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AMA MCQ FINAL

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The costs of goods acquired from suppliers including incoming freight or transportation costs are:

a)

purchasing costs

b)

ordering costs

c)

stockout costs

d)

carrying costs

2.

internal failure costs

a)

purchasing costs

b)

ordering costs

c)

stockout costs

d)

carrying costs

e)

quality cost

3.

opportunity cost of the investment tied up in inventory

a)

purchasing costs

b)

ordering costs

c)

stockout costs

d)

carrying costs

e)

quality cost

4.

spoilage of stored items

a)

purchasing costs

b)

ordering costs

c)

stockout costs

d)

carrying costs

e)

quality cost

5.

costs of lost sales as a result of not having an item requested by a customer

a)

purchasing costs

b)

ordering costs

c)

stockout costs

d)

carrying costs

e)

quality cost

6.

The costs of preparing, issuing, and paying purchase orders, plus receiving and inspecting the items included in orders is:

a)

purchasing costs

b)

ordering costs

c)

stockout costs

d)

carrying costs

7.

costs of matching invoices received to the items and the purchase orders

a)

purchasing costs

b)

ordering costs

c)

stockout costs

d)

carrying costs

8.

The costs that result from theft of inventory are:

a)

shrinkage costs

b)

external failure costs

c)

stockout costs

d)

costs of quality

9.

costs of wages for work-in-process inspections

a)

shrinkage costs

b)

external failure costs

c)

stockout costs

d)

costs of quality

10.

costs resulting from embezzlement by employees

a)

shrinkage costs

b)

external failure costs

c)

stockout costs

d)

costs of quality

11.

costs that result from clerical error

a)

shrinkage costs

b)

external failure costs

c)

stockout costs

d)

costs of quality

12.

The costs that result when a company runs out of a particular item for which there is a customer demand are:

a)

shrinkage costs

b)

shortage costs

c)

stockout costs

d)

EOQ estimation costs

13.

The costs that result when features and characteristics of a product or service are NOT in conformance with the specifications are:

a)

inspection costs

b)

costs of quality

c)

purchasing costs

d)

design costs

14.

The costs that result when a company holds an inventory of goods for sale:

a)

purchasing costs

b)

carrying costs

c)

opportunity costs

d)

interest costs

15.

Quality costs include:

a)

purchasing costs

b)

ordering costs

c)

stockout costs

d)

prevention costs

16.

Obsolescence is an example of which cost category?

a)

carrying costs

b)

labor costs

c)

ordering costs

d)

quality costs

17.

The costs associated with storage are an example of which cost category?

a)

quality costs

b)

labor costs

c)

ordering costs

d)

carrying costs

18.

Which of the following is an assumption of the economic-order-quantity decision model?

a)

The quantity ordered can vary at each reorder point.

b)

Demand ordering costs and carrying costs fluctuate.

c)

There will be timely labor costs.

d)

No stockouts occur

19.

The economic order quantity ignores:

a)

purchasing costs

b)

relevant ordering costs

c)

stockout costs

20.

The purchase order lead-time is:

a)

difference between the times an order is placed and delivered

b)

difference between the products ordered and the products received

c)

discrepancies in purchase orders

d)

time required to correct errors in the products received

21.

Which of the following statements about the economic-order-quantity decision model is FALSE?

a)

It assumes purchasing costs are relevant when the cost per unit changes due to the quantity ordered.

b)

It assumes quality costs are irrelevant if quality is unaffected by the number of units purchased.

c)

It assumes stockout costs are irrelevant if no stockouts occur.

d)

It assumes ordering costs and carrying costs are relevant.

22.

Relevant total costs in the economic-order-quantity decision model equal relevant ordering costs plus relevant:

a)

carrying costs

b)

stockout costs

c)

quality costs

d)

purchasing costs

23.

The annual relevant total costs are at a minimum when relevant:

a)

ordering costs are greater than the relevant carrying costs

b)

carrying costs are greater than the relevant ordering costs

c)

carrying costs are equal to relevant ordering costs

d)

None of these answers is correct.

24.

The optimal safety stock level is the quantity of safety stock that minimizes the sum of the annual relevant:

a)

stockout costs and carrying costs

b)

ordering costs and carrying costs

c)

ordering costs and stockout costs

d)

ordering costs and purchasing costs

25.

