs

b)

Insertion of three base pairs

c)

Substitution of one base pair

d)

Duplication of two base pairs

64.

In which net direction does chloride travel through the channel proteins?

a)

Into the cell

b)

Out of the cell

c)

Sideways

d)

In circles

65.

Is the movement of chloride passive or active transport? Why?

a)

Active, because it requires energy

b)

Passive, because it follows the concentration gradient

c)

Active, because it moves against the gradient

d)

Passive, because it uses ATP

66.

Why is water needed to clear out mucus from the lungs?

a)

To dry out the mucus

b)

To hydrate the cell surface and move mucus away

c)

To make the mucus thicker

d)

To stop the cilia from moving

67.

What effect does the mutated CFTR channel have on the cell?

a)

It improves chloride ion transport

b)

It blocks chloride ion transport

c)

It has no effect

d)

It speeds up mucus production

68.

What is the function of the CFTR protein?

a)

It acts as a channel within the cell membrane.

b)

It produces energy for the cell.

c)

It stores genetic information.

d)

It breaks down waste products.

69.

What happens in Class 1 mutations of the CFTR protein?

a)

The protein is produced normally.

b)

The protein production ends prematurely.

c)

The protein is overproduced.

d)

The protein is unaffected.

70.

Which class of CFTR mutation involves mis-processing in the endoplasmic reticulum?

a)

Class 1

b)

Class 2

c)

Class 3

d)

Class 4

71.

What is the result of gating mutations in the CFTR protein?

a)

The protein becomes more flexible.

b)

The protein loses its ability to allow ions to flow.

c)

The protein becomes more stable.

d)

The protein increases its size.

72.

What do conduction mutations in the CFTR protein affect?

a)

The protein's color

b)

The protein's ability to store energy

c)

The shape and function of the channel

d)

The protein's ability to replicate

73.

What is a characteristic of Class 5 and 6 mutations in the CFTR protein?

a)

They produce no protein at all.

b)

They produce normal proteins in reduced quantities.

c)

They produce proteins that are too large.

d)

They produce proteins that are too small.

74.

What is the purpose of potentiators in the treatment of cystic fibrosis (CF)?

a)

To open the CFTR channel and increase chloride transport

b)

To adjust the shape of CFTR proteins

c)

To correct mutations that stop protein synthesis

d)

To provide a correct copy of the gene

75.

What do correctors do in the treatment of CF?

a)

Open the CFTR channel

b)

Adjust the shape of CFTR proteins

c)

Provide normal RNA to the cell

d)

Repair defects in the CFTR gene

76.

What is the role of RNA therapies in CF treatment?

a)

To open the CFTR channel

b)

To adjust the shape of CFTR proteins

c)

To correct defective RNA or provide normal RNA

d)

To increase the rate of chloride transport

77.

What do gene-editing techniques aim to do in CF treatment?

a)

Open the CFTR channel

b)

Provide a correct copy of the gene

c)

Adjust the shape of CFTR proteins

d)

Correct mutations that stop protein synthesis