wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Unit 4 Test Review

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A force acting on an object does no work if

a)

a machine is used to move the object

b)

the force is not in the direction of the object's motion

c)

the force is greater than the force of friction

d)

the object accelerates

2.

In which of the following is no work done?

a)

climbing stairs

b)

lifting a book

c)

pushing a shopping cart

d)

pushing on a brick wall

3.

What is the unit of work?

(a)  

4.

If you exert a force of 10.0 N to lift a box a distance of 0.9 m, how much work do you do?

a)

0.1 J

b)

9.0 J

c)

10.9 J

d)

90.0 J

5.

The SI unit of power is the

(a)  

6.

The power of a machine measures

a)

its rate of doing work

b)

its strength

c)

the force it produces

d)

the work it does

7.

If you exert a force of 600 N to walk 6 m up a flight of stairs in 5 seconds, how much power do you use?

a)

720 W

b)

500 W

c)

18,000 W

d)

20 W

8.

A 750-W motor might also be rated as a

a)

0.5 horsepower motor

b)

1 horsepower motor

c)

2 horsepower motor

d)

10 horsepower motor

9.

A machine is a device that can multiply

(a)  

10.

When a machine does work, it cannot do which of the following?

a)

change the direction of a force

b)

increase a force and change the distance a force moves

c)

increase the distance a force moves and change the direction of a force

d)

increase a force and increase the distance a force moves an object

11.

Output work is always less than input work because of friction

a)

true

b)

false

12.

The only way to increase the work output is to increase the amount of work you put into a machine.

a)

true

b)

false

13.

The actual mechanical advantage of a machine

a)

cannot be less than 1

b)

increases with greater friction

c)

is always less that the ideal mechanical advantage

d)

is always equal to the ideal mechanical advantage

14.

If you have to apply 40 N of force on a crowbar to lift a rock that weighs 400 N, what is the actual mechanical advantage of the crowbar?

(a)  

15.

Reducing friction in a machine

a)

decreases the actual mechanical advantage

b)

decreases the work output

c)

increases its efficiency

d)

increases its ideal mechanical advantage

16.

The efficiency of a machine is always less than 100% because

a)

a machine cannot have an ideal mechanical advantage greater than 1

b)

some work input is lost to friction

c)

the work input is too small

d)

the work output is too great

17.

The (a)   of a machine is the number of times that the machine increases the input force.

18.

The mechanical efficiency of any machine is always (a)   than 100 percent.

19.

The percentage of work input that becomes work output is the (a)   of a machine.

20.

The (a)   mechanical advantage of a machine is the mechanical advantage in the absence of friction.

21.

An inclined plane reduces the effort force by

a)

increasing the distance over which the force is applied

b)

increasing the work

c)

reducing the distance over which the force is applied

d)

reducing the

work

22.

An axe is an example of a(n)

a)

inclined plane

b)

lever

c)

wedge

d)

wheel and axle

23.

Which of the following is an example of a wheel and axle?

a)

a hammer

b)

a steering wheel

c)

a jar lid

d)

a pencil

24.

The ideal mechanical advantage of a pulley system is equal to

a)

the distance the load moves

b)

the length of the rope

c)

the number of ropes supporting the load

d)

the weight of the object being lifted

25.

An example of a compound machine is a

a)

crowbar

b)

bicycle

c)

ramp

d)

seesaw

26.

The ideal mechanical advantage of a wheel and axle is found by

a)

multiplying the circumference of the wheel by the radius of the axle

b)

dividing the radius of the wheel by the radius of the axle

c)

dividing the radius of the axle by the radius of the wheel

d)

multiplying the radius of the wheel by the radius of the axle

27.

A machine is classified as a compound machine if it

a)

has moving parts

b)

has an ideal mechanical advantage greater than 1

c)

is made up of two or more simple machines that operate together

d)

is 100% efficient

28.

A(n) (a)   can be described as an inclined plane wrapped around a cylinder.

29.

The fulcrum is always BETWEEN the effort force and the resistance force in a(n) (a)   -class lever.

30.

The ideal mechanical advantage of a third-class lever is always (a)   than 1.

31.