The reorder point is simplest to compute when:

a)

both demand and purchase-order lead times are known with certainty

b)

the number of units sold varies

c)

the safety stock amount never varies

d)

the relevant ordering costs and the relevant carrying costs are equal

26.

The annual relevant carrying costs of inventory consists of the sum of the:

a)

ordering costs and carrying costs

b)

stockout costs and carrying costs

c)

incremental costs plus the opportunity costs of capital

d)

incremental costs plus the carrying costs

27.

Just-in-time purchasing requires:

a)

larger and less frequent purchase orders

b)

smaller and less frequent purchase orders

c)

smaller and more frequent purchase orders

d)

larger and more frequent purchase orders

28.

Increases in the carrying cost and decreases in the ordering cost per purchase order result in:

a)

smaller EOQ amounts

b)

larger EOQ amounts

c)

larger relevant total costs

d)

smaller relevant total costs

29.

A push-through system that manufactures finished goods for inventory on the basis of demand forecasts is referred to as:

a)

just-in-time purchasing

b)

materials requirements planning

c)

relevant total costs

d)

economic order quantity

30.

A demand-pull system in which each component in a production line is produced immediately as needed by the next step in the production line is referred to as:

a)

just-in-time purchasing

b)

materials requirements planning

c)

relevant total costs

d)

economic order quantity

31.

The time required to get equipment, tools, and materials ready to start production is referred to as:

a)

setup time

b)

manufacturing lead time

c)

pass-through time

d)

None of these answers is correct.

32.

All of the following are potential financial benefits of just-in-time EXCEPT:

a)

lower investments in inventories

b)

lower investments in plant space for inventories

c)

reducing the risk of obsolescence

d)

reducing manufacturing lead time

33.

system that comprises a single database that collects data and feeds it into software applications supporting all of a company's business activities is known as a(n):

a)

economic order quantity (EOQ) system

b)

enterprise requirements planning (ERP) system

c)

just-in-time (JIT) system

d)

material requirements planning (MRP) system

34.

One DISADVANTAGE of an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system is:

a)

the use of standard costing systems is not allowed

b)

these systems are not in accordance with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP)

c)

the systems must often be customized to fit the strategic needs of the user

d)

the systems increase lead times when purchasing material from a supplier

35.

Which of the following involves significant financial investments in projects to develop new products, expand production capacity, or remodel current production facilities?

a)

capital budgeting

b)

working capital

c)

master budgeting

d)

project-cost budgeting

36.

The stage of the capital budgeting process that distinguishes which types of capital expenditure projects are necessary to accomplish organization objectives is the:

a)

identify projects stage

b)

make predictions stage

c)

obtain information stage

d)

make decisions by choosing among alternatives stage

37.

The stage of the capital budgeting process during which marketing is queried for potential revenue numbers is the:

a)

identify projects stage

b)

obtain information stage

c)

make predictions stage

d)

make decisions by choosing among alternatives stage

38.

The stage of the capital budgeting process that considers the expected costs and the expected benefits of alternative capital investments is the:

a)

identify projects stage

b)

make decisions by choosing among alternatives stage

c)

obtain information stage

d)

make predictions stage

39.

The stage of the capital budgeting process that chooses projects for implementation is the:

a)

make decisions by choosing among alternatives stage

b)

make predictions stage

c)

identify projects stage

d)

management-control stage

40.

The stage of the capital-budgeting process in which projects get underway and performance is monitored is the:

a)

implement the decision, evaluate performance, and learn stage

b)

make predictions stage

c)

identify projects stage

d)

management-control stage

41.

The stage of the capital budgeting process in which a firm obtains funding for the project is the:

a)

make decisions by choosing among alternatives stage.

b)

make predictions stage.

c)

obtain information stage.

d)

implement the decision, evaluate performance, and learn stage.

42.

The two factors capital budgeting emphasizes are:

a)

qualitative and nonfinancial

b)

quantitative and nonfinancial

c)

quantitative and financial

d)

qualitative and financial

43.

Which capital budgeting technique(s) measure all expected future cash inflows and outflows as if they occurred at a single point in time?

a)

net present value

b)

internal rate of return

c)

payback

44.

