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SHEESHABLES #5

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What document is required for most shipments intended for export, whether subject to export duty or not?

a)

Import Declaration

b)

Export Permit

c)

Export Declaration

d)

Certificate of Origin

2.

Which of the following is NOT a required piece of information in an Export Declaration?

a)

Name of the exporter

b)

Country and Port of destination/discharge

c)

Harmonized System (HS) code of the goods

d)

Date of loading

3.

In what format should Export Declarations be lodged?

a)

Manually at the customs office

b)

Electronically through the Bureau's automated system

c)

Via email to the Export Division

d)

Through a customs broker

4.

Which group within the Bureau of Customs is responsible for providing the IT infrastructure for electronic processing of Export Declarations?

a)

Customs Intelligence and Investigation Service (CIIS)

b)

Assessment and Operations Coordinating Group (AOCG)

c)

Post Clearance Audit Group (PCAG)

d)

Management Information System and Technology Group (MISTG)

5.

Which of the following shipments would typically be covered by a Special Permit to Load (SPL) instead of an Export Declaration?

a)

Commercial shipment of electronics

b)

Personal effects of a returning resident

c)

Empty containers

d)

Foodstuff for export

6.

Can a Special Permit to Load (SPL) be issued for human remains?

a)

Yes, it is a valid use of the SPL.

b)

No, a Death Certificate is required instead.

c)

Yes, but only if accompanied by a medical certificate.

d)

No, a special permit for human remains is required.

7.

Which type of shipment would NOT be eligible for a Special Permit to Load (SPL)?

a)

Misrouted baggage

b)

Diplomatic shipments

c)

Regular export of manufactured goods

d)

Documents with no commercial value

8.

True or False: The application and processing procedures for a Special Permit to Load (SPL) are the same as those for an Export Declaration.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

What is the primary requirement for exporting regulated goods under Philippine customs regulations?

a)

Obtaining a special permit from the Bureau of Customs

b)

Paying additional export duties and taxes

c)

Registering with the Department of Trade and Industry (DTI)

d)

Securing necessary export declaration, clearances, licenses, and other requirements before exportation

10.

What document certifies the origin of goods for export?

a)

Bill of Lading (BL)

b)

Export Permit

c)

Certificate of Origin (CO)

d)

Commercial Invoice

11.

In cases where the electronic exchange system for COs is not yet available, who issues the CO in paper form?

a)

The exporter

b)

The importer

c)

The designated government agency

d)

The Export Division or its equivalent unit

12.

Which entity/entities have the authority to determine the origin of goods for export?

a)

The Bureau of Customs only

b)

The Department of Trade and Industry (DTI) only

c)

The Bureau of Customs or any other designated government agency

d)

The exporter themselves

13.

The criteria for granting a Certificate of Origin (CO) are based on what?

a)

The value of the goods

b)

The Harmonized System (HS) code of the goods

c)

The Rules of Origin (ROO) and Operational Certification Procedure (OCP)

d)

The destination country's import regulations

14.

What does the Self-Certification Scheme allow exporters to do?

a)

Self-assess the duties and taxes on their exports

b)

Determine the origin of their goods without government intervention

c)

Issue a proof of origin certifying the origin of their goods

d)

Export goods without the need for an Export Declaration

15.

Under what conditions can the Bureau of Customs authorize an exporter to issue a proof of origin under the Self-Certification Scheme?

a)

The exporter has a good compliance record.

b)

The goods are destined for a specific country.

c)

The goods are of a certain type or category.

d)

It is pursuant to ATIGA or other international agreements.

16.

Can a special economic zone or freeport zone authority issue a Certificate of Origin (CO) for goods exported from its zone?

a)

Yes, independently without any involvement from the Bureau of Customs.

b)

Yes, but only with the concurrence of the Bureau of Customs.

c)

No, only the Bureau of Customs can issue COs.

d)

No, unless the goods are exempt from customs duties.

17.

What is the main requirement for products intended for export, if applicable?

a)

They must be accompanied by a Certificate of Origin.

b)

They must be inspected by a third-party quality control agency.

c)

They must conform to export standard grades established by the appropriate agency.

d)

They must be valued at a certain amount to qualify for export incentives.

18.

