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DC Bio Exam 5 Review (Ch. 19-20)

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Density-independent factors that affect a population's growth by exerting effects unrelated to population density are:

a)

Volcanoes

b)

Floods

c)

Earthquakes

d)

Oil spills

e)

All of these are correct

2.

Conditions whose growth-limiting effects increase as a population grows are:

a)
  1. Are density-independent factors

b)
  1. Are density-dependent factors

c)
  1. Include competition for needed resources

d)
  1. Are density-dependent factors which includes competition for needed resources

e)
  1. Are density-independent factors which includes competition for needed resources

3.

The population growth curve that depicts the leveling off of a population in response to environmental resistance is the (a)   growth curve.

4.

Match the following terms to their description.

a)

The maximum number of individuals that a habitat can support indefinitely

1.

Carrying Capacity

b)

The physical location where an organism lives

2.

Habitat

c)

All of the organisms in a given location or area

3.

Community

d)

The study of the relationships among organisms and the environment

4.

Ecology

e)

The number of individuals of a species per unit area or volume of habita

5.

Population Density

5.

Match the following terms to their description.

a)

In a population the difference between the birth rate and the death rate

1.

Growth Rate

b)

The movement of individuals into a population

2.

Immigration

c)

The movement of individuals out of a population

3.

Emigration

d)

The number of new individuals produced per unit time in a population

4.

Birth Rate

e)

The number of individuals that die in a population per unit time

5.

Death Rate

6.

The ways by which members are added to or removed from a population include:

a)

Birth

b)

Death

c)

Emigration

d)

Immigration

e)

All of these are correct

7.

Classify the following

Categorize the following

All of the gray wolves found in Yellowstone Park

A report based on the interactions of wolves, moose, ticks, and trees on Isle Royale

all interacting species as well as their surrounding environm

Butterflies eat flower nectar and birds eat butterflies. The butterflies, flowers, and birds

All of the polar bears, seals, fish species, whales, seabirds and the Aleut people

Ecosystem
Population
Community
8.

Put the following in order from simplest (1) to most complex (4).

a)

Individual

b)

Population

c)

Community

d)

Ecosystem

1)
2)
3)
4)
9.

In predator-prey relationships, scientists are interested in which level of organization?

a)

Individual

b)

Population

c)

Community

d)

Ecosystem

10.

Removal of a predator from an ecosystem may do all of the following, EXCEPT:

a)

allow prey populations to remain above carrying capacity.

b)

affect prey populations.

c)

affect the vegetation of an ecosystem.

d)

have the ecosystem balance.

e)

have unintended negative results.

11.

Why do trees fluctuate with moose-wolf, predator-prey population cycles?

a)

They are a predator food source.

b)

They are a prey food source.

c)

They are dependent on predators.

d)

They grow best when the ends of branches are eaten.

e)

They are eaten.

12.

Which of the following most accurately describes the population cycles of moose and wolves on Isle Royale?

a)

Moose and wolf populations stay at carrying capacity.

b)

Moose populations stay at carrying capacity, while wolf populations rise and fall.

c)

Moose populations rise and fall, while wolf populations stay at carrying capacity.

d)

Moose and wolf populations rise and fall at the same time.

e)

Moose and wolf populations rise and fall, but wolf populations peak a few years after the moose population peaks.

13.

Which of the following BEST describes the growth curves of predator and prey?

a)

The predator growth curve is always above the prey growth curve.

b)

The prey growth curve is always above the predator growth curve.

c)

The predator and prey growth curves rise and fall together.

d)

interdependent cycles of boom and bust or hills and valleys

e)

The predator and prey growth curves rise and fall, but the prey growth curve lags behind the predator growth curve.

14.

From studies of predator prey relationships, it could be predicted that an increase of zebra on a savannah would be followed by a subsequent ____.

a)

increase in herbivores

b)

decrease in herbivores

c)

increase in lions

d)

decrease in lions

e)

All of these

15.

An increase in predator numbers is usually followed by a subsequent (a)   in prey numbers.

16.

A population's growth rate depends on ____.

a)

Birth Rate

b)

Death Rate

c)

Immigration

d)

Emigration

e)

All of these

17.

A decrease in natural resources will (a)   the carrying capacity.