Discounted cash flow methods for capital budgeting focus on:

a)

cash inflows

b)

operating income

c)

cash outflows

45.

Net present value is calculated using the:

a)

internal rate of return

b)

required rate of return

c)

rate of return required by the investment bankers

d)

None of these answers is correct.

46.

The capital budgeting method which calculates the expected monetary gain or loss from a project by discounting all expected future cash inflows and outflows to the present point in time using the required rate of return is the:

a)

payback method

b)

accrual accounting rate-of-return method

c)

sensitivity method

d)

net present value method

47.

The capital budgeting method that calculates the discount rate at which the present value of expected cash inflows from a project equals the present value of expected cash outflows is the:

a)

net present value method

b)

accrual accounting rate-of-return method

c)

payback method

d)

internal rate of return

48.

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate term for the required rate of return?

a)

discount rate

b)

hurdle rate

c)

cost of capital

d)

All of these answers are correct.

49.

The definition of an annuity is:

a)

similar to the definition of a life insurance policy

b)

a series of equal cash flows at intervals

c)

an investment product whose funds are invested in the stock market

d)

Both A and B are correct.

50.

In capital budgeting, a project is accepted only if the internal rate of return equals or:

a)

exceeds the required rate of return

b)

is less than the required rate of return

c)

exceeds the net present value

d)

exceeds the accrual accounting rate of return

51.

In situations where the required rate of return is NOT constant for each year of the project, it is advantageous to use:

a)

the adjusted rate-of-return method

b)

the internal rate-of-return method

c)

the net present value method

d)

sensitivity analysis

52.

The method that measures the time it will take to recoup, in the form of future cash inflows, the total dollars invested in a project is called:

a)

the accrued accounting rate-of-return method

b)

payback method

c)

internal rate-of-return method

d)

the book-value method

53.

The payback method of capital budgeting approach to the investment decision highlights:

a)

cash flow over the life of the investment

b)

the liquidity of the investment

c)

the tax savings of the depreciation amounts

d)

having as lengthy payback time as possible

54.

The approach to capital budgeting which divides an accounting measure of income by an accounting measure of investment is the:

a)

net present value

b)

internal rate of return

c)

payback method

d)

accrual accounting rate of return

55.

For capital budgeting decisions, the use of the accrual accounting rate of return for evaluating performance is often a stumbling block to the implementation of the:

a)

net cash flow

b)

most effective goal-congruence choice

c)

discounted cash flow method for capital budgeting

d)

most effective tax strategy

56.

The most significant manager evaluation and goal congruence issues arise because of inconsistencies between the following methods of choosing among alternatives for capital budgeting purposes:

a)

net present value method and the internal rate of return method

b)

payback method and the net present value method

c)

net present value method and the accrual accounting rate of return method

d)

payback method and the internal rate of return method

57.

In the analysis of a capital budgeting proposal, for which of the following items are there NO after-tax consequences?

a)

cash flow from operations

b)

gain or loss on the disposal of the asset

c)

reduction of working capital balances at the end of the useful life of the capital asset

d)

None of these answers is correct.

58.

The relevant terminal disposal price of a machine equals the:

a)

difference between the salvage value of the old machine and the ultimate salvage value of the new machine

b)

total of the salvage values of the old machine and the new machine

c)

salvage value of the old machine

d)

salvage value of the new machine

59.

costs of obtaining purchase approvals

a)

ordering cost

b)

purchasing cost

c)

stockout cost

d)

quality cost

e)

carrying cost

60.

.............is the purchase of materials or goods so they are delivered just as needed
for production or sales.

a)

JIT

b)

MRP

c)

ERP

d)

EOQ

61.

a “demand-pull” manufacturing system that
manufactures each component in a production line as soon as and only
when needed by the next step in the production line

a)

JIT

b)

MRP

c)

ERP

d)

EOQ

62.

a “push-through” system that manufactures finished goods for inventory on
the basis of demand forecasts

a)

JIT

b)

MRP

c)

ERP

d)

EOQ

63.

is a system with a single database that collects data and feeds it into
software applications supporting all of a firm’s business activities

a)

JIT

b)

MRP

c)

ERP

d)

EOQ

64.