In addition to meeting standard grades, what other requirement must be met for the packaging of export products?

a)

The packaging must be biodegradable.

b)

The packaging must display the exporter's logo.

c)

The packaging must be labeled and marked according to relevant laws and regulations.

d)

The packaging must be approved by the Bureau of Customs.

19.

What action can the Bureau of Customs take if export goods do not conform to the established standards or packaging requirements?

a)

Impose additional duties and taxes.

b)

Seize and forfeit the goods.

c)

Not give clearance for exportation.

d)

Require the exporter to relabel and repackage the goods.

20.

Which of the following is NOT considered a Regular Exporter?

a)

Customs Bonded Warehouse (CBW) operators

b)

Free Zone Locators

c)

A company exporting goods for the first time

d)

Third parties acting on behalf of exporters

21.

If an exporter's agent lodges an export declaration on behalf of the exporter, who bears the primary responsibility or liability for the shipment?

a)

The customs broker

b)

The agent

c)

The principal exporter

d)

The Bureau of Customs

22.

What term is used to classify exporters who are not accredited as Regular Exporters?

a)

Occasional Exporters

b)

Non-Compliant Exporters

c)

Non-Registered Exporters

d)

Non-Regular Exporters

23.

Who is responsible for lodging the Export Declaration electronically?

a)

The customs broker

b)

The freight forwarder

c)

The exporter or authorized representative

d)

The Bureau of Customs (BO officer

24.

If electronic lodgement of the Export Declaration is unavailable, what alternative can be used?

a)

Submitting a hand-written declaration

b)

Sending the declaration via email

c)

Manual processing of the declaration

d)

Delaying the shipment until the system is available

25.

Which of the following is NOT a mandatory document for export declaration submission?

a)

Proforma/Commercial Invoice

b)

Certificate of Origin

c)

Packing List

d)

Transfer Note

26.

Under what circumstance would an export shipment be subject to physical examination or non-intrusive inspection?

a)

If the goods are perishable.

b)

If the shipment is selected under the risk management system.

c)

If the exporter requests an inspection.

d)

If the shipment is valued at more than Php 100,000.

27.

Who bears the cost of examination of export shipments?

a)

The Bureau of Customs

b)

The importer

c)

The exporter

d)

The shipping company

28.

What is the purpose of the Certificate of Identification (CI) for exported goods?

a)

To track the origin of the goods.

b)

To determine the appropriate export tariff.

c)

To identify goods intended to be returned to the Philippines.

d)

To prove the ownership of the goods.

29.

Where does the Bureau of Customs personnel supervise the stuffing of goods for export?

a)

At the port of loading

b)

At the customs warehouse

c)

At the exporter's premises or Bureau's designated examination area

d)

At the freight forwarder's warehouse

30.

True or False: Export shipments by air are under continuous guarding during their transfer from the customs facility warehouse (CFW) to the airport terminal facility.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

What is the term for goods that are shipped directly out of the country to another destination?

a)

Transit goods

b)

Outright exportation goods

c)

Transhipped goods

d)

Conditionally-free goods

32.

Which law governs the transport and co-loading of foreign cargoes for domestic transshipment in the Philippines?

a)

Customs Modernization and Tariff Act (CMTA)

b)

Republic Act No. 10668

c)

Anti-Smuggling Act

d)

Tariff and Customs Code

33.

What are the conditions for goods transported for outright exportation to be exempt from duties and taxes at the Port of Entry?

a)

a. The goods must be declared as 'in transit.'

b)

b. The goods must be accompanied by a Certificate of Origin.

c)

c. The goods must be destined for a customs bonded warehouse at the Port of Destination.

d)

Both a and c

34.

Which of the following is NOT a valid route for customs transit within the Customs Territory?

a)

From Port of Entry to another Port of Entry as an exit point for outright exportation.

b)

From Port of Entry to another Port of Entry or Inland Customs Office.

c)

From Inland Customs Office to a Port of Entry as an exit point for outright exportation.

d)

From Port of Entry to a foreign country for consumption.

35.

What is the term for the movement of goods within the Philippines from one customs area to another under customs control?

a)

Transshipment

b)

Transit

c)

Re-exportation

d)

Importation

36.