18.

What population is also correlated with the wolf-moose population cycles observed on Isle Royale?

a)

fir trees

b)

bats

c)

small insects

d)

red squirrels

e)

humans

19.

A few years after a prey species population decreases, the predator population will (a)   . A few years after a predator species population decreases, the prey species population ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words
decreases
increases
20.

Why do ecologists count representative samples of a population and not the total population under study?

a)

to get a precise number

b)

because it is impractical to count all the members of the population

c)

because it is the way that ecologists study ecosystems

d)

to get an estimate before counting the whole population

e)

because a representative sample more accurately reflects the carrying capacity

21.

How has climate change affected the Isle Royale ecosystem?

a)

The moose population has decreased.

b)

The wolf population has decreased.

c)

The tick population has increased.

d)

The moose population has been weakened by ticks.

e)

All of these.

22.

Although many factors influence moose population density, predation is likely to be a density-​ (a)   ​ factor, and a harsh winter is likely to be a density-​ (b)   factor.

Choose from the below words
dependent
independent
23.

Which is a density-independent factor?

a)

competition

b)

parasitism

c)

drought

d)

disease

e)

predation

24.

The growth rate of a population is calculated from the ____ for that population.

a)
  1. carrying capacity

b)
  1. difference between births and deaths

c)

birth rate

d)

death rate

e)
  1. birth rate and the carrying capacity

25.

Predation is a density- (a)   factor.

26.

The physical place where members of a population typically live is termed a: (a)   .

27.

A species that is so important to its community (such as the honey bee) that their removal can dismantle a food web is termed a: _______ species.

a)

keystone

b)

dominant

c)

pollinators

d)

petals

28.

Match the following terms.

a)

Species living in close association with one another (one species living in or on another)

1.

Symbiosis

b)

Relationship in which both species benefit

2.

Mutualism

c)

Relationship in which one species benefits while the other is not effected

3.

Commensalism

d)

Relationship in which one species benefits and the other is harmed

4.

Parasitism

e)

When two or more species vie for the same limited resource

5.

Competition

29.

Mice eat fruits and nuts, and snakes eat mice. Which of the following is most likely to happen if snakes are removed from the community?

a)

The number of fruits and nuts will increase, but mice populations will be unchanged.

b)

The number of fruits and nuts will increase, and mice populations will also increase.

c)

The number of fruits and nuts will be unchanged, and mice populations will also be unchanged.

d)

The number of fruits and nuts will be unchanged, but mice populations will decrease.

e)

The number of fruits and nuts will decrease, but mice populations will increase.

30.

The instance of multiple food chains in a community describes a ____ ___.

(a)  

31.

Food chains are overly simplistic, as they do not consider _______.

a)

carnivores

b)

herbivores

c)

omnivores

d)

producers

e)

consumers

32.

As a result of competition _______.

a)

one species may go extinct

b)

both species may divide resources

c)

one or both populations are likely to decline

d)

all of these

33.

Competition for resources by two species occupying the same or similar niches is usually alleviated by _______.

a)

migration

b)

generalist foraging behavior

c)

aggressive foraging behavior

d)

resource partitioning

34.

The space, environment, and resources necessary for a species fitness describes a(n) (a)   .

35.

Where does pollination occur?

a)

on bees

b)

on flowers

c)

on fruit

d)

in hives

36.

Which of the following is not a type of symbiosis?

a)

Parasitism

b)

Symbolism

c)

Commensalism

d)

Mutualism

37.

The ________ principle states that two species cannot coexist indefinitely in the same niche.

a)

competitive exclusion principle

b)

co-inclusion principle

c)

second law of thermodynamics

d)

endosymbiotic theory

e)

zonal exclusion theory

38.

In ________ multiple species use the same resource in a slightly different way or at a different time.

a)

symbiotic inclusion

b)

resource partitioning

c)

mutualism

d)

intraspecific competition

39.

Introduction of non-native species of bees to the United States may cause ________.

a)

a decline in native species

b)

competition for limited resources

c)

migration of native bees

d)

partitioning of food resources

e)

All of these

40.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

Only portions of the habitat are most favorable

Habitat is relatively uniform and members do not attract and repel one another

Distribution where individuals strongly repel one another

Ocean fish that swim in schools

population distribution pattern is encountered most often by ecologists

neighborhoods in US Cities

A plant with wind-dispersed seeds

Clumped Distribution
Uniform Distribution
Random Distribution
41.