Work is a transfer of

a)

energy

b)

force

c)

mass

d)

motion

32.

The energy of motion is called _____.

a)

kinetic energy

b)

potential energy

c)

thermal energy

d)

work

33.

A small 20-kilogram canoe is floating downriver at a speed of 2 m/s. What is the canoe's kinetic energy?

a)

22 J

b)

40 J

c)

80 J

d)

400 J

34.

An object's gravitational potential energy is NOT directly related to which of the following?

a)

its height

b)

its mass

c)

its velocity

d)

the acceleration due to gravity (g)

35.

A 4-kilogram cat is resting on top of a bookshelf that is 3 meters high. What is the cat's gravitational potential energy if g=9.8 m/s2?

a)

7 J

b)

12 J

c)

29 J

d)

118 J

36.

Which of the following increases when an object gets warmer?

a)

chemical energy

b)

elastic potential energy

c)

nuclear energy

d)

thermal energy

37.

The energy stored in gasoline is _____.

a)

chemical energy

b)

thermal energy

c)

mechanical energy

d)

nuclear energy

38.

Energy and work are measured in the SI unit called the (a)   .

39.

Energy that is stored due to position or shape is called (a)   energy.

40.

The sum of the kinetic and potential energy of an object is called its (a)   energy.

41.

Solar cells convert what type of energy into electrical energy?

a)

chemical

b)

electromagnetic

c)

nuclear

d)

thermal

42.

Choose the true statements according to the law of conservation of energy.

a)

energy cannot be created

b)

energy cannot be destroyed

c)

energy can be converted from one form to another

d)

energy cannot be transferred

43.

The mechanical energy of an object equals its

a)

chemical energy plus its nuclear energy

b)

kinetic energy plus its potential energy

c)

nuclear energy

d)

thermal energy

44.

The kinetic energy of the pendulum bob in the picture increases the most between

a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 3

c)

1 and 4

d)

1 and 5

45.

The equation E = mc2 relates energy and

a)

force

b)

gravity

c)

mass

d)

work

46.

Wind turbines convert (a)   energy into electrical energy.

47.

The process of changing energy from one form to another is called energy (a)   .

48.

In the equation E=mc2 , c is the speed of (a)   .

49.

What is biomass energy?

a)

chemical energy stored in living things

b)

electromagnetic energy stored in living things

c)

nuclear energy stored in living things

d)

thermal energy stored in living things

50.

Fossil fuels currently account for the majority of the world's energy use because they are

a)

distributed evenly throughout the world

b)

nonpolluting

c)

relatively inexpensive and readily available

d)

renewable energy resources

51.

A drawback of solar energy is that it

a)

cannot be converted directly into electrical energy

b)

depends on the climate

c)

produces water pollution

d)

is not a renewable resource

52.

A benefit of a hydrogen fuel cell is that its byproduct is

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

oxygen

c)

water

d)

uranium

53.

Energy resources that exist in limited amounts and, once used, cannot be replaced are called (a)   resources.

54.

Turning off unused lights are appliances is an example of energy (a)   .

55.

Which of the following is a unit of temperature?

a)

Celsius degree

b)

joule

c)

kilogram

d)

calorie

56.

Heat is the transfer of thermal energy from one object to another because of a difference in

a)

specific heat

b)

phase

c)

temperature

d)

waste heat

57.

What property of an object is related to the average kinetic energy of the particles in that object?

a)

specific heat

b)

mass

c)

conductivity

d)

temperature

58.

As the temperature of an object rises, so does the

a)

kinetic energy

of the object

b)

mass

of the object

c)

thermal energy

of the object

d)

potential energy of the object

59.

Which of the following devices is based on the property of thermal expansion?

a)

balance

b)

calorimeter

c)

convection oven

d)

thermometer

60.

Thermal energy depends on an object's

a)

mass

b)

phase

(solid, liquid, gas)

c)

temperature

d)

all of these

61.

What does a calorimeter directly measure?

a)

change in temperature

b)

kinetic energy

c)

specific heat

d)

radiation

62.

(a)   is the transfer of thermal energy because of a temperature change.

63.

The increase in volume of a material due to a temperature increase is called (a)   .