If goods are transported for outright exportation but are later found to be dutiable, when are the duties and taxes payable?

a)

At the port of entry

b)

At the port of destination

c)

At the inland customs office

d)

Never, as outright exportation goods are always exempt from duties and taxes

37.

What is the primary document required for goods in customs transit for outright exportation from one port of entry to another?

a)

Import Permit

b)

Export Declaration

c)

Goods Declaration for Transit

d)

Bill of Lading

38.

In addition to the Goods Declaration for Transit, what else is required for transit of imported goods within the customs territory to another port or inland customs office for manufacturing or warehousing?

a)

Certificate of Origin

b)

Packing List

c)

Required security

d)

Commercial Invoice

39.

Which document serves as a Transit Permit when goods admitted in Free Zones are withdrawn for outright exportation?

a)

Goods Declaration for Transit

b)

Export Declaration

c)

Authority to Load

d)

Transfer Permit

40.

In cases involving the transfer of goods to customs facilities and warehouses during transit, what document is necessary?

a)

Bill of Lading

b)

Packing List

c)

Electronic permit to transfer

d)

Goods Declaration for Transit

41.

What is the general rule regarding the requirement of a Transfer Permit for goods transported under customs transit?

a)

It is always required, regardless of the circumstances.

b)

It is not required for goods transported within the same port.

c)

It is not required if the goods are transported by air.

d)

It is required, except when goods are transferred from one means of transport to another without breaking customs seals.

42.

What document is required for the transit of goods from one inland customs office to another for admission into free zones?

a)

Import Permit

b)

Export Declaration

c)

Goods Declaration for Transit

d)

Bill of Lading

43.

True or False: Goods transported for outright exportation and destined to a customs bonded warehouse at the port of destination are not subject to payment of duties and taxes at the port of entry.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

What is the purpose of the required security for goods in transit within the customs territory?

a)

To cover potential damage to the goods during transit.

b)

To ensure payment of duties and taxes in case the goods are not exported.

c)

To guarantee the complete and immediate delivery of goods to the office of destination.

d)

To compensate the customs broker for their services.

45.

Who is responsible for tagging the arrival of transit goods in the system upon arrival at the office of destination or point of exit?

a)

The importer

b)

The exporter

c)

The customs broker

d)

The Deputy Collector for Operations or authorized person

46.

Which parties are responsible for ensuring the intact and timely arrival of goods under customs transit at the customs office of destination?

a)

The carrier and the customs broker

b)

The consignee and the exporter

c)

The importer and the Bureau of Customs

d)

The carrier, broker, consignee, or any of its agents

47.

What are the consequences of failing to comply with the obligations imposed on customs transit, such as not following the prescribed itinerary or delivery period?

a)

The goods may be subject to immediate payment of duties, taxes, and other applicable fines and penalties.

b)

The goods will be confiscated by the Bureau of Customs.

c)

The importer's license will be suspended.

d)

The carrier will be banned from transporting goods under customs transit.

48.

Which group is responsible for establishing the electronic transit cargo monitoring system?

a)

The Customs Intelligence and Investigation Service (CIIS)

b)

The Assessment and Operations Coordinating Group (AOCG)

c)

The Post Clearance Audit Group (PCAG)

d)

The Management Information and System Technology Group (MISTG)

49.

What is the main purpose of the electronic transit cargo monitoring system?

a)

To calculate the duties and taxes for transit goods.

b)

To generate reports on the volume of transit goods.

c)

To monitor and track the movement of goods under customs transit.

d)

To facilitate the online payment of fees for customs transit.

50.

What kind of information can the electronic transit cargo monitoring system generate?

a)

Accurate information on transit of goods

b)

Risk management data

c)

Information on the responsibilities of parties involved in customs transit

d)

All of the choices

51.

True or False: The carrier is the only party responsible for ensuring that goods under customs transit arrive intact and on time at the customs office of destination.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Can a customs seal or fastening be broken or tampered with during the transfer of goods in customs transit from one means of transport to another?

a)

Yes, as long as the goods are not damaged.

b)

Yes, with the approval of a customs officer.

c)

No, it is strictly prohibited.

d)

No, unless there is an emergency situation.

53.