If global warming continues and predictions are correct by the end of the twenty-first century, sea level on Earth will _____.

a)

remain the same

b)

rise by 1m

c)

rise by 5m

d)

rise by 20cm

e)

lower by 20cm

42.

Which of the following is not a "greenhouse gas"?

a)

oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

nitrous oxide

d)

methane

e)

CFCs

43.

Greenhouse gasses block (a)   that escapes from the earth.

44.

An increase in the surface temperature of the Earth caused by heat trapping gases in the atmosphere is known as: (a)   effect.

45.

Fossil fuels ________.

a)
All of these
b)

are the remains of once-living organisms

c)

include coal, oil, and natural gas

d)

increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere when burned

e)

are significant contributors to global warming

46.

Which 3 processes regulate the natural carbon cycle on our planet?

a)

photosynthesis

b)

respiration

c)

decomposition

d)

transpiration

e)

nitrification

47.

Which is NOT a naturally occurring greenhouse gas?

a)
Oxygen
b)

Water Vapor

c)

Methane

d)

Carbon Dioxide

e)

CFCs (chlorfluorocarbons)

48.

The vegetation in a biome is largely influenced by ​ (a)   and ​ (b)   .​

Choose from the below words
temperature
precipitation
location
population
migration patterns
49.

Why would a plant species go extinct but an animal survive when temperature change alters a habitat?

a)

plants are less tolerant of rapid temperature change

b)

animals are more mobile than plants

c)

animals are more tolerant of heat changes

d)

animals are more adaptable

e)

all of these

50.

An ecosystem is the ​ (a)   , ​ (b)   , and ​ (c)   life plus the physical and chemical ​ (d)   in an area. The major types of ecosystems are called ​ (e)   .

Choose from the below words
plant
animal
bacterial
environment
biomes
niches
habitats
51.

Which of the following is an important temperate grassland?

a)

Prairies of North America

b)

Northern Africa

c)

Eastern Australia

d)

All of these are correct

52.

Trees that usually lose their leaves in the winter are:

a)
Deciduous trees
b)

Maple trees

c)

Oak trees

d)

Elm trees

e)

All of these

53.

Which of the following is not a major terrestrial biome of Earth?

a)

the tundra

b)

the taiga

c)

the temperate grasslands

d)

the antarctic

e)

the tropical forest

54.

On Earth, solar energy is most intense at the (a)   .

55.

Abiotic components of an ecosystem include ​ (a)   components only. ​ (b)   is not an abiotic component or condition of an ecosystem.

Choose from the below words

Water

Rock

Salinity

Temperature

Archaea
nonliving
living
56.

The loss of ice cover in the Arctic will ________.

a)

endanger resident species.

b)

raise the ocean temperature.

c)

increase the air temperature.

d)

increase sea levels.

e)

All of these.

57.

As a consequence of global warming, ________.

a)

only plants will be negatively affected.

b)

only animals will be negatively affected.

c)

all plants and animals will be negatively affected.

d)

some plants and animals will be negatively affected, while others won't be affected at all.

e)

some plants and animals will be negatively affected, while others will be positively affected.

58.

Which human activities contribute to elevated carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere?

a)

driving gasoline-powered cars

b)

burning of coal

c)

burning of oil

d)

burning of forests

e)

All of these.

59.

What process uses up (takes in) carbon dioxide in the environment? (a)   .

60.

Which land mass is showing the most dramatic increase in surface temperatures in recent years? ________.

a)

North America

b)

South America

c)

Arctic

d)

Europe

e)

Africa

61.

The increase in carbon dioxide levels correlates with an increase in Earth’s surface (a)   .

62.

Underground stores of freshwater are (a)   .

63.

What evidence supports an increase in Earth’s surface temperature?

a)

historical records

b)

tree rings

c)

ice cores

d)

corals

e)

All of the above

64.

Which is NOT a renewable resource?

a)

hydroelectric power

b)

wind power

c)

biofuels

d)

fossil fuels

e)

nuclear power

65.