64.

Energy from the sun reaches Earth mostly by

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

thermal expansion

65.

Matter is needed to transfer thermal energy by

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

conduction and convection

66.

Which of the following materials conducts heat well?

a)

glass

b)

plastic

c)

metal

d)

wood

67.

The transfer of thermal energy in matter with no overall transfer of matter is called (a)   .

68.

The transfer of energy as waves moving through space is called (a)   .

69.

The type of thermal energy transfer that takes place in fluids is mostly (a)   .

70.

A material that conducts thermal energy well is called a thermal (a)   .

71.

The study of the conversion between heat and other forms of energy is called (a)   .

72.

Which statement is the best example of energy transfer by conduction?

a)

a pan heating up on the stove

b)

air in your room heated by moving air

c)

Earth being warmed by the Sun

d)

water coming to a rolling boil on the stove

73.

In what direction does heat flow on its own spontaneously?

a)

from cold to hot

b)

from hot to cold

c)

from the more dense object to the less dense object

d)

from solid to liquid

74.

An instrument that is used to measure specific heat (changes in temperature).

(a)  

75.

T or F: The two main types of heat engines are the internal combustion engine and the solar combustion engine.

a)

true

b)

false

76.

A heat engine in which the fuel burns inside the engine.

a)

internal combustion engine

b)

external combustion engine

c)

steam engine

d)

heat pump

77.

In a four-stroke engine, the stroke in which the spark plug ignites the fuel-air mixture, the gas expands and drives the piston down.

a)

intake stroke

b)

compression stroke

c)

power stroke

d)

exhaust stroke

78.

In a four-stroke engine, the stroke in which a mixture of air and gasoline vapor enters the cylinder.

a)

intake stroke

b)

compression stroke

c)

power stroke

d)

exhaust stroke

79.

How much of the fuel energy in a gasoline engine is converted to work?

a)

33%

b)

75%

c)

90%

d)

100%

80.

Most heating systems use ​ (a)   to distribute thermal energy

Choose from the below words
convection
conduction
radiation
steam
81.

A device that reverses the normal flow of thermal enregy.

a)

heat pump

b)

baseboard heater

c)

central heating system

d)

forced-air heating system

82.

T or F: Heat pumps must do work on a refrigerant in order to reverse the normal flow of thermal energy.

a)

true

b)

false

83.

A fluid that vaporizes and condenses inside the tubing of a heat pump.

a)

steam

b)

refrigerant

c)

gasoline

d)

water

84.

A ​ (a)   heating system heats many rooms from one central location.

Choose from the below words
central
steam
radiant
internal
85.

When a drill is used to bore a hole in an object,

a)

no useful work is done

b)

no energy is lost due to friction

c)

the drill is 100 percent efficient

d)

friction causes the object to heat up

86.

Why does liquid rise in a thermometer

a)

convection

b)

thermal expansion

c)

condensation

d)

radiation

87.

To heat 1 g of water by 1 degree C requires

a)

1 calorie

b)

1 joule

c)

1 Calorie

d)

1 watt

88.

The best thermal insulators

a)

conduct heat well

b)

are gases

c)

are metals

d)

have free electrons

89.

A blow dryer transfers thermal energy mainly by

a)

conduction

b)

radiation

c)

convection

d)

specific heat

90.

Which statement is NOT true about radiation?

a)

all objects radiate

b)

hot objects radiate faster than cold objects

c)

radiation only transfers energy in matter

d)

the sun's energy reaches Earth by radiation

91.

Energy added to a system

a)

does work or increases thermal energy

b)

cannot heat the environment

c)

is converted to radiation

d)

reduces the kinetic energy of a system

92.

All engines operate at less than 100 percent efficiency because they

a)

absorb heat

b)

burn gasoline

c)

conduct heat

d)

emit heat

93.

Which occurs just before ignition?

a)

intake stroke

b)

exhaust stroke

c)

compression stroke

d)

power stroke

94.

Which of the following is a FALSE statement about a heat pump?

a)

it requires no work

b)

it moves heat from a cold to a hot area

c)

it uses a refrigerant

d)

air conditioners are heat pumps