............. is planning, coordinating, and
controlling activities related to the flow of inventory into,
through, and out of an organization

a)

JIT

b)

MRP

c)

ERP

d)

EOQ

e)

Inventory management

65.

Relevant Costs in JIT Purchasing

a)

Purchasing costs

b)

Ordering cost

c)

Stockout costs

d)

Quality costs

e)

Carrying cost

66.

Relevant Costs in JEOQ ignores.............

a)

Purchasing costs

b)

Ordering cost

c)

Stockout costs

d)

Quality costs

e)

Carrying cost

67.

Relevant inventory carrying costs consist of

a)

relevent costing of quality and

b)

relevant incremental costs/ relevant
opportunity cost of capital

c)

relevant incremental cost

68.

Basic EOQ Assumptions

a)

There are only
ordering and stockout
costs.

b)

There are only
ordering and carrying
costs.

c)

There are only
purchasing and carrying
costs.

69.

Basic EOQ Assumptions

a)

There are only
ordering and stockout
costs.

b)


No stockouts occur

c)

The same quantity is
ordered at each
reorder point

70.

one project spans multiple accounting periods

a)

Project dimension

b)

Accounting period
dimension

71.

one period contains multiple projects

a)

Project dimension

b)

Accounting period
dimension

72.

measure all expected future cash inflows and outflows of a
project as if they occurred at a single point in time.

a)

DFC

b)

NPV

c)

IRR

d)

AARR

73.

RRR is also called

a)

discount rate

b)

hurdle rate

c)

cost of capital

d)

opportunity cost of capital.

e)

internal rate of return

74.

explicit rules, procedures, performance measures, and incentive plans that guide the behavior of its managers and other employees.

a)

Formal systems

b)

Informal systems

75.

shared values, loyalties, and mutual commitments among members of the company, corporate culture, and unwritten norms about acceptable behavior.

a)

Formal systems

b)

Informal systems

76.

the freedom for managers at lower levels of the organization to make
decisions.

a)

Centralization

b)

Decentralization

c)

Autonomy

77.

Leads to suboptimal decision making ( incongruent decision making or dysfunctional decision making )

a)

Centralization

b)

Decentralization

c)

Autonomy

78.

the freedom for managers at higher levels of the organization to make
decisions.

a)

Centralization

b)

Decentralization

c)

Autonomy

79.

maximum constraints and minimum freedom
for managers at the lowest levels of an organization to make decisions.

a)

total Centralization

b)

total Decentralization

80.

four types of responsibility
centers NOT inchlude:

a)

cost center

b)

revenue center

c)

finance center

d)

profit center

e)

investment center

81.

four types of responsibility
centers NOT inchlude:

a)

cost center

b)

revenue center

c)

finance center

d)

profit center

e)

investment center

82.

Useful when market prices are unavailable, inappropriate, or too
costly to obtain

a)

Hybrid transfer prices

b)

Market-Based Transfer Prices

c)

Cost-Based Transfer Prices

83.

Perhaps should not be used if the market is currently in a state of “distress pricing.”

a)

Hybrid transfer prices

b)

Market-Based Transfer Prices

c)

Cost-Based Transfer Prices

84.

Prorating the difference between the maximum and minimum
cost-based transfer prices.

a)

Hybrid transfer prices

b)

Market-Based Transfer Prices

c)

Cost-Based Transfer Prices

85.

One of the conditions for market-based transfer prices

a)

Useful when market prices are unavailable, inappropriate, or too
costly to obtain

b)

Interdependencies of subunits are minimal.

c)

The market for the intermediate product is perfectly
competitive.

d)

Perhaps should not be used if the market is currently in a state of “distress pricing.

86.

which method preserves subunit autonony

a)

market-based

b)

cost-based

87.

Allows a firm to achieve goal congruence, motivating management effort, subunit
performance evaluations, and subunit autonomy.

a)

market-based

b)

cost-based

88.

Types of hybrid transfer prices:

a)

Negotiated pricing

b)

Prorating the difference between maximum and minimum
transfer prices

c)

life-cycle costs

d)

Dual pricing

e)

full costs

89.

Biggest drawback to international decentralization

a)

lack of control

b)

uncertainties individual environment

c)

Results in duplication of output

d)

Results in duplication of activities

90.

The greater the freedom, the ...........
the autonomy

a)

lower

b)

greater