Although ​ (a)   of Earth’s surface is water, only ​ (b)   is available for human consumption.​

Choose from the below words
70%
1%
50%
2%
55%
8%
63%
3%
66.

Why is there reluctance to eliminate fossil fuels as an energy source?

a)

There are no other sources of energy.

b)

They are relatively cheap to obtain.

c)

Other methods of energy production are not as efficient.

d)

They are unlimited in supply.

67.

Non-renewable resources ________.

a)

are natural resources.

b)

take millions of years to form.

c)

supply our energy demands.

d)

are not sustainable.

e)

All of these

68.

A ​ (a)   species is so important to its community (such as the ​ (b)   ) that their removal can dismantle a food web. Its loss would ​ (c)   impact the community and ecosystem.

Choose from the below words
negatively
positively
keystone
bison
69.

What percentage of the total energy is lost due to metabolism, heat, and waste between trophic levels in a food chain? ________

a)

1%

b)

10%

c)

50%

d)

70%

e)

90%

70.

The ________ begins with the weathering of rock.

a)

phosphorous cycle

b)

carbon cycle

c)

water cycle

d)

nitrogen cycle

e)

energy cycle

71.

The major determinants of climate are

a)

temperature

b)

moisture

c)

sunlight

d)

all of these

72.

As an overall average, about ___ _______ of the energy at one trophic level is available to the next highest rank in the food chain.

(a)  

73.

Which of the following is not an important biogeochemical cycle on Earth?

a)

ATP cycle

b)

Water Cycle

c)

Carbon Cycle

d)

Nitrogen Cycle

e)

Phosphorus Cycle

74.

Nitrogen-fixing bacteria convert N2 into ________.

a)

ammonia

b)

nitrogen

c)

phosphorous

d)

carbon dioxide

e)

methane

75.

If you had 10,000 J of energy at the producer level, how much energy would be available to the secondary consumers? ________ J

a)

100,000 J

b)

1000 J

c)

100 J

d)

10 J

e)

10,000 J

76.

Match the following organisms to their biome.

a)

temperate deciduous forest

1.

oak tree

b)

coniferous forest

2.

pine tree

c)

desert

3.

cactus

d)

tundra

4.

shortest growing season

e)

grassland

5.

sunflower

77.

The biome that has little to no annual variation in temperature __.

a)

tropical rain forest

b)

temperate grassland

c)

boreal forest

d)

temperate deciduous forest

e)

desert

78.

Suppose the number of bird species is determined mainly by the number of vertical strata found in the environment. If so, in which of the following biomes would you find the greatest number of bird species?

a)

tropical rain forest

b)

boreal forest

c)

desert

d)

temperate broadleaf forest

e)

temperate grassland

79.

Deserts typically occur in a band at 30 degrees north and south latitude because __.

a)
  1. descending air masses tend to be cool and dry.

b)
  1. trade winds have a little moisture.

c)
  1. water is heavier than air and is not carried far over land.

d)
  1. ascending air tends to be moist.

e)
  1. these locations get the most intense solar radiation of any location on Earth

80.

Approximately how many kg of carnivore production can be supported by a field plot containing 2000 kg of plant material?

(a)  

81.

Phytoplankton is most frequently found in which of the following zones?

a)
  1. profundal zone

b)
  1. benthic zone

c)
  1. photic zone

d)
  1. oligotrophic zone

e)
  1. aphotic zone

82.

Organize these options into the right categories of marine zones.

Categorize the following

lowest rates of primary productivity (photosynthesis)

Lake zone would be absent in a very shallow lake (less than 100m in depth)

Pelagic zone in the open ocean

often supports communities of organisms that feed largely on detritus

Abyssal Zone
Aphotic Zone
Photic Zone
Benthic Zone
83.

Although 70% of Earth’s surface is water, only (a)   is freshwater.

84.

What area has the highest total NPP on our planet?

a)

Coral Reefs

b)

Open Ocean

c)

Tropical Rain Forest

d)

Desert

e)

Grasslands

85.

A species that is relatively r-selected is likely to have _____.

a)

a large number of offspring

b)

a long life-span

c)

substantial parental care of offspring

d)

several years to sexual maturity