What is the MINIMUM amount of general transportation security that carriers transporting goods under customs transit from a port of entry to other ports must post?

a)

PHP 10,000.00

b)

PHP 25,000.00

c)

PHP 50,000.00

d)

PHP 100,000.00

54.

Who has the authority to adjust the amount of the security required from carriers transporting goods under customs transit?

a)

The District Collector

b)

The Commissioner, upon approval of the Secretary of Finance

c)

The importer or consignee

d)

The customs broker

55.

What is the MAIN condition for transshipment goods to be exempt from duties and taxes?

a)

The goods must be destined for a specific country.

b)

The goods must be of a certain value.

c)

The Transshipment Goods Declaration must clearly indicate their nature, supported by necessary documents.

d)

The goods must be transported by a specific carrier.

56.

What is the standard period allowed for loading transshipment goods onto the exporting means of transport?

a)

7 calendar days from the date of arrival

b)

15 calendar days from the date of arrival

c)

30 calendar days from the date of arrival

d)

60 calendar days from the date of arrival

57.

Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for extending the period to load transshipment goods?

a)

Force majeure

b)

Act of public enemy in war

c)

Damage or leakage of the container

d)

Insufficient funds to pay for the shipment

58.

What happens to transshipment goods if they are not loaded within the allowed period?

a)

They are automatically re-exported.

b)

They are subject to reduced duties and taxes.

c)

They are treated as regular importation.

d)

They are donated to charity.

59.

If the owner or interested party fails to file the goods declaration for unloaded transshipment goods within the prescribed period, what happens to the goods?

a)

They are seized and forfeited.

b)

They are subject to auction.

c)

They are subject to abandonment proceedings.

d)

They are returned to the shipper.

60.

What document is used to accompany the transfer of transshipment goods between the carrier and the designated customs facility warehouse (CFW)?

a)

Bill of Lading (BL)

b)

Transfer Note

c)

Goods Declaration

d)

Packing List

61.

True or False: The Bureau of Customs can grant an extension for loading transshipment goods if the container is damaged or leaked.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

What does "transshipment" refer to?

a)

The transportation of goods from one country to another through a third country.

b)

The transportation of goods from one port to another within the same country.

c)

The unloading and reloading of goods onto a different vessel or aircraft.

d)

The temporary storage of goods in a customs bonded warehouse.

63.

What is the primary condition for transshipment goods to be exempt from duties and taxes?

a)

The goods must be declared as "in transit" in the Transshipment Goods Declaration.

b)

The goods must be accompanied by a Certificate of Origin.

c)

The goods must be destined for a customs bonded warehouse.

d)

The goods must be transported by a specific carrier.

64.

What is the standard period allowed for loading transshipment goods onto the exporting means of transport?

a)

7 calendar days from the date of arrival

b)

15 calendar days from the date of arrival

c)

30 calendar days from the date of arrival

d)

60 calendar days from the date of arrival

65.

Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for extending the period to load transshipment goods?

a)

Force majeure

b)

Act of public enemy in war

c)

Damage or leakage of the container

d)

Insufficient funds to pay for the shipment

66.

What happens if the transshipment goods are not loaded within the allowed period?

a)

They are automatically re-exported.

b)

They are subject to reduced duties and taxes.

c)

They are treated as regular importation.

d)

They are donated to charity.

67.

For outbound goods by sea, who is responsible for electronically submitting the Transshipment Goods Declaration?

a)

The importer

b)

The exporter

c)

The customs broker

d)

The carrier or its customs broker or authorized representative

68.

What document suffices as a Transshipment Goods Declaration for outbound goods by air?

a)

Bill of Lading (BL)

b)

Air Waybill (AWB)

c)

Inward Foreign Manifest (IFCM)

d)

Export Declaration (ED)

69.

Which types of goods are prohibited from being discharged from the carrier even for transshipment purposes?

a)

Hazardous and nuclear wastes

b)

Weapons of mass destruction (WMD)

c)

Nationally controlled goods without requisite authorization

d)

All of the choices

70.

What happens to transshipment goods covered by the Basel Convention and R.A. No. 6969 if discharged at the port?

a)

They are seized and forfeited.

b)

They are subject to additional duties and taxes.

c)

They are returned to the country of origin.

d)

They are destroyed.